ELEMENTAL

Elemental is understanding the rule elements. Arrange the elements into a correct rule statement.

Elemental requires an understanding of the elements of each rule statement. Drag and drop the correct elements into the blank spaces of the provided rule statement.

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  • Contract Basics
  • Contract Formation
  • Defenses
  • Terms
  • UCC
  • Common Law Performance
  • Nonperformance Excuses
  • Changes to Contract Terms
  • Third Party
  • Damages

Contract Basics

0 Correct out of 7
  1. Applicable law for all contracts is governed by either (1) or (2) UCC Article 2.
  2. Acceptance is a (1) clear expression of assent (2) .
  3. Statute of Frauds requires certain contracts to be in writing which include (1) (2) performance longer than a year (3) land (4) executorship (5) goods over $500 and (6) suretyship.
  4. Contract is an (1) (2) acceptance (3) consideration and (4) no defenses.
  5. Incapacity applies to (1) and (2) mentally incompetent individuals who lack the capacity to contract.
  6. Offer is a (1) clear (2) of (3) present intent to contract.
  7. Consideration is a (1) bargained for exchange of (2) (3) between the parties.
  8. Applicable law for all contracts is governed by either (1) or (2) UCC Article 2.
  9. Acceptance is a (1) clear expression of assent (2) .
  10. Statute of Frauds requires certain contracts to be in writing which include (1) marriage (2) performance longer than a year (3) (4) executorship (5) and (6) .
  11. Contract is an (1) (2) acceptance (3) and (4) no defenses.
  12. Incapacity applies to (1) and (2) mentally incompetent individuals who lack the capacity to contract.
  13. Offer is a (1) clear (2) of (3) .
  14. Consideration is a (1) (2) legal value (3) .
  15. Applicable law for all contracts is governed by either (1) or (2) .
  16. Acceptance is a (1) (2) .
  17. Statute of Frauds requires certain contracts to be in writing which include (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) and (6) .
  18. Contract is an (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  19. Incapacity applies to (1) and (2) who lack the capacity to contract.
  20. Offer is a (1) (2) of (3) .
  21. Consideration is a (1) (2) (3) .

Contract Formation

0 Correct out of 7
  1. Mailbox Rule is (1) acceptance of the contract terms (2) upon dispatch and (3) .
  2. Irrevocable Offer is (1) an options contract (2) a UCC firm offer or (3) .
  3. Acceptance by Performance occurs when the (1) or (2) offeror has knowledge that offeree has begun performance.
  4. Acceptance by Shipment occurs when the individual (1) or (2) promptly ship goods.
  5. Rejection occurs when there is (1) an express rejection (2) a counteroffer (3) a or (4) acceptance with additional terms.
  6. Revocation consists of (1) or (2) offeree becomes aware of the offeror’s unambiguous conduct.
  7. Offer Terminates upon (1) (2) rejection by offeree or (3) lapse of time.
  8. Mailbox Rule is (1) (2) upon dispatch and (3) .
  9. Irrevocable Offer is (1) (2) a or (3) detrimental reliance.
  10. Acceptance by Performance occurs when the (1) or (2) offeror has knowledge that offeree has begun performance.
  11. Acceptance by Shipment occurs when the individual (1) promises to ship goods or (2) .
  12. Rejection occurs when there is (1) an express rejection (2) a (3) a or (4) acceptance with additional terms.
  13. Revocation consists of (1) an unambiguous statement by the offeror to the offeree or (2) .
  14. Offer Terminates upon (1) (2) rejection by offeree or (3) .
  15. Mailbox Rule is (1) (2) and (3) .
  16. Irrevocable Offer is (1) (2) a or (3) .
  17. Acceptance by Performance occurs when the (1) or (2) .
  18. Acceptance by Shipment occurs when the individual (1) or (2) .
  19. Rejection occurs when there is (1) (2) a (3) a or (4) .
  20. Revocation consists of (1) or (2) .
  21. Offer Terminates upon (1) (2) or (3) .

Defenses

0 Correct out of 7
  1. Promissory Estoppel occurs when (1) a promisor expects reliance (2) detrimental reliance occurs and (3) .
  2. Duress is a (1) wrongful act (2) .
  3. Undue Influence is a (1) contract entered (2) (3) by an individual susceptible to pressure.
  4. Fraud is a (1) false assertion of (2) a material fact (3) .
  5. Illusory Promise is a (1) and (2) no obligation to perform.
  6. A Mistake occurs when (1) both parties are (2) mistaken to (3) a factual assumption of the contract (4) .
  7. Satisfying Statute of Frauds occurs when either (1) a or (2) part performance.
  8. Promissory Estoppel occurs when (1) a promisor expects reliance (2) and (3) .
  9. Duress is a (1) (2) which overcomes the party’s free will.
  10. Undue Influence is a (1) contract entered (2) (3) .
  11. Fraud is a (1) (2) a material fact (3) .
  12. Illusory Promise is a (1) and (2) no obligation to perform.
  13. A Mistake occurs when (1) both parties are (2) (3) a factual assumption of the contract (4) .
  14. Satisfying Statute of Frauds occurs when either (1) a or (2) part performance.
  15. Promissory Estoppel occurs when (1) a (2) and (3) .
  16. Duress is a (1) (2) .
  17. Undue Influence is a (1) (2) (3) .
  18. Fraud is a (1) (2) a (3) .
  19. Illusory Promise is a (1) and (2) .
  20. A Mistake occurs when (1) (2) (3) a (4) .
  21. Satisfying Statute of Frauds occurs when either (1) a or (2) .

Terms

0 Correct out of 3
  1. Risk of Loss occurs when (1) shipment by common carrier upon dispatch (2) a or (3) a non-carrier non-merchant buyer need only tender delivery.
  2. Warranties consists of (1) express warranty (2) implied warranty of merchantability and (3) .
  3. The Parole Evidence Rule is extrinsic evidence to a written contract is inadmissible to (1) or (2) contradict the written contract.
  4. Risk of Loss occurs when (1) shipment by common carrier upon dispatch (2) a or (3) a .
  5. Warranties consists of (1) (2) implied warranty of merchantability and (3) .
  6. The Parole Evidence Rule is extrinsic evidence to a written contract is inadmissible to (1) supplement or (2) .
  7. Risk of Loss occurs when (1) (2) a or (3) a .
  8. Warranties consists of (1) (2) and (3) .
  9. The Parole Evidence Rule is extrinsic evidence to a written contract is inadmissible to (1) or (2) .

UCC

0 Correct out of 4
  1. Perfect Tender are (1) goods must be delivered (2) (3) with respect to their manner of delivery.
  2. Buyers Options regarding delivery consist of (1) (2) reject in part (3) accept in whole or (4) reject in whole.
  3. Installment Contract is (1) delivery (2) .
  4. Right to Cure delivery occurs when (1) buyer has notified seller of imperfect tender (2) seller gives buyer notice of intent to cure and (3) .
  5. Perfect Tender are (1) (2) (3) with respect to their manner of delivery.
  6. Buyers Options regarding delivery consist of (1) accept in part (2) (3) accept in whole or (4) .
  7. Installment Contract is (1) delivery (2) .
  8. Right to Cure delivery occurs when (1) buyer has notified seller of imperfect tender (2) and (3) .
  9. Perfect Tender are (1) (2) (3) .
  10. Buyers Options regarding delivery consist of (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  11. Installment Contract is (1) (2) .
  12. Right to Cure delivery occurs when (1) (2) and (3) .

Common Law Performance

0 Correct out of 2
  1. Substantial Performance occurs when (1) (2) where the other party is obligated to perform or complete their performance.
  2. Material Breach is a (1) (2) where the other party is deprived of the benefit of the contract.
  3. Substantial Performance occurs when (1) (2) where the other party is obligated to perform or complete their performance.
  4. Material Breach is a (1) (2) where the other party is deprived of the benefit of the contract.
  5. Substantial Performance occurs when (1) (2) .
  6. Material Breach is a (1) (2) .

Nonperformance Excuses

0 Correct out of 6
  1. Anticipatory Repudiation is a (1) (2) unambiguous act (3) the party will not perform the contract.
  2. Frustration of Purpose is an (1) unexpected event which (2) where (3) the event is not the fault of the parties.
  3. Impossibility is (1) performance is (2) .
  4. At-will-employment is an (1) agreement (2) (3) at any time.
  5. Impracticability is (1) performance is (2) (3) with extreme and unreasonable difficulty or expense.
  6. Conditions are either (1) precedent or (2) .
  7. Anticipatory Repudiation is a (1) clear (2) (3) .
  8. Frustration of Purpose is an (1) which (2) destroys the purpose of the contract where (3) the .
  9. Impossibility is (1) (2) objectively impossible.
  10. At-will-employment is an (1) (2) (3) at any time.
  11. Impracticability is (1) is (2) (3) with extreme and unreasonable difficulty or expense.
  12. Conditions are either (1) precedent or (2) .
  13. Anticipatory Repudiation is a (1) (2) (3) .
  14. Frustration of Purpose is an (1) which (2) where (3) the .
  15. Impossibility is (1) (2) .
  16. At-will-employment is an (1) (2) (3) .
  17. Impracticability is (1) is (2) (3) .
  18. Conditions are either (1) or (2) .

Changes to Contract Terms

0 Correct out of 2
  1. Novation is when (1) (2) agree to substitute a new party (3) to perform the contract.
  2. Modification occurs when (1) existing parties (2) alter the original contract terms where (3) mutual assent and (4) .
  3. Novation is when (1) (2) agree to substitute a new party (3) .
  4. Modification occurs when (1) (2) alter the original contract terms where (3) and (4) consideration is now required.
  5. Novation is when (1) (2) (3) .
  6. Modification occurs when (1) (2) (3) and (4) .

Third Party

0 Correct out of 3
  1. Intended Beneficiaries are (1) parties of the contract (2) intended the third party (3) .
  2. Third Party Rights Vest when the third party (1) learns of and (2) learns of and files suit or (3) learns of and relies upon the contract.
  3. Incidental Beneficiaries are (1) parties of the contract (2) did not intend (3) .
  4. Intended Beneficiaries are (1) (2) intended the third party (3) .
  5. Third Party Rights Vest when the third party (1) learns of and (2) learns of and or (3) learns of and relies upon the contract.
  6. Incidental Beneficiaries are (1) (2) did not intend (3) .
  7. Intended Beneficiaries are (1) (2) (3) .
  8. Third Party Rights Vest when the third party (1) learns of and (2) learns of and or (3) learns of and .
  9. Incidental Beneficiaries are (1) (2) (3) .

Damages

0 Correct out of 5
  1. Incidental damages are (1) (2) commercially reasonable expenses (3) which flow from the breach of the contract.
  2. Expectation Damages are the standard measure of money damages that (1) in a (2) economic position had the party completed the contract.
  3. Specific Performance are (1) damages that are not personal services in which involve (2) or (3) unique goods that money cannot compensate for.
  4. Consequential Damages are (1) (2) indirectly resulting from the breach of contract.
  5. Liquidated Damages are an agreed upon amount of damages which (1) and (2) reasonable.
  6. Incidental damages are (1) (2) (3) which flow from the breach of the contract.
  7. Expectation Damages are the standard measure of money damages that (1) put the non-breaching party in a (2) .
  8. Specific Performance are (1) in which involve (2) land or (3) that money cannot compensate for.
  9. Consequential Damages are (1) (2) indirectly resulting from the breach of contract.
  10. Liquidated Damages are an agreed upon amount of damages which (1) occur prior to contract formation and (2) .
  11. Incidental damages are (1) (2) (3) .
  12. Expectation Damages are the standard measure of money damages that (1) in a (2) .
  13. Specific Performance are (1) in which involve (2) or (3) that money cannot compensate for.
  14. Consequential Damages are (1) (2) .
  15. Liquidated Damages are an agreed upon amount of damages which (1) and (2) .
  • Relevance
  • Character Evidence
  • Impeachment
  • Testimonial Evidence
  • Testimonial Privilege
  • Evidence
  • Hearsay
  • Confrontation Clause

Relevance

0 Correct out of 8
  1. Subsequent Remedial Measures taken after an injury or event are inadmissible to prove (1) fault (2) or (3) an inadequate warning.
  2. Probative value (403) is the exclusion of relevant evidence if (1) the probative value is (2) (3) the danger of unfair prejudice.
  3. Relevant evidence based on public policy grounds may be excluded if it involves (1) liability insurance (2) subsequent remedial measures (3) or (4) payments or offers to pay medical expenses.
  4. Liability Insurance is generally not admissible to (1) or (2) a party’s ability to pay damages unless (3) it is used to prove ownership.
  5. Excluded evidence (402) is evidence that is excluded if it is barred by (1) the (2) a federal statute (3) the Federal Rules of Evidence or (4) any other rule established by the Supreme Court of the United States.
  6. Relevant evidence (401) is evidence that (1) (2) more or less probable (3) than it would be without the evidence.
  7. Unfair Prejudice consist of (1) confusion of issues (2) (3) undue delay or waste of time or (4) presenting duplicative evidence.
  8. Evidentiary Hearings are (1) a (2) conducted outside the presence of the jury.
  9. Subsequent Remedial Measures taken after an injury or event are inadmissible to prove (1) (2) defect or (3) .
  10. Probative value (403) is the exclusion of relevant evidence if (1) the is (2) substantially outweighed by (3) .
  11. Relevant evidence based on public policy grounds may be excluded if it involves (1) (2) subsequent remedial measures (3) or (4) payments or offers to pay medical expenses.
  12. Liability Insurance is generally not admissible to (1) or (2) a party’s ability to pay damages unless (3) .
  13. Excluded evidence (402) is evidence that is excluded if it is barred by (1) the (2) a federal statute (3) the or (4) any other rule established by the Supreme Court of the United States.
  14. Relevant evidence (401) is evidence that (1) (2) (3) than it would be without the evidence.
  15. Unfair Prejudice consist of (1) (2) misleading the jury (3) or (4) presenting duplicative evidence.
  16. Evidentiary Hearings are (1) a (2) conducted outside the presence of the jury.
  17. Subsequent Remedial Measures taken after an injury or event are inadmissible to prove (1) (2) or (3) .
  18. Probative value (403) is the exclusion of relevant evidence if (1) the is (2) (3) .
  19. Relevant evidence based on public policy grounds may be excluded if it involves (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  20. Liability Insurance is generally not admissible to (1) or (2) a unless (3) .
  21. Excluded evidence (402) is evidence that is excluded if it is barred by (1) the (2) a (3) the or (4) .
  22. Relevant evidence (401) is evidence that (1) (2) (3) .
  23. Unfair Prejudice consist of (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  24. Evidentiary Hearings are (1) a (2) .

Character Evidence

0 Correct out of 7
  1. Character Evidence is generally inadmissible; however, is admissible to prove (1) motive (2) intent (3) (4) identity or (5) common plan or scheme.
  2. In Criminal Sexual Assault cases reputation or opinion evidence is inadmissible unless (1) prior relationship between the victim and defendant or (2) a .
  3. In Civil Sexual Assault Cases Victim’s character evidence is admissible by reputation, opinion, and specific instances of conduct if (1) the probative value is substantially outweighed by the danger of unfair prejudice or (2) the .
  4. Prosecution may not initiate character evidence of the Defendant unless (1) sexual assault or (2) .
  5. Victim’s character evidence can only be introduced by (1) the Defendant and once introduced (2) .
  6. Use of Sexual Assault Evidence must (1) be disclosed with their intent to offer the evidence (2) and (3) notify the victim 14 days prior to trial.
  7. In Homicide Cases Defendant may raise self-defense and offer evidence showing (1) (2) the victim attacked first.
  8. Character Evidence is generally inadmissible; however, is admissible to prove (1) (2) (3) mistake or lack of mistake (4) identity or (5) .
  9. In Criminal Sexual Assault cases reputation or opinion evidence is inadmissible unless (1) or (2) a third party is the source of the DNA or injury.
  10. In Civil Sexual Assault Cases Victim’s character evidence is admissible by reputation, opinion, and specific instances of conduct if (1) the or (2) the victim puts their reputation at issue.
  11. Prosecution may not initiate character evidence of the Defendant unless (1) sexual assault or (2) .
  12. Victim’s character evidence can only be introduced by (1) the (2) rebutted by the prosecution.
  13. Use of Sexual Assault Evidence must (1) (2) and (3) notify the victim 14 days prior to trial.
  14. In Homicide Cases Defendant may raise self-defense and offer evidence showing (1) (2) the victim attacked first.
  15. Character Evidence is generally inadmissible; however, is admissible to prove (1) (2) (3) (4) or (5) .
  16. In Criminal Sexual Assault cases reputation or opinion evidence is inadmissible unless (1) or (2) a .
  17. In Civil Sexual Assault Cases Victim’s character evidence is admissible by reputation, opinion, and specific instances of conduct if (1) the or (2) the .
  18. Prosecution may not initiate character evidence of the Defendant unless (1) or (2) .
  19. Victim’s character evidence can only be introduced by (1) the (2) .
  20. Use of Sexual Assault Evidence must (1) (2) and (3) .
  21. In Homicide Cases Defendant may raise self-defense and offer evidence showing (1) (2) the .

Impeachment

0 Correct out of 3
  1. Impeachment is an adverse reflection on the veracity of the witnesses testimony shown by (1) contradiction (2) prior inconsistent statements (3) bias (4) interest (5) reputation or (6) .
  2. Collateral Issues are a (1) (2) the issues in the case.
  3. Extrinsic Evidence is evidence that challenges the (1) credibility of the witness used to (2) .
  4. Impeachment is an adverse reflection on the veracity of the witnesses testimony shown by (1) (2) (3) (4) interest (5) reputation or (6) prior acts of misconduct.
  5. Collateral Issues are a (1) (2) the issues in the case.
  6. Extrinsic Evidence is evidence that challenges the (1) credibility of the witness used to (2) .
  7. Impeachment is an adverse reflection on the veracity of the witnesses testimony shown by (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) or (6) .
  8. Collateral Issues are a (1) (2) .
  9. Extrinsic Evidence is evidence that challenges the (1) (2) .

Testimonial Evidence

0 Correct out of 7
  1. Lay Opinion testimony is admissible if it is based upon (1) perception (2) rationally based (3) and (4) not an expert.
  2. Competency of a witness requires the witness has (1) personal knowledge (2) memory (3) and (4) sincerity.
  3. Present Recollection Refreshed involves using documents to refresh the witness’s memory which requires (1) the witness to not read aloud from the document (2) (3) not read into evidence and (4) the adverse party has the chance to enter it into evidence.
  4. Objection to questions occurs when the question (1) calls for narrative (2) (3) augmentative or (4) are or beyond the scope of direct.
  5. Daubert Test are scientific evidence based upon (1) (2) rate of error (3) acceptance of others in the field and (4) published.
  6. Past Recorded Recollection are contents of a record or document that was previously adopted or read into evidence in which (1) witness had knowledge of the subject matter at issue (2) (3) the record was made or adopted by the witness when it was fresh in their memory and (4) the record accurately reflects witness’s knowledge.
  7. Expert Opinion testimony may be given if (1) helpful (2) qualified (3) provided with reasonable certainty (4) a proper factual basis formed and (4) .
  8. Lay Opinion testimony is admissible if it is based upon (1) (2) rationally based (3) helpful to understand or determining a fact and (4) .
  9. Competency of a witness requires the witness has (1) (2) (3) communication and (4) sincerity.
  10. Present Recollection Refreshed involves using documents to refresh the witness’s memory which requires (1) the witness to not read aloud from the document (2) inspection of the document by the opposing party (3) and (4) .
  11. Objection to questions occurs when the question (1) calls for narrative (2) (3) or (4) are or beyond the scope of direct.
  12. Daubert Test are scientific evidence based upon (1) (2) (3) acceptance of others in the field and (4) published.
  13. Past Recorded Recollection are contents of a record or document that was previously adopted or read into evidence in which (1) (2) (3) the record was made or adopted by the witness when it was fresh in their memory and (4) the record accurately reflects witness’s knowledge.
  14. Expert Opinion testimony may be given if (1) (2) qualified (3) provided with reasonable certainty (4) a and (4) .
  15. Lay Opinion testimony is admissible if it is based upon (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  16. Competency of a witness requires the witness has (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  17. Present Recollection Refreshed involves using documents to refresh the witness’s memory which requires (1) the (2) (3) and (4) .
  18. Objection to questions occurs when the question (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  19. Daubert Test are scientific evidence based upon (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  20. Past Recorded Recollection are contents of a record or document that was previously adopted or read into evidence in which (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  21. Expert Opinion testimony may be given if (1) (2) (3) (4) a and (4) .

Testimonial Privilege

0 Correct out of 4
  1. Marital Communication privilege pertains to communication between spouses (1) made during the marriage (2) (3) applies to both criminal and civil proceedings and (4) survives divorce.
  2. Testimonial Privilege is a privilege that is protected by the Federal Rules of Evidence which include (1) attorney client (2) spousal privilege or marital communications (3) or (4) doctor patient if recognized in the forum state.
  3. Spousal Communication privilege applies to communication between spouses who were (1) married at the time of the trial (2) is limited to criminal cases (3) and (4) can only be invoked by the witness spouse.
  4. Attorney-Client Privilege protects communications between an attorney and a client if (1) they are intended to be confidential and (2) .
  5. Marital Communication privilege pertains to communication between spouses (1) (2) can be invoked by either spouse (3) and (4) survives divorce.
  6. Testimonial Privilege is a privilege that is protected by the Federal Rules of Evidence which include (1) attorney client (2) (3) or (4) doctor patient if recognized in the forum state.
  7. Spousal Communication privilege applies to communication between spouses who were (1) married at the time of the trial (2) is limited to criminal cases (3) and (4) .
  8. Attorney-Client Privilege protects communications between an attorney and a client if (1) and (2) made to facilitate the provision of legal services.
  9. Marital Communication privilege pertains to communication between spouses (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  10. Testimonial Privilege is a privilege that is protected by the Federal Rules of Evidence which include (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  11. Spousal Communication privilege applies to communication between spouses who were (1) (2) is (3) and (4) .
  12. Attorney-Client Privilege protects communications between an attorney and a client if (1) and (2) .

Evidence

0 Correct out of 3
  1. Authenticated Evidence is evidence that is (1) (2) the proponent produces (3) by any means that serve to establish authenticity.
  2. Best Evidence Rule is evidence that is offered when the original is unavailable to (1) or (2) an original document.
  3. Judicial Notice is a court notice that can recognize (1) (2) without formal presentation (3) either on its own initiative or (4) by formal request of a party.
  4. Authenticated Evidence is evidence that is (1) (2) (3) by any means that serve to establish authenticity.
  5. Best Evidence Rule is evidence that is offered when the original is unavailable to (1) or (2) an original document.
  6. Judicial Notice is a court notice that can recognize (1) any fact as true (2) (3) either on its own initiative or (4) .
  7. Authenticated Evidence is evidence that is (1) (2) (3) .
  8. Best Evidence Rule is evidence that is offered when the original is unavailable to (1) or (2) .
  9. Judicial Notice is a court notice that can recognize (1) (2) (3) or (4) .

Hearsay

0 Correct out of 15
  1. Admissible Hearsay is an out of court statement consisting of (1) legal operative fact (2) words to proport the effect of the listener (3) speaker’s knowledge or (4) .
  2. Dying Declarations are admissible if (1) (2) declarant was under the belief of impending death (3) the statement was made in regard to the cause of circumstances surround the impending death and (4) only applies to homicide or all civil cases.
  3. Business Records are admissible if (1) a record or transaction recorded by the business (2) is made during the regular course of business (3) and (4) authenticated or certified in writing.
  4. Non-Hearsay Exemptions are hearsay statements made by a party opponent that is in the form of (1) judicial statements (2) or (3) a vicarious statement.
  5. Former Testimony Under Oath is testimony given by a person in an earlier proceeding or deposition is admissible if (1) (2) prior testimony was given under oath and either (3) the party in the previous action had the opportunity to cross examine the declarant or (4) a predecessor in interest of a party in the previous action had the opportunity to cross examine and a similar motive in doing so.
  6. Unavailability means the declarant’s testimony is (1) privileged (2) death (3) or (4) lack of memory.
  7. Statement Against Interest are admissible if (1) pecuniary gain (2) (3) statement was contrary to declarant’s pecuniary gain or (4) a reasonable person would not have made the statement unless believed to be true.
  8. Physical Condition statements are admissible if (1) statement is made to physical personnel and (2) .
  9. Excited Utterance are admissible if (1) and (2) was made while under the excitement or stress of the event.
  10. Hearsay is a (1) (2) offered to prove (3) the truth of the matter asserted.
  11. Present State of Mind statements are admissible if (1) concern the declarant’s state of mind (2) emotion (3) or (4) physical condition at the time the statement was made.
  12. Present Sense Impression are admissible if (1) and (2) is made during or immediately after the event in question.
  13. Public Records are admissible if (1) (2) under a duty of law (3) by a public employee within their scope of duty and (4) occurred at or near the time of the event.
  14. Declarant Unavailability is admissible if (1) former testimony under oath (2) statement against interest (3) or (4) statements offered against the party procuring declarants unavailability.
  15. Learned Treatises are accepted authority pertaining to a certain field by the expert and can be accepted by (1) testimony (2) admission or (3) .
  16. Admissible Hearsay is an out of court statement consisting of (1) legal operative fact (2) (3) speaker’s knowledge or (4) .
  17. Dying Declarations are admissible if (1) declarant is unavailable (2) (3) the statement was made in regard to the cause of circumstances surround the impending death and (4) .
  18. Business Records are admissible if (1) a (2) is made during the regular course of business (3) by someone with knowledge at or near the time the matters described and (4) .
  19. Non-Hearsay Exemptions are hearsay statements made by a party opponent that is in the form of (1) (2) or (3) a vicarious statement.
  20. Former Testimony Under Oath is testimony given by a person in an earlier proceeding or deposition is admissible if (1) declarant is currently unavailable (2) and either (3) the party in the previous action had the opportunity to cross examine the declarant or (4) a predecessor in interest of a party in the previous action had the .
  21. Unavailability means the declarant’s testimony is (1) (2) (3) refusal or (4) lack of memory.
  22. Statement Against Interest are admissible if (1) pecuniary gain (2) (3) statement was or (4) a reasonable person would not have made the statement unless believed to be true.
  23. Physical Condition statements are admissible if (1) statement is made to physical personnel and (2) .
  24. Excited Utterance are admissible if (1) relate to the startling event in question and (2) was made while under the of the event.
  25. Hearsay is a (1) (2) (3) the truth of the matter asserted.
  26. Present State of Mind statements are admissible if (1) concern the declarant’s state of mind (2) (3) or (4) physical condition at the time the statement was made.
  27. Present Sense Impression are admissible if (1) and (2) is made during or immediately after the event in question.
  28. Public Records are admissible if (1) (2) under a duty of law (3) and (4) occurred at or near the time of the event.
  29. Declarant Unavailability is admissible if (1) former testimony under oath (2) (3) dying declaration or (4) .
  30. Learned Treatises are accepted authority pertaining to a certain field by the expert and can be accepted by (1) (2) admission or (3) .
  31. Admissible Hearsay is an out of court statement consisting of (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  32. Dying Declarations are admissible if (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  33. Business Records are admissible if (1) a (2) (3) and (4) .
  34. Non-Hearsay Exemptions are hearsay statements made by a party opponent that is in the form of (1) (2) or (3) a .
  35. Former Testimony Under Oath is testimony given by a person in an earlier proceeding or deposition is admissible if (1) (2) and either (3) the party in the previous action had the or (4) a predecessor in interest of a party in the previous action had the .
  36. Unavailability means the declarant’s testimony is (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  37. Statement Against Interest are admissible if (1) (2) (3) statement was contrary to declarant’s or (4) a .
  38. Physical Condition statements are admissible if (1) and (2) .
  39. Excited Utterance are admissible if (1) and (2) was made while under the of the event.
  40. Hearsay is a (1) (2) (3) .
  41. Present State of Mind statements are admissible if (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  42. Present Sense Impression are admissible if (1) and (2) the event in question.
  43. Public Records are admissible if (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  44. Declarant Unavailability is admissible if (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  45. Learned Treatises are accepted authority pertaining to a certain field by the expert and can be accepted by (1) (2) or (3) .

Confrontation Clause

0 Correct out of 1
  1. The Confrontation Clause ensures that every defendant has the right to confront witnesses when (1) is (2) offered against the defendant (3) in a criminal case and (4) may be excluded if the declarant is unavailable.
  2. The Confrontation Clause ensures that every defendant has the right to confront witnesses when (1) is (2) offered against the defendant (3) in a criminal case and (4) .
  3. The Confrontation Clause ensures that every defendant has the right to confront witnesses when (1) is (2) (3) and (4) .
  • Intentional Torts
  • Defenses
  • Defamation
  • Other Torts
  • Negligence
  • Strict Liability
  • Products Liability
  • Nuisance
  • Liability

Intentional Torts

0 Correct out of 9
  1. Battery is an (1) intentional (2) voluntary act by the defendant (3) where there is .
  2. False Imprisonment is an (1) (2) voluntary act (3) where the Plaintiff is confined to a bounded area.
  3. Trespass to chattel is an (1) intentional (2) .
  4. Conversion is the (1) intentional (2) intermeddling of another’s personal property (3) where Plaintiff can recover the .
  5. Assault is an (1) (2) voluntary act by the defendant (3) where there is reasonable apprehension of harmful or immediate contact.
  6. Trespass to Land is an (1) (2) physical invasion of one’s real property.
  7. Intentional Infliction of Emotional Distress is (1) an extreme or outrageous act (2) by the Defendant (3) where the .
  8. Bystander Intentional Infliction of Emotional Distress is the bystander is closely related to the injured person where the (1) Defendant’s conduct seriously injured a third person (2) (3) Plaintiff was present when the injury occurred (4) Defendant knew of the relation and (5) Plaintiff suffers emotional distress.
  9. Tort is an (1) intentional (2) (3) causing such harm.
  10. Battery is an (1) (2) voluntary act by the defendant (3) where there is .
  11. False Imprisonment is an (1) intentional (2) (3) where the .
  12. Trespass to chattel is an (1) intentional (2) .
  13. Conversion is the (1) intentional (2) (3) where Plaintiff can recover the .
  14. Assault is an (1) (2) (3) where there is reasonable apprehension of harmful or immediate contact.
  15. Trespass to Land is an (1) (2) physical invasion of one’s real property.
  16. Intentional Infliction of Emotional Distress is (1) an (2) by the (3) where the Plaintiff suffers severe emotional distress.
  17. Bystander Intentional Infliction of Emotional Distress is the bystander is closely related to the injured person where the (1) (2) Plaintiff is closely related to the injured third person (3) (4) Defendant knew of the relation and (5) .
  18. Tort is an (1) intentional (2) (3) .
  19. Battery is an (1) (2) (3) where there is .
  20. False Imprisonment is an (1) (2) (3) where the .
  21. Trespass to chattel is an (1) (2) .
  22. Conversion is the (1) (2) (3) where Plaintiff can recover the .
  23. Assault is an (1) (2) (3) where there is .
  24. Trespass to Land is an (1) (2) .
  25. Intentional Infliction of Emotional Distress is (1) an (2) by the (3) where the .
  26. Bystander Intentional Infliction of Emotional Distress is the bystander is closely related to the injured person where the (1) (2) (3) (4) and (5) .
  27. Tort is an (1) (2) (3) .

Defenses

0 Correct out of 6
  1. Recapture of chattels is a defense to trespass claims when (1) the Defendant may use peaceful means (2) .
  2. Necessity is a defense to all property damage claims of the Plaintiff’s property which are outweighed in an effort to avoid greater danger when (1) and (2) the threatened injury was more serious than the property interference.
  3. Defense of Others is the Defendant’s (1) (2) that the person they are aiding would have the right to self-defense.
  4. Self Defense is the (1) (2) of properly timed (3) applied reasonable force.
  5. Consent is a defense to all intentional torts where the Plaintiff has given (1) or (2) scope of consent was not exceeded.
  6. Defense of Property is the (1) application of reasonable (2) .
  7. Recapture of chattels is a defense to trespass claims when (1) the Defendant may use peaceful means (2) .
  8. Necessity is a defense to all property damage claims of the Plaintiff’s property which are outweighed in an effort to avoid greater danger when (1) reasonably necessary and (2) the .
  9. Defense of Others is the Defendant’s (1) (2) that the person they are aiding would have the right to self-defense.
  10. Self Defense is the (1) (2) of properly timed (3) .
  11. Consent is a defense to all intentional torts where the Plaintiff has given (1) express consent or (2) .
  12. Defense of Property is the (1) application of reasonable (2) .
  13. Recapture of chattels is a defense to trespass claims when (1) the (2) .
  14. Necessity is a defense to all property damage claims of the Plaintiff’s property which are outweighed in an effort to avoid greater danger when (1) and (2) the .
  15. Defense of Others is the Defendant’s (1) (2) that the person they are aiding would have the .
  16. Self Defense is the (1) (2) of (3) .
  17. Consent is a defense to all intentional torts where the Plaintiff has given (1) or (2) .
  18. Defense of Property is the (1) (2) .

Defamation

0 Correct out of 4
  1. Slander is (1) (2) pecuniary damages.
  2. Defamation of a Private Citizen is (1) a defamatory statement (2) regarding the Plaintiff (3) and (4) harmful to Plaintiff’s reputation.
  3. Defamation of a public citizen is a (1) defamatory statement (2) regarding the Plaintiff (3) that was published (4) harmful to the Plaintiff’s reputation and (5) .
  4. Slander Per Se is spoken conduct of (1) crimes of moral turpitude (2) (3) impute women’s chastity or (4) effects business or reputation.
  5. Slander is (1) (2) pecuniary damages.
  6. Defamation of a Private Citizen is (1) a (2) regarding the Plaintiff (3) and (4) harmful to Plaintiff’s reputation.
  7. Defamation of a public citizen is a (1) (2) regarding the Plaintiff (3) (4) and (5) falsity and fault.
  8. Slander Per Se is spoken conduct of (1) (2) (3) impute women’s chastity or (4) effects business or reputation.
  9. Slander is (1) (2) .
  10. Defamation of a Private Citizen is (1) a (2) (3) and (4) .
  11. Defamation of a public citizen is a (1) (2) (3) (4) and (5) .
  12. Slander Per Se is spoken conduct of (1) (2) (3) or (4) .

Other Torts

0 Correct out of 6
  1. Negligent Misrepresentation is the Defendant (1) misrepresents a material fact in a professional setting (2) where a breach of duty was owed (3) and (4) resulted in monetary loss.
  2. Appropriation is the (1) unauthorized use (2) of Plaintiff’s (3) name, image or likeness (4) .
  3. Intentional Misrepresentation is the (1) Defendant’s misrepresentation of a material fact (2) (3) intended to induce reliance (4) actual reliance by the Plaintiff and (5) damages in the form of pecuniary loss.
  4. Intentional Interference with Business Relations is the (1) Plaintiff has a valid contractual relationship (2) where the Defendant has knowledge of such relationship (3) intentionally interferes with that relationship and (4) this interreference causes breach (5) .
  5. False Light is the (1) widespread publication (2) of a falsehood or material misrepresentation (3) that would be .
  6. Intrusion Upon Seclusion is a (1) (2) where the intrusion would be highly offensive to a reasonable prudent person.
  7. Negligent Misrepresentation is the Defendant (1) misrepresents a material fact in a professional setting (2) where a breach of duty was owed (3) and (4) .
  8. Appropriation is the (1) unauthorized use (2) (3) (4) for commercial purposes.
  9. Intentional Misrepresentation is the (1) (2) (3) (4) actual reliance by the Plaintiff and (5) damages in the form of pecuniary loss.
  10. Intentional Interference with Business Relations is the (1) Plaintiff has a valid contractual relationship (2) (3) and (4) (5) resulting in damages.
  11. False Light is the (1) (2) of a (3) that would be offensive to a reasonable person.
  12. Intrusion Upon Seclusion is a (1) Plaintiffs’ reasonable expectation of privacy (2) where the intrusion would be .
  13. Negligent Misrepresentation is the Defendant (1) (2) where a (3) and (4) .
  14. Appropriation is the (1) (2) (3) (4) .
  15. Intentional Misrepresentation is the (1) (2) (3) (4) and (5) .
  16. Intentional Interference with Business Relations is the (1) (2) (3) and (4) (5) .
  17. False Light is the (1) (2) of a (3) that would be .
  18. Intrusion Upon Seclusion is a (1) (2) where the intrusion would be .

Negligence

0 Correct out of 15
  1. Licensee is an individual who enters the land with (1) the Owner’s permission for (2) Licensee’s own personal or (3) a .
  2. Comparative Negligence is a defense to negligence where the Defendant can prove (1) the injuries incurred are (2) .
  3. Specialized Duty of Care is owed to (1) common carrier or innkeepers (2) (3) professionals or (4) by custom or trade usage.
  4. Invitee is an individual who enters the land (1) (2) to confer a commercial benefit.
  5. Contributory Negligence is the Plaintiff is barred from recovery of the Plaintiff’s injuries if (1) (2) contributed to Plaintiff’s injuries.
  6. Damages consist of (1) personal injury (2) property damage or (3) .
  7. Res Ipsa Loquitur is an (1) inference of negligence (2) not attributable to the plaintiff but (3) .
  8. Negligence Per Se is established when a (1) (2) the Plaintiff is in the class the ordinance was designed to protect and (3) the ordinance is designed to protect against that type of harm that occurred.
  9. Proximate Cause is a foreseeable connection to the alleged breach which doesn’t include (1) an act of God (2) or (3) criminal act.
  10. Duty of Care to behave like a reasonable prudent person is owed to (1) in the (2) zone of danger.
  11. Negligence consists of (1) duty (2) breach (3) causation and (4) .
  12. Actual Cause is a causal connection between the (1) alleged breach and (2) the .
  13. Negligent Infliction of Emotional Distress is (1) Defendants negligent act is in close proximity to the Plaintiff (2) Plaintiff and (3) Plaintiff suffers from some physical manifestation.
  14. Breach of Duty is a duty that (1) (2) owed to the individual.
  15. Attractive Nuisance Doctrine holds the property owners liable for damages if (1) they know or should know that (2) know or should know of the dangerous condition (3) the condition is likely to cause injury and (4) the potential lost outweighs the risk of remedying the defect.
  16. Licensee is an individual who enters the land with (1) the (2) Licensee’s own personal or (3) a .
  17. Comparative Negligence is a defense to negligence where the Defendant can prove (1) the injuries incurred are (2) .
  18. Specialized Duty of Care is owed to (1) (2) children (3) professionals or (4) .
  19. Invitee is an individual who enters the land (1) (2) to confer a commercial benefit.
  20. Contributory Negligence is the Plaintiff is barred from recovery of the Plaintiff’s injuries if (1) (2) contributed to Plaintiff’s injuries.
  21. Damages consist of (1) (2) property damage or (3) .
  22. Res Ipsa Loquitur is an (1) (2) not attributable to the plaintiff but (3) .
  23. Negligence Per Se is established when a (1) valid ordinance is in place (2) and (3) .
  24. Proximate Cause is a foreseeable connection to the alleged breach which doesn’t include (1) an act of God (2) or (3) .
  25. Duty of Care to behave like a reasonable prudent person is owed to (1) foreseeable Plaintiffs in the (2) .
  26. Negligence consists of (1) duty (2) (3) and (4) damages.
  27. Actual Cause is a causal connection between the (1) and (2) the duty owed.
  28. Negligent Infliction of Emotional Distress is (1) Defendants negligent act is in (2) Plaintiff and (3) Plaintiff suffers from some physical manifestation.
  29. Breach of Duty is a duty that (1) (2) owed to the individual.
  30. Attractive Nuisance Doctrine holds the property owners liable for damages if (1) they know or should know that (2) know or should know of the dangerous condition (3) the condition is likely to cause injury and (4) .
  31. Licensee is an individual who enters the land with (1) the (2) or (3) a .
  32. Comparative Negligence is a defense to negligence where the Defendant can prove (1) the are (2) .
  33. Specialized Duty of Care is owed to (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  34. Invitee is an individual who enters the land (1) (2) .
  35. Contributory Negligence is the Plaintiff is barred from recovery of the Plaintiff’s injuries if (1) (2) .
  36. Damages consist of (1) (2) or (3) .
  37. Res Ipsa Loquitur is an (1) (2) but (3) .
  38. Negligence Per Se is established when a (1) (2) and (3) .
  39. Proximate Cause is a foreseeable connection to the alleged breach which doesn’t include (1) (2) or (3) .
  40. Duty of Care to behave like a reasonable prudent person is owed to (1) in the (2) .
  41. Negligence consists of (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  42. Actual Cause is a causal connection between the (1) and (2) the .
  43. Negligent Infliction of Emotional Distress is (1) Defendants negligent act is in (2) Plaintiff and (3) .
  44. Breach of Duty is a duty that (1) (2) .
  45. Attractive Nuisance Doctrine holds the property owners liable for damages if (1) they know or should know that (2) know or should know of the (3) the and (4) .

Strict Liability

0 Correct out of 3
  1. Strict Liability is an (1) absolute duty to make safe (2) and (3) damages to person or property.
  2. Strict Liability abnormally dangers activity is a (1) uncommon activity that (2) (3) which poses a severe risk.
  3. Strict Liability of animal conduct are animal owners are strictly liable for (1) reasonably foreseeable damages (2) (3) on another’s property.
  4. Strict Liability is an (1) absolute duty to make safe (2) and (3) .
  5. Strict Liability abnormally dangers activity is a (1) that (2) cannot be made safe (3) which .
  6. Strict Liability of animal conduct are animal owners are strictly liable for (1) (2) (3) on another’s property.
  7. Strict Liability is an (1) (2) and (3) .
  8. Strict Liability abnormally dangers activity is a (1) that (2) (3) which .
  9. Strict Liability of animal conduct are animal owners are strictly liable for (1) (2) (3) .

Products Liability

0 Correct out of 3
  1. Types of Warranties include (1) fit for particular purpose (2) warranty of merchantability or (3) .
  2. Products Strict Liability is a (1) commercial supplier (2) of a defective product (3) that was the actual or proximate cause of the injury (4) .
  3. Types of Defects consist of a (1) manufacturing defect (2) design defect or (3) .
  4. Types of Warranties include (1) (2) warranty of merchantability or (3) .
  5. Products Strict Liability is a (1) commercial supplier (2) of a (3) that was the actual or proximate cause of the injury (4) .
  6. Types of Defects consist of a (1) manufacturing defect (2) or (3) .
  7. Types of Warranties include (1) (2) or (3) .
  8. Products Strict Liability is a (1) (2) of a (3) of the injury (4) .
  9. Types of Defects consist of a (1) (2) or (3) .

Nuisance

0 Correct out of 3
  1. Nuisance is a (1) (2) of the right to enjoy one’s property.
  2. Public Nuisance is an (1) unreasonable interference (2) with .
  3. Private Nuisance is a (1) substantial interference (2) (3) where the interference is one where the average community member would be offended.
  4. Nuisance is a (1) (2) of the right to enjoy one’s property.
  5. Public Nuisance is an (1) unreasonable interference (2) with .
  6. Private Nuisance is a (1) (2) with ones right to enjoy one’s property (3) where the interference is one where the .
  7. Nuisance is a (1) (2) .
  8. Public Nuisance is an (1) (2) with .
  9. Private Nuisance is a (1) (2) (3) where the interference is one where the .

Liability

0 Correct out of 3
  1. Vicarious Liability is when the (1) Defendant commits a tort (2) and (3) the third person is held liable due in part to the relationship with the Defendant.
  2. Contribution allows a (1) Defendant who has paid more than their fair share of damages to (2) .
  3. Joint and Several Liability applies when the (1) (2) combine (3) to produce a single indivisible injury.
  4. Vicarious Liability is when the (1) (2) against the Plaintiff and (3) the third person is held liable due in part .
  5. Contribution allows a (1) Defendant who has paid more than their fair share of damages to (2) .
  6. Joint and Several Liability applies when the (1) (2) combine (3) to produce a .
  7. Vicarious Liability is when the (1) (2) and (3) the third person is held liable due in part .
  8. Contribution allows a (1) Defendant who has paid to (2) .
  9. Joint and Several Liability applies when the (1) (2) (3) to produce a .
  • Principles
  • Incohate Crimes
  • Defenses
  • Crimes Against the Person
  • Crimes Against Property

Principles

0 Correct out of 10
  1. Concurrence is the (1) physical act and (2) the required (3) occur simultaneously.
  2. Model Penal Code mental states are either (1) purposefully (2) (3) recklessly or (4) negligently.
  3. Causation is either the (1) proximate cause or (2) the .
  4. Criminal Act requires (1) actus reus (2) mens reus (3) causation and (4) .
  5. Accomplice Liability arises when an individual (1) aids, abets or encourages (2) the principal before, during or after the crime (3) with the .
  6. Merger occurs when (1) merge (2) prohibiting the Defendant from being prosecuted separately for each crime.
  7. Actus Reus is a (1) (2) physical act.
  8. Mens Rea refers to the required mental state at the time the crime was committed which can be either (1) (2) general intent or (3) malice.
  9. Transferred Intent occurs when the Defendant is held liable if the intended harm caused affects either a (1) different victim or (2) .
  10. Conspiracy is an (1) agreement (2) between two or more people (3) .
  11. Concurrence is the (1) physical act and (2) the required (3) .
  12. Model Penal Code mental states are either (1) purposefully (2) (3) recklessly or (4) .
  13. Causation is either the (1) proximate cause or (2) the .
  14. Criminal Act requires (1) actus reus (2) (3) causation and (4) .
  15. Accomplice Liability arises when an individual (1) aids, abets or encourages (2) the the crime (3) with the .
  16. Merger occurs when (1) two or more offenses merge (2) .
  17. Actus Reus is a (1) (2) physical act.
  18. Mens Rea refers to the required mental state at the time the crime was committed which can be either (1) (2) general intent or (3) .
  19. Transferred Intent occurs when the Defendant is held liable if the intended harm caused affects either a (1) different victim or (2) .
  20. Conspiracy is an (1) (2) between two or more people (3) .
  21. Concurrence is the (1) and (2) the required (3) .
  22. Model Penal Code mental states are either (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  23. Causation is either the (1) or (2) the .
  24. Criminal Act requires (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  25. Accomplice Liability arises when an individual (1) (2) the the crime (3) with the .
  26. Merger occurs when (1) merge (2) .
  27. Actus Reus is a (1) (2) .
  28. Mens Rea refers to the required mental state at the time the crime was committed which can be either (1) (2) or (3) .
  29. Transferred Intent occurs when the Defendant is held liable if the intended harm caused affects either a (1) or (2) .
  30. Conspiracy is an (1) (2) (3) .

Incohate Crimes

0 Correct out of 4
  1. Attempt is an overt act (1) but (2) falls short of completing the crime.
  2. Conspiracy is an (1) intentional agreement between two or more people (2) with the intent to commit the targeted crime and (3) .
  3. Solicitation involves (1) inciting, urging, or asking (2) .
  4. Co-Conspirator Liability holds each co-conspirator liable for the acts that are (1) and (2) committed in furtherance of the conspiracy.
  5. Attempt is an overt act (1) but (2) falls short of completing the crime.
  6. Conspiracy is an (1) (2) with the and (3) an overt act in furtherance of.
  7. Solicitation involves (1) (2) another individual to commit a crime with the intent they commit the crime.
  8. Co-Conspirator Liability holds each co-conspirator liable for the acts that are (1) and (2) committed in furtherance of the conspiracy.
  9. Attempt is an overt act (1) but (2) .
  10. Conspiracy is an (1) (2) with the and (3) .
  11. Solicitation involves (1) (2) .
  12. Co-Conspirator Liability holds each co-conspirator liable for the acts that are (1) and (2) .

Defenses

0 Correct out of 4
  1. Entrapment occurs when the (1) and (2) the Defendant had no prior pre-disposition to commit the crime.
  2. Necessity applies when the (1) (2) to avoid imminent harm to themselves, others, or society.
  3. Insanity is a defense to all crimes regardless of the intent requirement which may be established under (1) M’Naghten Rule (2) Irresistible Impulse Test (3) Model Penal Code or the (4) .
  4. Duress is a defense when the (1) Defendant committed a crime under the reasonable belief (2) that the crime was .
  5. Entrapment occurs when the (1) criminal plan originated with law enforcement and (2) the .
  6. Necessity applies when the (1) (2) to avoid imminent harm to themselves, others, or society.
  7. Insanity is a defense to all crimes regardless of the intent requirement which may be established under (1) M’Naghten Rule (2) (3) Model Penal Code or the (4) .
  8. Duress is a defense when the (1) Defendant committed a crime under the reasonable belief (2) that the crime was .
  9. Entrapment occurs when the (1) and (2) the .
  10. Necessity applies when the (1) (2) to avoid imminent harm to themselves, others, or society.
  11. Insanity is a defense to all crimes regardless of the intent requirement which may be established under (1) (2) (3) or the (4) .
  12. Duress is a defense when the (1) (2) that the crime was .

Crimes Against the Person

0 Correct out of 11
  1. False Imprisonment is the (1) unlawful confinement of a person (2) .
  2. Kidnapping is the (1) unlawful confinement of a person (2) (3) with either movement or concealment of the victim.
  3. Felony Murder occurs when a killing takes pace during the commission of an inherently dangerous felony such as (1) burglary (2) arson (3) rape (4) or (5) kidnapping.
  4. The Types of Murder include (1) intent to kill (2) (3) Felony Murder and (4) Depraved Heart
  5. Murder is the (1) unlawful killing (2) (3) with malice aforethought.
  6. Involuntary Manslaughter is a (1) killing (2) (3) during an unlawful act not resulting in Felony Murder.
  7. Adequate Provocation occurs when the (1) provocation (2) would cause an and (3) no time to cool off between provocation and killing.
  8. Voluntary Manslaughter is a (1) (2) resulting from adequate provocation.
  9. Rape is the (1) carnal knowledge (2) of a woman (3) by a man other than her husband (4) .
  10. Assault is (1) an intentional (2) .
  11. Battery is the (1) unlawful application of force (2) to a person or another (3) .
  12. False Imprisonment is the (1) (2) without their consent.
  13. Kidnapping is the (1) (2) (3) with either movement or concealment of the victim.
  14. Felony Murder occurs when a killing takes pace during the commission of an inherently dangerous felony such as (1) (2) (3) rape (4) robbery or (5) .
  15. The Types of Murder include (1) (2) intent to inflict serious bodily harm (3) Felony Murder and (4)
  16. Murder is the (1) (2) of another human (3) .
  17. Involuntary Manslaughter is a (1) (2) (3) during an unlawful act not resulting in Felony Murder.
  18. Adequate Provocation occurs when the (1) provocation (2) would cause an and (3) between provocation and killing.
  19. Voluntary Manslaughter is a (1) killing (2) .
  20. Rape is the (1) (2) (3) by a man other than her husband (4) without her consent.
  21. Assault is (1) an (2) reasonable apprehension of imminent bodily harm.
  22. Battery is the (1) unlawful application of force (2) (3) .
  23. False Imprisonment is the (1) (2) .
  24. Kidnapping is the (1) (2) (3) .
  25. Felony Murder occurs when a killing takes pace during the commission of an inherently dangerous felony such as (1) (2) (3) (4) or (5) .
  26. The Types of Murder include (1) (2) (3) and (4)
  27. Murder is the (1) (2) (3) .
  28. Involuntary Manslaughter is a (1) (2) (3) during an unlawful act .
  29. Adequate Provocation occurs when the (1) (2) would cause an and (3) between and killing.
  30. Voluntary Manslaughter is a (1) (2) .
  31. Rape is the (1) (2) (3) (4) .
  32. Assault is (1) an (2) .
  33. Battery is the (1) (2) (3) .

Crimes Against Property

0 Correct out of 9
  1. Forgery is the (1) creation or alteration (2) of a written document (3) with purported legal significance (4) with .
  2. Larceny is the (1) taking and carrying away (2) (3) with the intent to permanently deprive them of that property.
  3. Arson is the (1) malicious (2) burning (3) of .
  4. Receipt of Stolen Property involves (1) receiving possession and control (2) of stolen property (3) to be illegally obtained by another (4) with the intent to permanently deprive.
  5. False Pretenses involve (1) (2) by false statements (3) of past or existing facts (4) with the intent to defraud.
  6. Robbery is the (1) taking and carrying away (2) of (3) with the intent to permanently deprive them of that property (4) by force or threat.
  7. Burglary is the (1) breaking and (2) entering (3) of another’s dwelling (4) at nighttime (5) with the .
  8. Embezzlement is the (1) (2) of another’s personal property (3) by one in lawful possession.
  9. Larceny by Trick occurs when (1) obtaining title to another’s property (2) by false statements (3) .
  10. Forgery is the (1) creation or alteration (2) of a (3) with (4) with intent to defraud.
  11. Larceny is the (1) taking and carrying away (2) (3) .
  12. Arson is the (1) (2) (3) of another’s dwelling.
  13. Receipt of Stolen Property involves (1) (2) of stolen property (3) to be illegally obtained by another (4) with the intent to permanently deprive.
  14. False Pretenses involve (1) (2) by false statements (3) of past or existing facts (4) .
  15. Robbery is the (1) (2) of another’s personal property (3) with the (4) by force or threat.
  16. Burglary is the (1) and (2) (3) of another’s dwelling (4) at (5) with the intent to commit a felony therein.
  17. Embezzlement is the (1) (2) of another’s personal property (3) .
  18. Larceny by Trick occurs when (1) (2) (3) of past or existing facts.
  19. Forgery is the (1) (2) of a (3) with (4) with .
  20. Larceny is the (1) (2) (3) .
  21. Arson is the (1) (2) (3) of .
  22. Receipt of Stolen Property involves (1) (2) of (3) to be illegally obtained by another (4) .
  23. False Pretenses involve (1) (2) (3) (4) .
  24. Robbery is the (1) (2) of (3) with the (4) by .
  25. Burglary is the (1) and (2) (3) of (4) at (5) with the .
  26. Embezzlement is the (1) (2) (3) .
  27. Larceny by Trick occurs when (1) (2) (3) .
  • Judicial Power
  • Legislative Power
  • Executive Power
  • Federalism
  • Individual Liberties
  • Due Process
  • Fundamental Rights
  • Equal Protection
  • Freedom of Speech

Judicial Power

0 Correct out of 12
  1. Suits against state officers means a state officer can be sued in federal court when (1) a claim for injunctive relief for violation of the Constitution or federal law or (2) a .
  2. Injury to all is an (1) injury to (2) .
  3. Adequate and Independent Grounds Doctrine means the Supreme Court cannot review a state court decision that rested on (1) and (2) adequate state law ground.
  4. Final Judgement occurs when the Supreme Court can only hear cases if there has been (1) or (2) judgement by the state’s highest court.
  5. Justiciability is an ongoing controversy that includes (1) (2) ripeness or (3) mootness.
  6. Political Question Doctrine means federal courts cannot adjudicate constitutional issues such as (1) constitutional power reserved to or (2) are inherently incapable of judicial resolution.
  7. Mootness is a courts ability to hear only live controversies unless (1) wrongs capable of repetition (2) voluntary cessation or (3) .
  8. Third Party Standing is a Plaintiff asserts the rights of a third party where the Plaintiff was injured when either (1) Plaintiff’s injury adversely affects their relationship with third parties or (2) the .
  9. Original Jurisdiction occurs when the Supreme Court has original jurisdiction over (1) suits between states (2) and (3) other foreign ministers.
  10. Ripeness is a Plaintiff has been (1) or (2) suffers immediate threat of harm.
  11. Eleventh Amendment bars suits against state governments in federal court unless (1) states waive sovereign immunity (2) (3) federal government brings the suit or (4) bankruptcy proceedings.
  12. Standing is a party must have a concrete interest in the outcome of the claim including (1) injury (2) and (3) redressability.
  13. Suits against state officers means a state officer can be sued in federal court when (1) a or (2) a claim for money damages paid by the state officer personally.
  14. Injury to all is an (1) injury to (2) .
  15. Adequate and Independent Grounds Doctrine means the Supreme Court cannot review a state court decision that rested on (1) and (2) adequate state law ground.
  16. Final Judgement occurs when the Supreme Court can only hear cases if there has been (1) or (2) judgement by the state’s highest court.
  17. Justiciability is an ongoing controversy that includes (1) (2) or (3) mootness.
  18. Political Question Doctrine means federal courts cannot adjudicate constitutional issues such as (1) constitutional power reserved to another branch of government or (2) are .
  19. Mootness is a courts ability to hear only live controversies unless (1) (2) or (3) class action lawsuits.
  20. Third Party Standing is a Plaintiff asserts the rights of a third party where the Plaintiff was injured when either (1) or (2) the injured party is unlikely or unable to assert their own rights.
  21. Original Jurisdiction occurs when the Supreme Court has original jurisdiction over (1) (2) and (3) other foreign ministers.
  22. Ripeness is a Plaintiff has been (1) or (2) suffers immediate threat of harm.
  23. Eleventh Amendment bars suits against state governments in federal court unless (1) (2) suit involves fourteenth amendment (3) federal government brings the suit or (4) .
  24. Standing is a party must have a concrete interest in the outcome of the claim including (1) (2) causation and (3) .
  25. Suits against state officers means a state officer can be sued in federal court when (1) a or (2) a .
  26. Injury to all is an (1) to (2) .
  27. Adequate and Independent Grounds Doctrine means the Supreme Court cannot review a state court decision that rested on (1) and (2) .
  28. Final Judgement occurs when the Supreme Court can only hear cases if there has been (1) or (2) .
  29. Justiciability is an ongoing controversy that includes (1) (2) or (3) .
  30. Political Question Doctrine means federal courts cannot adjudicate constitutional issues such as (1) constitutional power reserved to or (2) are .
  31. Mootness is a courts ability to hear only live controversies unless (1) (2) or (3) .
  32. Third Party Standing is a Plaintiff asserts the rights of a third party where the Plaintiff was injured when either (1) or (2) the .
  33. Original Jurisdiction occurs when the Supreme Court has original jurisdiction over (1) (2) and (3) .
  34. Ripeness is a Plaintiff has been (1) or (2) .
  35. Eleventh Amendment bars suits against state governments in federal court unless (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  36. Standing is a party must have a concrete interest in the outcome of the claim including (1) (2) and (3) .

Legislative Power

0 Correct out of 9
  1. Delegation of Powers is the broad authority to delegate legislative powers but can only do so when (1) the scope is clearly defined and (2) .
  2. Conditional Grants refer to Congress’s ability to induce state regulatory or legislative action through conditional grants provided that (1) (2) condition must relate to the purpose of the law at issue and (3) condition cannot be unduly coercive.
  3. Tenth Amendment grants all powers (1) not granted to the federal government and (2) .
  4. Commerce Clause grants Congress the (1) exclusive authority to (2) .
  5. Interstate Commerce grants Congress the authority to regulate (1) channels (2) or (3) economic activities that have a substantial effect on interstate commerce.
  6. Intrastate Commerce grants Congress the authority to regulate (1) or (2) economic activity if there is a rational basis to conclude that in the aggregate, it substantially affects interstate commerce.
  7. Executing a law requires 1) (2) approval by the President and (3) signed within 10 days excluding Sunday.
  8. Taxing and Spending Clause grants Congress the authority to tax and spend in (1) for the (2) general welfare.
  9. Police Power occurs when Congress has no general police power except (1) (2) Indian reservation (3) land and (4) District of Columbia.
  10. Delegation of Powers is the broad authority to delegate legislative powers but can only do so when (1) and (2) not a delegation of a core power.
  11. Conditional Grants refer to Congress’s ability to induce state regulatory or legislative action through conditional grants provided that (1) (2) condition must relate to the purpose of the law at issue and (3) .
  12. Tenth Amendment grants all powers (1) and (2) not prohibited by the States are reserved to the States.
  13. Commerce Clause grants Congress the (1) exclusive authority to (2) .
  14. Interstate Commerce grants Congress the authority to regulate (1) (2) instrumentalities or (3) .
  15. Intrastate Commerce grants Congress the authority to regulate (1) or (2) economic activity if there is a rational basis to conclude that in the aggregate, it substantially affects interstate commerce.
  16. Executing a law requires 1) (2) approval by the President and (3) .
  17. Taxing and Spending Clause grants Congress the authority to tax and spend in (1) anyway deemed necessary for the (2) .
  18. Police Power occurs when Congress has no general police power except (1) military (2) (3) land and (4) .
  19. Delegation of Powers is the broad authority to delegate legislative powers but can only do so when (1) and (2) .
  20. Conditional Grants refer to Congress’s ability to induce state regulatory or legislative action through conditional grants provided that (1) (2) and (3) .
  21. Tenth Amendment grants all powers (1) and (2) .
  22. Commerce Clause grants Congress the (1) to (2) .
  23. Interstate Commerce grants Congress the authority to regulate (1) (2) or (3) .
  24. Intrastate Commerce grants Congress the authority to regulate (1) or (2) .
  25. Executing a law requires 1) (2) and (3) .
  26. Taxing and Spending Clause grants Congress the authority to tax and spend in (1) for the (2) .
  27. Police Power occurs when Congress has no general police power except (1) (2) (3) and (4) .

Executive Power

0 Correct out of 8
  1. Impeachment is the House of Representatives can impeach the (1) President (2) Vice President (3) and (4) other Federal Officers by a majority vote whereupon a trial in the Senate takes place with a 2/3 majority vote for removal from office.
  2. Presidential Authority granted by Article II of the United States Constitution allows the President to enter (1) treaties (2) appoint ambassadors (3) act as Commander in Chief of the military and (4) .
  3. Removal Powers are the power of the Executive Branch to remove a high-level executive officer in which (1) the President can remove them freely unless limited by Congress or (2) .
  4. Immunity occurs when the President has absolute immunity from (1) and (2) taken while in office.
  5. Presidential Appointment Powers consist of (1) (2) federal judges and (3) other high-level officers without the consent of the Senate.
  6. Pardon Power is the power retained by the President to pardon those (1) or (2) convicted of federal crimes.
  7. Executive Privilege protects against (1) disclosure of presidential papers and (2) .
  8. Congressional Appointment Powers vest in (1) inferior officers in the presidency (2) or (3) department or agency leadership.
  9. Impeachment is the House of Representatives can impeach the (1) (2) Vice (3) and (4) other Federal Officers by a majority vote whereupon a trial in the Senate takes place with a 2/3 majority vote for removal from office.
  10. Presidential Authority granted by Article II of the United States Constitution allows the President to enter (1) (2) (3) act as Commander in Chief of the military and (4) power to represent the United States in foreign affairs.
  11. Removal Powers are the power of the Executive Branch to remove a high-level executive officer in which (1) the President can remove them freely unless limited by Congress or (2) .
  12. Immunity occurs when the President has absolute immunity from (1) and (2) taken while in office.
  13. Presidential Appointment Powers consist of (1) ambassadors (2) and (3) .
  14. Pardon Power is the power retained by the President to pardon those (1) or (2) convicted of federal crimes.
  15. Executive Privilege protects against (1) and (2) conversations.
  16. Congressional Appointment Powers vest in (1) (2) courts or (3) .
  17. Impeachment is the House of Representatives can impeach the (1) (2) Vice (3) and (4) .
  18. Presidential Authority granted by Article II of the United States Constitution allows the President to enter (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  19. Removal Powers are the power of the Executive Branch to remove a high-level executive officer in which (1) the or (2) .
  20. Immunity occurs when the President has absolute immunity from (1) and (2) .
  21. Presidential Appointment Powers consist of (1) (2) and (3) .
  22. Pardon Power is the power retained by the President to pardon those (1) or (2) .
  23. Executive Privilege protects against (1) and (2) .
  24. Congressional Appointment Powers vest in (1) (2) or (3) .

Federalism

0 Correct out of 7
  1. Express Preemption means a federal law trumps conflicting (1) state and (2) .
  2. Dormant Commerce Clause Exceptions include (1) necessary to an important state interest (2) state market participant (3) traditional government function or (4) .
  3. Supremacy Clause means a (1) federal law is (2) the .
  4. Implied Preemption occurs when a federal law is silent on confliction and will control when (1) mutual exclusivity (2) state law impedes a federal objective or (3) .
  5. Dormant Commerce Clause occurs when state and local law regulate local aspects of interstate commerce when not under the commerce power if it does not (1) (2) unduly burden interstate commerce or (3) regulate wholly out-of-state activity.
  6. State Taxation means a state tax must have a substantial connection to the state in such a way that it does not interfere with interstate commerce unless (1) substantial nexus within the state (2) tax is fairly apportioned to the activity connected to the state or (3) .
  7. Privileges and Immunities Clause is a state may not discriminate against non-state residents when it (1) relates to civil liberties (2) commercial activities and (3) .
  8. Express Preemption means a federal law trumps conflicting (1) and (2) local laws if expressly d.
  9. Dormant Commerce Clause Exceptions include (1) necessary to an important state interest (2) state market participant (3) or (4) .
  10. Supremacy Clause means a (1) is (2) the supreme law of the land.
  11. Implied Preemption occurs when a federal law is silent on confliction and will control when (1) (2) or (3) Congress has a clear intent to legislate exclusivity.
  12. Dormant Commerce Clause occurs when state and local law regulate local aspects of interstate commerce when not under the commerce power if it does not (1) (2) unduly burden interstate commerce or (3) .
  13. State Taxation means a state tax must have a substantial connection to the state in such a way that it does not interfere with interstate commerce unless (1) (2) tax is fairly apportioned to the activity connected to the state or (3) .
  14. Privileges and Immunities Clause is a state may not discriminate against non-state residents when it (1) (2) commercial activities and (3) .
  15. Express Preemption means a federal law trumps conflicting (1) and (2) local laws if expressly d.
  16. Dormant Commerce Clause Exceptions include (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  17. Supremacy Clause means a (1) is (2) the .
  18. Implied Preemption occurs when a federal law is silent on confliction and will control when (1) (2) or (3) .
  19. Dormant Commerce Clause occurs when state and local law regulate local aspects of interstate commerce when not under the commerce power if it does not (1) (2) or (3) .
  20. State Taxation means a state tax must have a substantial connection to the state in such a way that it does not interfere with interstate commerce unless (1) (2) or (3) .
  21. Privileges and Immunities Clause is a state may not discriminate against non-state residents when it (1) (2) and (3) .

Individual Liberties

0 Correct out of 8
  1. Fourteenth Amendment are States cannot deprive any person of (1) life (2) liberty or (3) .
  2. Fifteenth Amendment are States or Federal government cannot deny any citizen the right to vote on the basis of (1) race or (2) .
  3. Strict Scrutiny means a law will be upheld if it is (1) a (2) compelling governmental interest.
  4. Intermediate Scrutiny means a law will be upheld if it is (2) to an (2) important governmental interest.
  5. Thirteenth Amendment expressly prohibits (1) and (2) indentured servitude.
  6. Government Action only applies to (1) federal (2) state or (3) .
  7. Rational Basis means a law is upheld if it is (1) to a (2) legitimate government interest.
  8. Government Action Exceptions include a (1) private entity performs an exclusive public function or (2) .
  9. Fourteenth Amendment are States cannot deprive any person of (1) life (2) or (3) .
  10. Fifteenth Amendment are States or Federal government cannot deny any citizen the right to vote on the basis of (1) or (2) color.
  11. Strict Scrutiny means a law will be upheld if it is (1) necessary to achieve a (2) .
  12. Intermediate Scrutiny means a law will be upheld if it is (2) to an (2) important governmental interest.
  13. Thirteenth Amendment expressly prohibits (1) slavery and (2) .
  14. Government Action only applies to (1) (2) or (3) local governments.
  15. Rational Basis means a law is upheld if it is (1) to a (2) legitimate government interest.
  16. Government Action Exceptions include a (1) private entity performs an exclusive public function or (2) .
  17. Fourteenth Amendment are States cannot deprive any person of (1) (2) or (3) .
  18. Fifteenth Amendment are States or Federal government cannot deny any citizen the right to vote on the basis of (1) or (2) .
  19. Strict Scrutiny means a law will be upheld if it is (1) a (2) .
  20. Intermediate Scrutiny means a law will be upheld if it is (2) to an (2) .
  21. Thirteenth Amendment expressly prohibits (1) and (2) .
  22. Government Action only applies to (1) (2) or (3) .
  23. Rational Basis means a law is upheld if it is (1) to a (2) .
  24. Government Action Exceptions include a (1) or (2) .

Due Process

0 Correct out of 4
  1. Contract Clause is a (1) state cannot interfere with (2) .
  2. Ex Post Fact Clause prohibit states and federal governments from passing retroactive laws if either (1) criminally punishes conduct that was lawful when done (2) increases punishment for a crime that has been committed or (3) .
  3. Bill of Attainder prohibit State and Federal governments from passing legislation that punish (1) specific individuals or (2) .
  4. Takings Clause is the government shall not take (1) private property (2) for (3) without just compensation.
  5. Contract Clause is a (1) with (2) existing contractual duties including governmental obligations.
  6. Ex Post Fact Clause prohibit states and federal governments from passing retroactive laws if either (1) criminally punishes conduct that was lawful when done (2) or (3) .
  7. Bill of Attainder prohibit State and Federal governments from passing legislation that punish (1) or (2) group members without a judicial trial.
  8. Takings Clause is the government shall not take (1) (2) for (3) without just compensation.
  9. Contract Clause is a (1) with (2) .
  10. Ex Post Fact Clause prohibit states and federal governments from passing retroactive laws if either (1) (2) or (3) .
  11. Bill of Attainder prohibit State and Federal governments from passing legislation that punish (1) or (2) .
  12. Takings Clause is the government shall not take (1) (2) for (3) .

Fundamental Rights

0 Correct out of 1
  1. Fundamental Rights under the Right of Privacy include (1) contraception (2) abortion (3) (4) procreation (5) education (6) raise your family (7) travel and (8) right to vote.
  2. Fundamental Rights under the Right of Privacy include (1) (2) abortion (3) (4) procreation (5) (6) raise your family (7) and (8) right to vote.
  3. Fundamental Rights under the Right of Privacy include (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (7) and (8) .

Equal Protection

0 Correct out of 2
  1. Equal Protection Clause means the government cannot treat similarly situated people or groups of people differently when a (1) law is discriminatory on its face (2) or (3) discriminatory motive is present.
  2. Alienage means a non-United States citizen will be subject to scrutiny unless (1) related to self-government and the democratic process or (2) a .
  3. Equal Protection Clause means the government cannot treat similarly situated people or groups of people differently when a (1) law is discriminatory on its face (2) or (3) .
  4. Alienage means a non-United States citizen will be subject to scrutiny unless (1) related to self-government and the democratic process or (2) a .
  5. Equal Protection Clause means the government cannot treat similarly situated people or groups of people differently when a (1) (2) or (3) .
  6. Alienage means a non-United States citizen will be subject to scrutiny unless (1) or (2) a .

Freedom of Speech

0 Correct out of 12
  1. Establishment Clause is the governmental prohibition to (1) (2) sponsor a religion or (3) give preference to one religion over another.
  2. Commercial Speech is the Governmental regulation of unprotected commercial speech if (1) false (2) (3) deceptive (4) illegal or (5) concerns illegal activity.
  3. Private Forums are private properties can restrict speech in (1) a limited or designated public forum via a time, place, and manner restriction or (2) .
  4. First Amendment exly protects the freedom of exion including (1) speech (2) (3) assembly and (4) association.
  5. Public Forums means government property is constitutionally required to make speech available if it is (1) (2) narrowly tailored to serve an important governmental purpose and (3) leave open adequate, alternative channels of communication.
  6. Incitement of Unlawful Activity occurs when fighting words or true threats are restricted if (1) there is a substantial likelihood that the speech will bring imminent illegal activity and (2) .
  7. Overbreadth Law is unconstitutional if it regulates (1) substantially more speech than the (2) .
  8. Symbolic Speech is speech that refers to expressive or communicative conduct will be restricted if (1) the regulation furthers an important government interest (2) that and (3) the impact on speech is no greater than necessary to further the important governmental interest.
  9. Vague Law is unconstitutional if a reasonable person cannot tell whether speech is (1) or (2) permitted.
  10. Free Exercise Clause means the government is prohibited from punishing someone solely on the basis of that person’s (1) religious beliefs or (2) .
  11. Freedom of Association is the right to participate with others who have similar (1) (2) religious or (3) cultural beliefs.
  12. Obscenity is the Governmental regulation of lesser protected speech if (1) appeals to the prurient interest (2) patently offensive in its sexual portrayal and (3) .
  13. Establishment Clause is the governmental prohibition to (1) establish (2) or (3) .
  14. Commercial Speech is the Governmental regulation of unprotected commercial speech if (1) (2) (3) deceptive (4) illegal or (5) .
  15. Private Forums are private properties can restrict speech in (1) a limited or designated public forum via a time, place, and manner restriction or (2) .
  16. First Amendment exly protects the freedom of exion including (1) speech (2) (3) and (4) association.
  17. Public Forums means government property is constitutionally required to make speech available if it is (1) content neutral (2) and (3) .
  18. Incitement of Unlawful Activity occurs when fighting words or true threats are restricted if (1) there is a and (2) speech is aimed at causing imminent illegal activity.
  19. Overbreadth Law is unconstitutional if it regulates (1) substantially more speech than the (2) .
  20. Symbolic Speech is speech that refers to expressive or communicative conduct will be restricted if (1) the (2) that government interest is unrelated to suppression of the message and (3) the .
  21. Vague Law is unconstitutional if a reasonable person cannot tell whether speech is (1) or (2) permitted.
  22. Free Exercise Clause means the government is prohibited from punishing someone solely on the basis of that person’s (1) or (2) conduct.
  23. Freedom of Association is the right to participate with others who have similar (1) political (2) or (3) .
  24. Obscenity is the Governmental regulation of lesser protected speech if (1) (2) patently offensive in its sexual portrayal and (3) .
  25. Establishment Clause is the governmental prohibition to (1) (2) or (3) .
  26. Commercial Speech is the Governmental regulation of unprotected commercial speech if (1) (2) (3) (4) or (5) concerns activity.
  27. Private Forums are private properties can restrict speech in (1) a or (2) .
  28. First Amendment exly protects the freedom of exion including (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  29. Public Forums means government property is constitutionally required to make speech available if it is (1) (2) and (3) .
  30. Incitement of Unlawful Activity occurs when fighting words or true threats are restricted if (1) there is a and (2) .
  31. Overbreadth Law is unconstitutional if it regulates (1) than the (2) .
  32. Symbolic Speech is speech that refers to expressive or communicative conduct will be restricted if (1) the (2) that and (3) the .
  33. Vague Law is unconstitutional if a reasonable person cannot tell whether speech is (1) or (2) permitted.
  34. Free Exercise Clause means the government is prohibited from punishing someone solely on the basis of that person’s (1) or (2) .
  35. Freedom of Association is the right to participate with others who have similar (1) (2) or (3) .
  36. Obscenity is the Governmental regulation of lesser protected speech if (1) (2) and (3) .
  • 4th Amendment
  • Warrantless Searches
  • Exclusionary Rules
  • Fifth Amendment
  • 6th Amendment
  • Trial Procedures
  • 8th Amendment

4th Amendment

0 Correct out of 8
  1. Reasonable Expectation of Privacy occurs when the individual has exhibited a (1) subjective expectation of privacy and (2) .
  2. Validity of Search & Seizure must be viewed under reasonableness under the Fourth Amendment unless (1) governmental conduct (2) (3) valid search warrant or (4) the presence of exigent circumstances.
  3. Probable Cause requires trustworthy facts or knowledge sufficient to a reasonable person to believe that the individual has (1) committed the crime or (2) .
  4. Search Warrant requires (1) (2) precise on its face and (3) signed by a neutral detached magistrate.
  5. Automobile Stop occurs when the police have (1) that (2) a law was violated.
  6. Detention is a governmental seizure of the person which could be in the form of (1) stop & frisk (2) automobile stop (3) stationhouse detainment (4) detainment to obtain a search warrant or (5) .
  7. Arrest occurs when an individual is taken into custody for a (1) criminal investigation purpose or (2) .
  8. Police Checkpoints to search vehicles must be (1) and (2) serve a purpose related to automobiles.
  9. Reasonable Expectation of Privacy occurs when the individual has exhibited a (1) subjective expectation of privacy and (2) .
  10. Validity of Search & Seizure must be viewed under reasonableness under the Fourth Amendment unless (1) (2) (3) valid search warrant or (4) the presence of exigent circumstances.
  11. Probable Cause requires trustworthy facts or knowledge sufficient to a reasonable person to believe that the individual has (1) or (2) planning to commit the crime.
  12. Search Warrant requires (1) (2) precise on its face and (3) .
  13. Automobile Stop occurs when the police have (1) reasonable suspicion that (2) a .
  14. Detention is a governmental seizure of the person which could be in the form of (1) stop & frisk (2) (3) (4) detainment to obtain a search warrant or (5) .
  15. Arrest occurs when an individual is taken into custody for a (1) or (2) interrogation.
  16. Police Checkpoints to search vehicles must be (1) and (2) serve a purpose related to automobiles.
  17. Reasonable Expectation of Privacy occurs when the individual has exhibited a (1) and (2) .
  18. Validity of Search & Seizure must be viewed under reasonableness under the Fourth Amendment unless (1) (2) (3) or (4) the .
  19. Probable Cause requires trustworthy facts or knowledge sufficient to a reasonable person to believe that the individual has (1) or (2) .
  20. Search Warrant requires (1) (2) and (3) .
  21. Automobile Stop occurs when the police have (1) that (2) a .
  22. Detention is a governmental seizure of the person which could be in the form of (1) (2) (3) (4) or (5) .
  23. Arrest occurs when an individual is taken into custody for a (1) or (2) .
  24. Police Checkpoints to search vehicles must be (1) and (2) .

Warrantless Searches

0 Correct out of 9
  1. Administrative Searches are conducted by Government agencies for (1) routine searches or (2) .
  2. Consent to Search occurs when the police search anything if (1) (2) intelligibly made and (3) consenting person has authority to do so.
  3. Automobile Search occurs when the police search a vehicle if (1) and (2) probable cause arises prior to the search beginning.
  4. Stop & Frisk occurs when the police detain a person for investigative purposes if (1) reasonable suspicion of criminally activity is a foot (2) length of detainment is no longer than necessary and (3) .
  5. Plain View Searches occurs when the police search any place where criminal activity is present when viewing if (1) legitimately on premise (2) criminal activity is immediately apparent and (3) .
  6. Electronic Surveillance requires a warrant when (1) probable cause that a specific crime has occurred or likely to occur (2) (3) describe with particularity the subject of conversations that are surveilled (4) limited to short time periods and (5) terminate when the information acquired is the information sought.
  7. Search Incident to Lawful Arrest occurs when the police may search a lawfully arrested person in their immediate surrounding without a warrant if (1) arrest was lawful (2) and (3) search was limited to area within suspects reach or movement.
  8. Exigent Circumstances occurs when the police search and seize evidence without a warrant if (1) hot pursuit (2) emergency aid or (3) .
  9. Public School Searches occur when school officials have (1) reasonable suspicion (2) moderate chance at finding evidence (3) procedure for searching is reasonably related to the objective and (4) .
  10. Administrative Searches are conducted by Government agencies for (1) or (2) inspections of highly regulated business or industries.
  11. Consent to Search occurs when the police search anything if (1) (2) intelligibly made and (3) .
  12. Automobile Search occurs when the police search a vehicle if (1) and (2) probable cause arises prior to the search beginning.
  13. Stop & Frisk occurs when the police detain a person for investigative purposes if (1) (2) length of detainment is no longer than necessary and (3) .
  14. Plain View Searches occurs when the police search any place where criminal activity is present when viewing if (1) legitimately on premise (2) and (3) .
  15. Electronic Surveillance requires a warrant when (1) (2) (3) describe with particularity the subject of conversations that are surveilled (4) limited to short time periods and (5) .
  16. Search Incident to Lawful Arrest occurs when the police may search a lawfully arrested person in their immediate surrounding without a warrant if (1) (2) search was contemporaneous with the arrest and (3) .
  17. Exigent Circumstances occurs when the police search and seize evidence without a warrant if (1) (2) emergency aid or (3) .
  18. Public School Searches occur when school officials have (1) (2) (3) procedure for searching is reasonably related to the objective and (4) search is not overly intrusive.
  19. Administrative Searches are conducted by Government agencies for (1) or (2) .
  20. Consent to Search occurs when the police search anything if (1) (2) and (3) .
  21. Automobile Search occurs when the police search a vehicle if (1) and (2) .
  22. Stop & Frisk occurs when the police detain a person for investigative purposes if (1) (2) and (3) .
  23. Plain View Searches occurs when the police search any place where criminal activity is present when viewing if (1) (2) and (3) .
  24. Electronic Surveillance requires a warrant when (1) (2) (3) (4) and (5) .
  25. Search Incident to Lawful Arrest occurs when the police may search a lawfully arrested person in their immediate surrounding without a warrant if (1) (2) and (3) .
  26. Exigent Circumstances occurs when the police search and seize evidence without a warrant if (1) (2) or (3) .
  27. Public School Searches occur when school officials have (1) (2) (3) and (4) .

Exclusionary Rules

0 Correct out of 2
  1. Exclusionary Rule doesn’t apply to (1) grand jury proceedings (2) (3) violations of knock and announce rules or (4) evidence seized as a result of a Miranda violation.
  2. Exclusionary Rule is illegally obtained evidence is excluded against the defendant unless (1) government had an independent source to obtain the evidence (2) or (3) attenuation.
  3. Exclusionary Rule doesn’t apply to (1) (2) parole or civil proceedings (3) violations of knock and announce rules or (4) .
  4. Exclusionary Rule is illegally obtained evidence is excluded against the defendant unless (1) government had an independent source to obtain the evidence (2) or (3) .
  5. Exclusionary Rule doesn’t apply to (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  6. Exclusionary Rule is illegally obtained evidence is excluded against the defendant unless (1) (2) or (3) .

Fifth Amendment

0 Correct out of 7
  1. Miranda Warnings is the (1) right to remain silent as anything said can be used against them (2) and (3) if they cannot afford an attorney, one will be appointed to them.
  2. Invoking Miranda occurs when an individual (1) invokes the right to remain silent or (2) .
  3. Retrial occurs when (1) hung jury (2) manifest necessity (3) successful appeal (4) breach of a plea agreement or (5) .
  4. Fifth Amendment of the United States Constitution protects (1) any person (2) in any proceeding (3) .
  5. Double Jeopardy occurs when the defendant cannot be retried for the same offense if (1) jury is sworn in (2) or (3) a court accepts a plea agreement.
  6. Miranda Warnings apply to individuals when (1) in custody and (2) .
  7. Waving Miranda occurs when (1) (2) voluntary and (3) intelligently made.
  8. Miranda Warnings is the (1) right to remain silent as anything said can be used against them (2) and (3) .
  9. Invoking Miranda occurs when an individual (1) invokes the right to remain silent or (2) .
  10. Retrial occurs when (1) hung jury (2) manifest necessity (3) (4) or (5) .
  11. Fifth Amendment of the United States Constitution protects (1) (2) in any proceeding (3) .
  12. Double Jeopardy occurs when the defendant cannot be retried for the same offense if (1) (2) or (3) a court accepts a plea agreement.
  13. Miranda Warnings apply to individuals when (1) in custody and (2) .
  14. Waving Miranda occurs when (1) (2) voluntary and (3) .
  15. Miranda Warnings is the (1) (2) and (3) .
  16. Invoking Miranda occurs when an individual (1) or (2) .
  17. Retrial occurs when (1) (2) (3) (4) or (5) .
  18. Fifth Amendment of the United States Constitution protects (1) (2) in (3) .
  19. Double Jeopardy occurs when the defendant cannot be retried for the same offense if (1) (2) or (3) a .
  20. Miranda Warnings apply to individuals when (1) and (2) .
  21. Waving Miranda occurs when (1) (2) and (3) .

6th Amendment

0 Correct out of 1
  1. Sixth Amendment Right to Counsel attaches automatically when (1) charges have been filed and (2) .
  2. Sixth Amendment Right to Counsel attaches automatically when (1) charges have been filed and (2) .
  3. Sixth Amendment Right to Counsel attaches automatically when (1) and (2) .

Trial Procedures

0 Correct out of 5
  1. Confrontation Clause grants every Defendant the right to confront the witnesses when (1) an out of court statement is (2) offered against the Defendant (3) in a criminal case and (4) .
  2. Plea Bargain occurs when the Defendant’s plea is (1) (2) intelligently made and (3) understands the nature of their charge including critical elements, maximum penalty, right to plead not guilty, and right to a jury trial.
  3. Admissions must be made (1) and (2) based on the totality of the circumstances.
  4. Jury Requirements consist of (1) (2) unanimous decision (3) jury pool must be a representative cross-section of the community (4) right to an impartial jury and (5) afforded peremptory challenges.
  5. Grand Jury Proceedings are (1) required in federal court (2) held in secret where (3) suspect has no right to confront witnesses (4) no right to Miranda warning and (5) .
  6. Confrontation Clause grants every Defendant the right to confront the witnesses when (1) an out of court statement is (2) (3) in a criminal case and (4) .
  7. Plea Bargain occurs when the Defendant’s plea is (1) (2) intelligently made and (3) .
  8. Admissions must be made (1) voluntarily and (2) .
  9. Jury Requirements consist of (1) (2) unanimous decision (3) (4) right to an impartial jury and (5) .
  10. Grand Jury Proceedings are (1) (2) held in secret where (3) (4) and (5) no right to counsel.
  11. Confrontation Clause grants every Defendant the right to confront the witnesses when (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  12. Plea Bargain occurs when the Defendant’s plea is (1) (2) and (3) .
  13. Admissions must be made (1) and (2) .
  14. Jury Requirements consist of (1) (2) (3) (4) and (5) .
  15. Grand Jury Proceedings are (1) (2) (3) (4) and (5) .

8th Amendment

0 Correct out of 2
  1. Death Penalty is only imposed if the victim dies as a result of the Defendant’s crime unless (1) the Defendant was a minor when the crime was committed (2) mentally disabled (3) or (4) conviction was for felony murder when Defendant was not a participant or didn’t act with depraved heart.
  2. Cruel and Unusual Punishment consists of (1) or (2) unusual punishment is banned that is (3) grossly disproportionate to the charged offense.
  3. Death Penalty is only imposed if the victim dies as a result of the Defendant’s crime unless (1) the Defendant was a minor when the crime was committed (2) (3) insane at the time of the criminal execution or (4) .
  4. Cruel and Unusual Punishment consists of (1) or (2) is banned that is (3) grossly disproportionate to the charged offense.
  5. Death Penalty is only imposed if the victim dies as a result of the Defendant’s crime unless (1) the Defendant was a (2) (3) or (4) .
  6. Cruel and Unusual Punishment consists of (1) or (2) is banned that is (3) .
  • Personal Jurisdiction
  • Subject Matter Jurisdiction
  • Venue 
  • Service of Process
  • Interlocutory Injunctions
  • Pleadings and Motions
  • Joining Claims
  • Class Actions
  • Discovery
  • Pretrial, Trial, and Appeal 

Personal Jurisdiction

0 Correct out of 6
  1. Notice requires that Defendant must be sufficiently notified of a pending lawsuit in which notice must be reasonably calculated under the circumstances to apprise interested parties of the (1) action and (2) .
  2. Fairness Factors requires Due Process to be fair when (1) relatedness of contacts and claims (2) and (3) state interest.
  3. Personal Jurisdiction is the court’s ability to exercise authority over a (1) or (2) ’s property.
  4. Personal Jurisdiction is lawful if (1) service of process is done in the forum state (2) (3) consent to jurisdiction or (4) Defendant’s actions fall within state’s long-arm statutes.
  5. Personal Jurisdiction consists of (1) in persona (2) or (3) quasi .
  6. Minimum Contacts with the forum state must be (1) present (2) such that it doesn’t offend the traditional notions of fair play and (3) .
  7. Notice requires that Defendant must be sufficiently notified of a pending lawsuit in which notice must be reasonably calculated under the circumstances to apprise interested parties of the (1) action and (2) .
  8. Fairness Factors requires Due Process to be fair when (1) (2) and (3) state interest.
  9. Personal Jurisdiction is the court’s ability to exercise authority over a (1) or (2) ’s property.
  10. Personal Jurisdiction is lawful if (1) service of process is done in the forum state (2) (3) consent to jurisdiction or (4) .
  11. Personal Jurisdiction consists of (1) (2) or (3) quasi .
  12. Minimum Contacts with the forum state must be (1) present (2) and (3) .
  13. Notice requires that Defendant must be sufficiently notified of a pending lawsuit in which notice must be reasonably calculated under the circumstances to apprise interested parties of the (1) and (2) .
  14. Fairness Factors requires Due Process to be fair when (1) (2) and (3) .
  15. Personal Jurisdiction is the court’s ability to exercise authority over a (1) or (2) ’s property.
  16. Personal Jurisdiction is lawful if (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  17. Personal Jurisdiction consists of (1) (2) or (3) quasi .
  18. Minimum Contacts with the forum state must be (1) (2) and (3) .

Subject Matter Jurisdiction

0 Correct out of 15
  1. State Substantive Law will always govern (1) elements of a claim or defense (2) statute of limitations (3) or (4) rules for tolling statute of limitations.
  2. Federal Question is when Federal courts have jurisdiction over proper pleaded claims arising under federal law if the (1) federal question appears on the face of the complaint and (2) .
  3. Exclusive Jurisdiction is when Federal courts have exclusive jurisdiction over certain types of claims including (1) (2) intellectual property (3) federal anti-trust claims or (4) postal matters.
  4. Amount in Controversy is the Plaintiff’s complaint must make a (1) and (2) exceeds $75,000 excluding interest and costs.
  5. Erie Doctrine is the federal courts application of state substantive law and federal procedural law when (1) there is a valid federal law that is on point and directly conflicts with state law or (2) if no federal law is on point, then apply either state law .
  6. Natural Citizens are citizens of the state where (1) they are domiciled (2) at the .
  7. Removal Jurisdiction is the Defendant can remove a case, other than diversity jurisdiction filed in Defendants home state, if (1) federal court would have had subject matter jurisdiction (2) and (3) remove within 30 days of service of first removable opportunity.
  8. Diversity Jurisdiction is Federal courts have subject matter jurisdiction over (1) and (2) amount in controversy exceeds $75,000.
  9. Aggregation is the Plaintiff’s compiling of multiple claims against a (1) single Defendant (2) .
  10. Domicile factors include (1) physical presence in the state and (2) .
  11. Supplemental Jurisdiction allows federal courts to hear additional claims that on their own would not meet Diversity or Federal Question Jurisdiction if (1) and (2) each additional claim must share a common nucleus of operative fact with an existing claim.
  12. Subject Matter Jurisdiction is Federal courts must have authority over the claim in question with either (1) (2) Federal Question Jurisdiction (3) Supplemental Jurisdiction or (4) Removal Jurisdiction
  13. Citizenship for Complete Diversity is every Plaintiff must (1) be of (2) from every Defendant.
  14. Unincorporated Businesses are Citizens of all states in which (1) or (2) member is a citizen.
  15. Business Corporations are citizens of every state where (1) incorporation occurs and (2) .
  16. State Substantive Law will always govern (1) elements of a claim or defense (2) (3) conflict or choice of law rules or (4) rules for tolling .
  17. Federal Question is when Federal courts have jurisdiction over proper pleaded claims arising under federal law if the (1) and (2) not based on allegations or potential defenses.
  18. Exclusive Jurisdiction is when Federal courts have exclusive jurisdiction over certain types of claims including (1) (2) intellectual property (3) or (4) postal matters.
  19. Amount in Controversy is the Plaintiff’s complaint must make a (1) and (2) exceeds $75,000 excluding interest and costs.
  20. Erie Doctrine is the federal courts application of state substantive law and federal procedural law when (1) there is a valid federal law that is on point and directly conflicts with state law or (2) if no federal law is on point, then apply either state law .
  21. Natural Citizens are citizens of the state where (1) they are domiciled (2) at the .
  22. Removal Jurisdiction is the Defendant can remove a case, other than diversity jurisdiction filed in Defendants home state, if (1) federal court would have had subject matter jurisdiction (2) and (3) .
  23. Diversity Jurisdiction is Federal courts have subject matter jurisdiction over (1) and (2) amount in controversy exceeds $75,000.
  24. Aggregation is the Plaintiff’s compiling of multiple claims against a (1) single Defendant (2) .
  25. Domicile factors include (1) and (2) intent to remain in that state.
  26. Supplemental Jurisdiction allows federal courts to hear additional claims that on their own would not meet Diversity or Federal Question Jurisdiction if (1) and (2) each additional claim must share a common nucleus of operative fact with an existing claim.
  27. Subject Matter Jurisdiction is Federal courts must have authority over the claim in question with either (1) Diversity Jurisdiction (2) Federal Question Jurisdiction (3) or (4)
  28. Citizenship for Complete Diversity is every Plaintiff must (1) be of (2) from every Defendant.
  29. Unincorporated Businesses are Citizens of all states in which (1) any partner or (2) .
  30. Business Corporations are citizens of every state where (1) incorporation occurs and (2) .
  31. State Substantive Law will always govern (1) (2) (3) or (4) rules for tolling .
  32. Federal Question is when Federal courts have jurisdiction over proper pleaded claims arising under federal law if the (1) and (2) .
  33. Exclusive Jurisdiction is when Federal courts have exclusive jurisdiction over certain types of claims including (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  34. Amount in Controversy is the Plaintiff’s complaint must make a (1) and (2) .
  35. Erie Doctrine is the federal courts application of state substantive law and federal procedural law when (1) there is a or (2) if no federal law is on point, then apply either state law .
  36. Natural Citizens are citizens of the state where (1) they are (2) at the .
  37. Removal Jurisdiction is the Defendant can remove a case, other than diversity jurisdiction filed in Defendants home state, if (1) (2) and (3) .
  38. Diversity Jurisdiction is Federal courts have subject matter jurisdiction over (1) and (2) .
  39. Aggregation is the Plaintiff’s compiling of multiple claims against a (1) (2) .
  40. Domicile factors include (1) and (2) .
  41. Supplemental Jurisdiction allows federal courts to hear additional claims that on their own would not meet Diversity or Federal Question Jurisdiction if (1) and (2) each additional claim must .
  42. Subject Matter Jurisdiction is Federal courts must have authority over the claim in question with either (1) (2) (3) or (4)
  43. Citizenship for Complete Diversity is every Plaintiff must (1) be of (2) .
  44. Unincorporated Businesses are Citizens of all states in which (1) or (2) .
  45. Business Corporations are citizens of every state where (1) and (2) .

Venue

0 Correct out of 2
  1. Venue is proper in the judicial district where the Plaintiff brings the suit when (1) (2) location of claim (3) location of property or (4) Defendant is subject to Personal Jurisdiction.
  2. Venue Transfer is a case may be transferred from one federal court to another federal court, unless venue is proper, if (1) the case could have been filed there or (2) .
  3. Venue is proper in the judicial district where the Plaintiff brings the suit when (1) (2) (3) location of property or (4) Defendant is subject to Personal Jurisdiction.
  4. Venue Transfer is a case may be transferred from one federal court to another federal court, unless venue is proper, if (1) the case could have been filed there or (2) .
  5. Venue is proper in the judicial district where the Plaintiff brings the suit when (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  6. Venue Transfer is a case may be transferred from one federal court to another federal court, unless venue is proper, if (1) or (2) .

Service of Process

0 Correct out of 4
  1. Waiver is when the Plaintiff requests that Defendant waive service of process by (1) and (2) a formal request to waive service.
  2. Service of Process is the delivery to the Defendant of the (1) and (2) complaint.
  3. Any individual may serve (1) who are 18 or older and (2) a .
  4. Acceptable Methods of Service of Process may be completed by (1) (2) substituted service (3) service upon Defendants authorized agent (4) mail or (5) any method permitted under state law.
  5. Waiver is when the Plaintiff requests that Defendant waive service of process by (1) mailing the Defendant the complaint and (2) a .
  6. Service of Process is the delivery to the Defendant of the (1) summons and (2) .
  7. Any individual may serve (1) and (2) a non-party.
  8. Acceptable Methods of Service of Process may be completed by (1) personal service (2) (3) service upon (4) or (5) any method permitted under state law.
  9. Waiver is when the Plaintiff requests that Defendant waive service of process by (1) and (2) a .
  10. Service of Process is the delivery to the Defendant of the (1) and (2) .
  11. Any individual may serve (1) and (2) a .
  12. Acceptable Methods of Service of Process may be completed by (1) (2) (3) service upon (4) or (5) .

Interlocutory Injunctions

0 Correct out of 2
  1. Preliminary Injunctions are a court order requiring a person to do or to cease doing something may be granted if (1) the and (2) likely hood of success on the merits.
  2. Temporary Restraining Order are issued by a court when (1) (2) irreparable injury to a party (3) that will result before a hearing can be heard and (4) lasts up to 14 days from issuance.
  3. Preliminary Injunctions are a court order requiring a person to do or to cease doing something may be granted if (1) the moving the party will suffer irreparable harm that does not outweigh harm to the adverse party and (2) .
  4. Temporary Restraining Order are issued by a court when (1) necessary to prevent (2) (3) that will result before a hearing can be heard and (4) .
  5. Preliminary Injunctions are a court order requiring a person to do or to cease doing something may be granted if (1) the and (2) .
  6. Temporary Restraining Order are issued by a court when (1) (2) (3) that will result and (4) .

Pleadings and Motions

0 Correct out of 16
  1. Compulsory Counterclaim is a clam by the Defendant against the Plaintiff that arises from (1) the same transaction or (2) .
  2. Parties may amend their pleadings once as a matter of course if (1) within 21 days after service or (2) if the pleading is one which .
  3. Relation Back Doctrine applies when a party amends a pleading to (1) (2) add or substitute a new Defendant or (3) after the statute of limitations has run.
  4. Complaint is the initial pleading filed by the Plaintiff to begin the lawsuit which requires (1) statement of jurisdiction (2) and (3) demand for judgement.
  5. Rules 11 sanctions require (1) safe harbor for 21 days to allow the opposing party to remedy the issue and (2) a .
  6. Motion for a more definitive statement is the Defendant requires more information to answer the complaint if the complaint is (1) vague or (2) .
  7. An amendment will relate back to a new or substituted Defendant if (1) the amendment concerns the same conduct, transaction, or occurrence or (2) when the Defendant knew or should have known about the filing.
  8. Parties may only amend without a right when (1) or (2) leave of court.
  9. Rule 12 Motions are a Defendant’s response to the validity of Plaintiff’s complaint consisting of (1) lack of subject matter jurisdiction (2) lack of personal jurisdiction (3) improper venue (4) (5) insufficiency of service of process (6) failure to state a claim or (7) failure to join a necessary party.
  10. Answer is a response to the complaint in which (1) and (2) admit or deny each claim of Plaintiff’s complaint.
  11. An amendment will relate back to a new claim if (1) (2) same transaction or (3) occurrence as the original pleading.
  12. Permissive Counterclaim is a claim by the Defendant against the Plaintiff that does not arise from (1) the or (2) occurrence.
  13. Motion for judgement of the pleadings is a (1) (2) prior to a verdict (3) resulting from no material issue of facts exists and (4) one party is entitled to judgement as a matter of law.
  14. Cross Claims are a claim asserted by a co-party that have (1) independent jurisdiction and (2) same transaction or (3) .
  15. Motion to strike is the Defendant request to strike any (1) redundant (2) immaterial (3) or (4) scandalous material in the complaint.
  16. Rule 11 certifications require the attorney or pro se party, to the best of their ability, certify that the (1) (2) non-frivolous legal contentions made are warranted by law and (3) factual contentions and denials have or likely to have evidentiary support.
  17. Compulsory Counterclaim is a clam by the Defendant against the Plaintiff that arises from (1) the or (2) occurrence as any of the Plaintiffs claims.
  18. Parties may amend their pleadings once as a matter of course if (1) within 21 days after service or (2) if the pleading is one which .
  19. Relation Back Doctrine applies when a party amends a pleading to (1) (2) add or substitute a new Defendant or (3) .
  20. Complaint is the initial pleading filed by the Plaintiff to begin the lawsuit which requires (1) (2) statement of the claim and (3) .
  21. Rules 11 sanctions require (1) to allow the opposing party to remedy the issue and (2) a required hearing.
  22. Motion for a more definitive statement is the Defendant requires more information to answer the complaint if the complaint is (1) vague or (2) .
  23. An amendment will relate back to a new or substituted Defendant if (1) the amendment concerns the same or (2) occurs within 90 days of filing of the original pleading when the Defendant knew or should have known about the filing.
  24. Parties may only amend without a right when (1) or (2) leave of court.
  25. Rule 12 Motions are a Defendant’s response to the validity of Plaintiff’s complaint consisting of (1) (2) lack of personal jurisdiction (3) (4) (5) insufficiency of service of process (6) or (7) failure to join a necessary party.
  26. Answer is a response to the complaint in which (1) Defendant states defenses to each claim asserted and (2) of Plaintiff’s complaint.
  27. An amendment will relate back to a new claim if (1) same conduct (2) or (3) .
  28. Permissive Counterclaim is a claim by the Defendant against the Plaintiff that does not arise from (1) the or (2) occurrence.
  29. Motion for judgement of the pleadings is a (1) (2) (3) resulting from no material issue of facts exists and (4) one party is entitled to judgement as a matter of law.
  30. Cross Claims are a claim asserted by a co-party that have (1) and (2) same transaction or (3) .
  31. Motion to strike is the Defendant request to strike any (1) (2) immaterial (3) or (4) scandalous material in the complaint.
  32. Rule 11 certifications require the attorney or pro se party, to the best of their ability, certify that the (1) (2) non-frivolous legal contentions made are warranted by law and (3) .
  33. Compulsory Counterclaim is a clam by the Defendant against the Plaintiff that arises from (1) the or (2) .
  34. Parties may amend their pleadings once as a matter of course if (1) or (2) if the pleading is one which .
  35. Relation Back Doctrine applies when a party amends a pleading to (1) (2) or (3) .
  36. Complaint is the initial pleading filed by the Plaintiff to begin the lawsuit which requires (1) (2) and (3) .
  37. Rules 11 sanctions require (1) to allow the opposing party to remedy the issue and (2) a .
  38. Motion for a more definitive statement is the Defendant requires more information to answer the complaint if the complaint is (1) or (2) .
  39. An amendment will relate back to a new or substituted Defendant if (1) the amendment concerns the same or (2) when the Defendant knew or should have known about the filing.
  40. Parties may only amend without a right when (1) or (2) .
  41. Rule 12 Motions are a Defendant’s response to the validity of Plaintiff’s complaint consisting of (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) or (7) .
  42. Answer is a response to the complaint in which (1) and (2) of Plaintiff’s complaint.
  43. An amendment will relate back to a new claim if (1) (2) or (3) .
  44. Permissive Counterclaim is a claim by the Defendant against the Plaintiff that does not arise from (1) the or (2) .
  45. Motion for judgement of the pleadings is a (1) (2) (3) resulting from and (4) .
  46. Cross Claims are a claim asserted by a co-party that have (1) and (2) or (3) .
  47. Motion to strike is the Defendant request to strike any (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  48. Rule 11 certifications require the attorney or pro se party, to the best of their ability, certify that the (1) (2) and (3) .

Joining Claims

0 Correct out of 9
  1. Rule 22 Interpleader allows a property holder to initiate a suit to compel claimants to the property to litigate a dispute if (1) Federal Question Jurisdiction or Complete Diversity Jurisdiction (2) no nationwide service required and (3) .
  2. Permissive Intervention is allowed at the court’s discretion if either (1) absentee has a claim or defense that shares a common question of law with the underlying action (2) absentee has a conditional statutory right or (3) .
  3. Necessary Parties are absent parties may be forced to join the suit when either (1) without absentee court cannot grant complete relief (2) or (3) absentee has an interest that creates a risk of multiple or inconsistent rulings.
  4. Permissive Joinder is when the Plaintiff seeks to join non-parties as co-plaintiffs or co-defendants if (1) the event is of the (2) common questions of fact or law arise and (3) court has jurisdiction over parties and claims.
  5. Impleader allows Defendant to join a non-party who may be liable to Defendant for all, or part of the claim brought by Plaintiff against the original Defendant if (1) Defendant impleaded a third-party defendant by filing a complaint within 14 days after serving their answer (2) Defendant cannot claim that third party Defendant is solely liable to Plaintiff and (3) .
  6. Statutory Interpleader allows a property holder to initiate a suit to compel claimants to the property to litigate a dispute if (1) less than or equal to $500 (2) (3) deposit property with the court and (4) nationwide service.
  7. Necessary Parties must be under (1) and (2) joining the parties will not destroy diversity jurisdiction.
  8. Indispensable Party is a necessary party who cannot join in which the court could dismiss the claim after evaluating (1) (2) likelihood of prejudice (3) shape potential relief to avoid prejudice and (4) adequate remedies available for the Plaintiff if case is dismissed.
  9. Intervention as a right is when a non-party must join an already pending suit if either (1) absent non-party’s interest will be harmed if not joined or (2) .
  10. Rule 22 Interpleader allows a property holder to initiate a suit to compel claimants to the property to litigate a dispute if (1) (2) no nationwide service required and (3) .
  11. Permissive Intervention is allowed at the court’s discretion if either (1) (2) absentee has a conditional statutory right or (3) .
  12. Necessary Parties are absent parties may be forced to join the suit when either (1) without absentee court cannot grant complete relief (2) or (3) .
  13. Permissive Joinder is when the Plaintiff seeks to join non-parties as co-plaintiffs or co-defendants if (1) the event is of the (2) and (3) court has jurisdiction over parties and claims.
  14. Impleader allows Defendant to join a non-party who may be liable to Defendant for all, or part of the claim brought by Plaintiff against the original Defendant if (1) Defendant impleaded a third-party defendant by filing a complaint (2) and (3) court must have personal jurisdiction over impleaded party.
  15. Statutory Interpleader allows a property holder to initiate a suit to compel claimants to the property to litigate a dispute if (1) (2) (3) deposit property with the court and (4) nationwide service.
  16. Necessary Parties must be under (1) and (2) joining the parties will not destroy diversity jurisdiction.
  17. Indispensable Party is a necessary party who cannot join in which the court could dismiss the claim after evaluating (1) alternative forum availability (2) likelihood of prejudice (3) and (4) .
  18. Intervention as a right is when a non-party must join an already pending suit if either (1) absent non-party’s interest will be harmed if not joined or (2) .
  19. Rule 22 Interpleader allows a property holder to initiate a suit to compel claimants to the property to litigate a dispute if (1) (2) and (3) .
  20. Permissive Intervention is allowed at the court’s discretion if either (1) (2) or (3) .
  21. Necessary Parties are absent parties may be forced to join the suit when either (1) (2) or (3) .
  22. Permissive Joinder is when the Plaintiff seeks to join non-parties as co-plaintiffs or co-defendants if (1) the event is of the (2) and (3) .
  23. Impleader allows Defendant to join a non-party who may be liable to Defendant for all, or part of the claim brought by Plaintiff against the original Defendant if (1) Defendant impleaded a third-party defendant by filing a complaint (2) and (3) .
  24. Statutory Interpleader allows a property holder to initiate a suit to compel claimants to the property to litigate a dispute if (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  25. Necessary Parties must be under (1) and (2) .
  26. Indispensable Party is a necessary party who cannot join in which the court could dismiss the claim after evaluating (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  27. Intervention as a right is when a non-party must join an already pending suit if either (1) or (2) .

Class Actions

0 Correct out of 8
  1. Diversity Jurisdiction for class actions require (1) and (2) one class representative claim that exceeds $75,000.
  2. Rule 23(b)(2) of Class Actions for Injunctive Relief means an injunctive judgement can be obtained if (1) damages cannot be sought (2) and (3) no right to opt out.
  3. Judgement for class action lawsuits (1) unless (2) opt out is applicable.
  4. Personal Jurisdiction for class actions apply to named class members and require (1) (2) opportunity to opt out if applicable and (3) adequate representation.
  5. Class Action Certification is a court’s determination whether to allow the case to proceed as a class action if (1) defined class and (2) appointed counsel must .
  6. Rule 23 of Class Actions means an individual or small group can represent a larger class sharing a common question in a lawsuit if (1) numerosity (2) (3) typicality and (4) adequacy are all present.
  7. Settlement for class action lawsuits must be (1) approved by the court (2) fair (3) reasonable and (4) .
  8. Rule 23(b)(3) of Class Actions for Monetary Damages means a large class action can be sought if (1) common question of law or fact are predominated over individual questions (2) (3) class members may opt out and (4) must receive reasonable notice.
  9. Diversity Jurisdiction for class actions require (1) diverse class representatives from all opposing parties and (2) .
  10. Rule 23(b)(2) of Class Actions for Injunctive Relief means an injunctive judgement can be obtained if (1) (2) and (3) no right to opt out.
  11. Judgement for class action lawsuits (1) binds all absent class members unless (2) .
  12. Personal Jurisdiction for class actions apply to named class members and require (1) (2) and (3) adequate representation.
  13. Class Action Certification is a court’s determination whether to allow the case to proceed as a class action if (1) and (2) appointed counsel must fairly and adequately represent the interest of the whole class.
  14. Rule 23 of Class Actions means an individual or small group can represent a larger class sharing a common question in a lawsuit if (1) (2) commonality (3) and (4) adequacy are all present.
  15. Settlement for class action lawsuits must be (1) (2) fair (3) and (4) adequate.
  16. Rule 23(b)(3) of Class Actions for Monetary Damages means a large class action can be sought if (1) common question of law or fact are (2) (3) class members may opt out and (4) must receive reasonable notice.
  17. Diversity Jurisdiction for class actions require (1) and (2) .
  18. Rule 23(b)(2) of Class Actions for Injunctive Relief means an injunctive judgement can be obtained if (1) (2) and (3) .
  19. Judgement for class action lawsuits (1) unless (2) .
  20. Personal Jurisdiction for class actions apply to named class members and require (1) (2) and (3) .
  21. Class Action Certification is a court’s determination whether to allow the case to proceed as a class action if (1) and (2) appointed counsel must .
  22. Rule 23 of Class Actions means an individual or small group can represent a larger class sharing a common question in a lawsuit if (1) (2) (3) and (4) are all present.
  23. Settlement for class action lawsuits must be (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  24. Rule 23(b)(3) of Class Actions for Monetary Damages means a large class action can be sought if (1) common question of law or fact are (2) (3) and (4) .

Discovery

0 Correct out of 15
  1. Undiscoverable privileged material includes (1) attorney-client (2) work product (3) (4) clergy (5) marital (6) journalist source and (7) Fifth Amendment right of self-incrimination.
  2. Work Product Privilege protects material prepared in anticipation of litigation or trial are not discoverable unless the opposing party shows (1) substantial need for the material and (2) .
  3. Interrogatories are written questions proposed by one party to an opposing party (1) to ask about the identity of documents and (2) people who have knowledge pertinent to claims and defenses (3) limited to 25 questions per party and (4) .
  4. Discovery is a court mandated process of (1) acquiring (2) producing information from (3) .
  5. Requests for Production are written requests to one party to make documents or other items within the parties control available for (1) review (2) copy or (3) .
  6. Request for Admission are written requests to parties to answer the truth of discoverable information with an (1) (2) denial or (3) lacks sufficient knowledge within 30 days of service.
  7. Protective Order is a court order limiting discovery of material sought by a party to prevent disclosure of privileged material where the moving party must (1) certify they have or (2) .
  8. Expert disclosures require the identity of experts who may be used at trial and must occur (1) at least (2) produce a report containing experts’ opinion (3) data used and (4) qualifications.
  9. Attorney Client Privilege protects information exchanged confidentially between an attorney and client when (1) made between client and counsel (2) intended to be and kept confidential and (3) was .
  10. Mandatory Disclosures are required to the opposing party regardless of request including (1) sources of discoverable information (2) damages sought and (3) .
  11. Pretrial disclosures require the parties of the suit to (1) give detailed information about the evidence to be used at trial (2) .
  12. Meet and Confer must (1) take place 21 days before scheduling conference (2) to and (3) develop a plan for discovery.
  13. Physical or Mental Examination of another party is available through the court when (1) the party’s health is at issue and (2) .
  14. Discovery is material if (1) (2) relevant to a claim or defense and (3) proportional to the needs of the case.
  15. Depositions are oral proceedings in which an attorney (1) (2) not exceed 7 hours and (3) no more than 10 total depositions.
  16. Undiscoverable privileged material includes (1) attorney-client (2) work product (3) (4) clergy (5) (6) and (7) .
  17. Work Product Privilege protects material prepared in anticipation of litigation or trial are not discoverable unless the opposing party shows (1) and (2) undue hardship to obtain the materials by other means.
  18. Interrogatories are written questions proposed by one party to an opposing party (1) to ask about the and (2) people who have knowledge pertinent to claims and defenses (3) limited to 25 questions per party and (4) .
  19. Discovery is a court mandated process of (1) (2) producing information from (3) .
  20. Requests for Production are written requests to one party to make documents or other items within the parties control available for (1) (2) or (3) inspection within 30 days after service.
  21. Request for Admission are written requests to parties to answer the truth of discoverable information with an (1) admit (2) or (3) .
  22. Protective Order is a court order limiting discovery of material sought by a party to prevent disclosure of privileged material where the moving party must (1) certify they have or (2) .
  23. Expert disclosures require the identity of experts who may be used at trial and must occur (1) at least 90 days prior to trial (2) produce a report containing experts’ opinion (3) and (4) .
  24. Attorney Client Privilege protects information exchanged confidentially between an attorney and client when (1) made (2) intended to be and kept confidential and (3) was .
  25. Mandatory Disclosures are required to the opposing party regardless of request including (1) sources of discoverable information (2) and (3) .
  26. Pretrial disclosures require the parties of the suit to (1) give (2) 30 days prior to trial.
  27. Meet and Confer must (1) take place 21 days before scheduling conference (2) to and (3) .
  28. Physical or Mental Examination of another party is available through the court when (1) the party’s health is at issue and (2) .
  29. Discovery is material if (1) (2) relevant to a claim or defense and (3) .
  30. Depositions are oral proceedings in which an attorney (1) examines the party under oath (2) and (3) .
  31. Undiscoverable privileged material includes (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) and (7) .
  32. Work Product Privilege protects material prepared in anticipation of litigation or trial are not discoverable unless the opposing party shows (1) and (2) .
  33. Interrogatories are written questions proposed by one party to an opposing party (1) to ask about the and (2) (3) per party and (4) .
  34. Discovery is a court mandated process of (1) (2) (3) .
  35. Requests for Production are written requests to one party to make documents or other items within the parties control available for (1) (2) or (3) .
  36. Request for Admission are written requests to parties to answer the truth of discoverable information with an (1) (2) or (3) .
  37. Protective Order is a court order limiting discovery of material sought by a party to prevent disclosure of privileged material where the moving party must (1) or (2) .
  38. Expert disclosures require the identity of experts who may be used at trial and must occur (1) at least (2) (3) and (4) .
  39. Attorney Client Privilege protects information exchanged confidentially between an attorney and client when (1) made (2) and (3) was .
  40. Mandatory Disclosures are required to the opposing party regardless of request including (1) (2) and (3) .
  41. Pretrial disclosures require the parties of the suit to (1) give (2) .
  42. Meet and Confer must (1) take place (2) to and (3) .
  43. Physical or Mental Examination of another party is available through the court when (1) the and (2) .
  44. Discovery is material if (1) (2) and (3) .
  45. Depositions are oral proceedings in which an attorney (1) (2) and (3) .

Pretrial, Trial, and Appeal

0 Correct out of 11
  1. Claim Preclusion occurs when one party had an opportunity to litigate the claim and cannot refile once final judgement has been ordered if (1) same parties (2) (3) final judgement on the merits.
  2. Issue Preclusion prevents re-litigation of a particular issue of fact or law that have been previously litigated when (1) (2) same issue (3) issue was essential to judgement and (4) asserted against actual party in previous case.
  3. Motion for New Trial may be filed by either party (1) within and (2) judgement was entered based upon a serious error.
  4. Renewed Judgement as a Matter of Law is a motion brought by either party (1) after the court enters judgement based in the jury verdict (2) (3) brought within 28 days after entry of judgement and (4) there is insufficient evidence for a reasonable jury to have reached the verdict.
  5. Summary Judgement can be filed by either party (1) no less than 30 days after the close of discovery where the moving party must show (2) and (3) moving party is entitled to judgement as a matter of law.
  6. Judgement as a Matter of Law is a motion brought by either party (1) prior to the case going to jury and (2) a reasonable jury would not have .
  7. Voluntarily Dismissal occurs when the Plaintiff dismisses their case (1) or (2) without cause.
  8. Interlocutory Appeals can be filed prior to judgement when the appeal pertains to (1) injunction (2) class action certification (3) collateral order (4) appointment of receivership (5) admiralty (6) (7) mandamus and (8) property.
  9. Motion to Set Aside Judgement or Order may be granted by a court to relieve a party from judgement or order when any of the following are present (1) a mistake was made (2) new undiscoverable evidence at time of trial (3) fraud or misrepresentation (4) (5) judgement has been satisfied or discharged (6) any other reason that justifies relief.
  10. Default Judgement entered by Clerk may occur if (1) Plaintiff files for default judgement against Defendant (2) (3) Claim is for money damages (4) Plaintiff provides an affidavit of sum owed and (5) Defendant is not a minor or incompetent.
  11. Appellate Courts review protentional errors by lower courts when (1) appealed within 30 days of entry of final judgement (2) de novo standard of review and (3) will not be disturbed.
  12. Claim Preclusion occurs when one party had an opportunity to litigate the claim and cannot refile once final judgement has been ordered if (1) (2) (3) final judgement on the merits.
  13. Issue Preclusion prevents re-litigation of a particular issue of fact or law that have been previously litigated when (1) final judgement on the merits (2) same issue (3) and (4) .
  14. Motion for New Trial may be filed by either party (1) within 28 days after entry of judgement and (2) judgement was .
  15. Renewed Judgement as a Matter of Law is a motion brought by either party (1) after the court enters judgement based in the jury verdict (2) renewed by the losing party (3) brought and (4) there is for a reasonable jury to have reached the verdict.
  16. Summary Judgement can be filed by either party (1) where the moving party must show (2) and (3) moving party is entitled to judgement as a matter of law.
  17. Judgement as a Matter of Law is a motion brought by either party (1) and (2) a reasonable jury would not have sufficient evidentiary basis to disagree with the result.
  18. Voluntarily Dismissal occurs when the Plaintiff dismisses their case (1) or (2) without cause.
  19. Interlocutory Appeals can be filed prior to judgement when the appeal pertains to (1) (2) (3) collateral order (4) (5) admiralty (6) (7) mandamus and (8) property.
  20. Motion to Set Aside Judgement or Order may be granted by a court to relieve a party from judgement or order when any of the following are present (1) a mistake was made (2) (3) (4) void judgement (5) (6) any other reason that justifies relief.
  21. Default Judgement entered by Clerk may occur if (1) (2) Defendant has not responded at all (3) (4) and (5) Defendant is not a minor or incompetent.
  22. Appellate Courts review protentional errors by lower courts when (1) (2) de novo standard of review and (3) will not be disturbed.
  23. Claim Preclusion occurs when one party had an opportunity to litigate the claim and cannot refile once final judgement has been ordered if (1) (2) (3) .
  24. Issue Preclusion prevents re-litigation of a particular issue of fact or law that have been previously litigated when (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  25. Motion for New Trial may be filed by either party (1) within and (2) judgement was .
  26. Renewed Judgement as a Matter of Law is a motion brought by either party (1) (2) (3) brought and (4) there is for a reasonable jury to have reached the verdict.
  27. Summary Judgement can be filed by either party (1) where the moving party must show (2) and (3) .
  28. Judgement as a Matter of Law is a motion brought by either party (1) and (2) a reasonable jury would not have .
  29. Voluntarily Dismissal occurs when the Plaintiff dismisses their case (1) or (2) .
  30. Interlocutory Appeals can be filed prior to judgement when the appeal pertains to (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (7) and (8) .
  31. Motion to Set Aside Judgement or Order may be granted by a court to relieve a party from judgement or order when any of the following are present (1) a (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) .
  32. Default Judgement entered by Clerk may occur if (1) (2) (3) (4) and (5) .
  33. Appellate Courts review protentional errors by lower courts when (1) (2) and (3) will not be disturbed.
  • Estates in Land
  • Concurrent Estates
  • Leasehold Estates
  • Servitudes
  • Adverse Possession
  • Land Sale Contracts
  • Mortgages

Estates in Land

0 Correct out of 10
  1. Contingent Remainder is a remainder that is not automatically possessory but contingent if (1) or (2) created in favor of an unascertained person.
  2. Affirmative Waste is a type of waste that the Life Tenant cannot consume or exploit the natural resources of the land except (1) (2) grant expressly gives right to exploit or (3) lands was exploited prior to grant.
  3. Rule Against Perpetuities is an interest in land must (1) vest or fail (2) (3) no later than 21 years.
  4. Fee Simple Subject to Condition Subsequent is a potentially infinite fee simple estate that (1) grantor retains the (2) not automatically forfeited and (3) freely transferable.
  5. Vested Remainder is a remainder that automatically becomes possessory upon the natural expiration of the preceding events if (1) indefeasibly vested remainders (2) vested remainders subject to total divestment or (3) (a class gift).
  6. Ameliorative Waste is a type of waste where the Life Tenant (1) that (2) economically benefits the land.
  7. Permissive Waste is a type of waste where the Life Tenant cannot harm the property including (1) neglect (2) or (3) interest on encumbrances.
  8. Fee Simple Subject to an Executory Interest is a potentially infinite fee simple estate that (1) upon a given event or condition (2) to a third party that is (3) freely transferable.
  9. Fee Simple Determinable is a fee simple estate which is potentially infinite that occurs (1) upon a given event or condition (2) grantor retains a possibility of reverter and (3) freely transferable.
  10. Life Estate is an (1) that (2) lasts only for the life of the interest holder.
  11. Contingent Remainder is a remainder that is not automatically possessory but contingent if (1) subject to a condition precedent or (2) created in favor of an .
  12. Affirmative Waste is a type of waste that the Life Tenant cannot consume or exploit the natural resources of the land except (1) (2) grant or (3) lands was exploited prior to grant.
  13. Rule Against Perpetuities is an interest in land must (1) vest or fail (2) (3) .
  14. Fee Simple Subject to Condition Subsequent is a potentially infinite fee simple estate that (1) grantor retains the (2) not automatically forfeited and (3) .
  15. Vested Remainder is a remainder that automatically becomes possessory upon the natural expiration of the preceding events if (1) indefeasibly vested remainders (2) or (3) (a class gift).
  16. Ameliorative Waste is a type of waste where the Life Tenant (1) commits waste that (2) .
  17. Permissive Waste is a type of waste where the Life Tenant cannot harm the property including (1) (2) or (3) interest on encumbrances.
  18. Fee Simple Subject to an Executory Interest is a potentially infinite fee simple estate that (1) automatically transfers upon a given event or condition (2) to a that is (3) .
  19. Fee Simple Determinable is a fee simple estate which is potentially infinite that occurs (1) upon a given event or condition (2) grantor retains a possibility of reverter and (3) .
  20. Life Estate is an (1) interest in land that (2) lasts only .
  21. Contingent Remainder is a remainder that is not automatically possessory but contingent if (1) or (2) created in favor of an .
  22. Affirmative Waste is a type of waste that the Life Tenant cannot consume or exploit the natural resources of the land except (1) (2) grant or (3) lands was .
  23. Rule Against Perpetuities is an interest in land must (1) (2) (3) .
  24. Fee Simple Subject to Condition Subsequent is a potentially infinite fee simple estate that (1) grantor retains the (2) and (3) .
  25. Vested Remainder is a remainder that automatically becomes possessory upon the natural expiration of the preceding events if (1) (2) or (3) (a class gift).
  26. Ameliorative Waste is a type of waste where the Life Tenant (1) that (2) .
  27. Permissive Waste is a type of waste where the Life Tenant cannot harm the property including (1) (2) or (3) .
  28. Fee Simple Subject to an Executory Interest is a potentially infinite fee simple estate that (1) upon a given event or condition (2) to a that is (3) .
  29. Fee Simple Determinable is a fee simple estate which is potentially infinite that occurs (1) upon a given event or condition (2) grantor retains a and (3) .
  30. Life Estate is an (1) that (2) lasts only .

Concurrent Estates

0 Correct out of 6
  1. Severance of a Joint Tenancy creates a (1) Tenancy in Common with respect to the (2) .
  2. Tenancy by the Entirety is an estate that is created when (1) time (2) (3) interest (4) possession and (5) marriage concurrently exist among when the tenants take their interest.
  3. Severance of a Tenancy by the Entirety creates a Tenancy in Common when (1) death of one co-tenant (2) mutual agreement by the parties in writing (3) issuance of a divorce decree and (4) .
  4. Possession is when (1) each co-tenant has the (2) .
  5. Tenancy in Common is an estate with multiple tenants in which each co-tenant owns a distinct undivided interest while each has a right to possess the whole estate that is (1) freely transferable and (2) .
  6. Joint Tenancy is an estate that is created when (1) time (2) title (3) and (4) possession concurrently exist among the tenants when they take their .
  7. Severance of a Joint Tenancy creates a (1) Tenancy in Common with respect to the (2) .
  8. Tenancy by the Entirety is an estate that is created when (1) time (2) (3) (4) possession and (5) among when the tenants take their .
  9. Severance of a Tenancy by the Entirety creates a Tenancy in Common when (1) (2) mutual agreement by the parties in writing (3) issuance of a divorce decree and (4) .
  10. Possession is when (1) each co-tenant has the (2) .
  11. Tenancy in Common is an estate with multiple tenants in which each co-tenant owns a distinct undivided interest while each has a right to possess the whole estate that is (1) freely transferable and (2) .
  12. Joint Tenancy is an estate that is created when (1) (2) title (3) interest and (4) among the tenants when they take their interest.
  13. Severance of a Joint Tenancy creates a (1) with respect to the (2) .
  14. Tenancy by the Entirety is an estate that is created when (1) (2) (3) (4) and (5) among when the tenants take their .
  15. Severance of a Tenancy by the Entirety creates a Tenancy in Common when (1) (2) by the parties in writing (3) and (4) .
  16. Possession is when (1) has the (2) .
  17. Tenancy in Common is an estate with multiple tenants in which each co-tenant owns a distinct undivided interest while each has a right to possess the whole estate that is (1) and (2) .
  18. Joint Tenancy is an estate that is created when (1) (2) (3) and (4) among the tenants when they take their .

Leasehold Estates

0 Correct out of 18
  1. Tenant’s Duty at common law for leasehold estates consist of (1) (2) not commit waste (3) pay rent and (4) use property in a legal manner.
  2. Periodic Tenancy terminates when a tenant gives proper notice that is (1) and (2) the effective termination date is at the end of the periodic tenancy.
  3. Landlord’s Duties and Warranties to tenant consist of (1) duty to deliver possession (2) implied covenant of quiet enjoyment (3) implied warranty of habitability and (4) .
  4. Operation of law occurs when (1) death by either party (2) waste by the tenant (3) assignment by the tenant (4) or (5) lease by the landlord to a third party.
  5. Periodic Tenancy is a leasehold estate that is created when (1) express agreement (2) Implication or (3) .
  6. Fixture is a (1) once movable object that is (2) such that (3) it becomes part of the real property.
  7. Landlord’s Tort Liability to Tenant for injuries occurring on the leased property consist of (1) common areas (2) latent defects (3) assumption of repairs (4) public use or (5) .
  8. Sublease consists of a (1) Tenant’s from (2) sublessor to sublessee.
  9. Breach of the Implied Warranty of Habitability grants the Tenants remedies against the landlord consisting of (1) move-out (2) (3) reduce or withhold rent or (4) remain and seek damages.
  10. Constructive Eviction is the Landlord’s action or inactions render the property uninhabitable whereupon there is (1) (2) notice was given to Landlord about interference and (3) tenant must vacate within a reasonable period after the landlord fails to repair the .
  11. Implied Covenant of Quiet Enjoyment is the Tenant’s right to (1) use and (2) (3) free from interference with the Landlord.
  12. Actual Eviction is the Landlord (1) wrongfully evicts or (2) .
  13. Tenancy at Will is a leasehold estate with (1) and (2) terminable by either party at any time without notice.
  14. Tenancy at Will terminates upon (1) or (2) by operation of law.
  15. Implied Warranty of Habitability means the (1) residential property is (2) .
  16. Tenancy at Sufferance is created when (1) the tenant wrongfully possesses the property (2) .
  17. Assignment consists of a (1) Tenant’s to (2) an assignee.
  18. The four types of leasehold estates in which the tenant has a present possessory property interest, and the landlord has a future interest are (1) (2) periodic tenancy (3) tenancy at will and (4) tenancy at sufferance.
  19. Tenant’s Duty at common law for leasehold estates consist of (1) ordinary repairs (2) (3) and (4) use property in a legal manner.
  20. Periodic Tenancy terminates when a tenant gives proper notice that is (1) and (2) the effective termination date is at the end of the periodic tenancy.
  21. Landlord’s Duties and Warranties to tenant consist of (1) (2) (3) implied warranty of habitability and (4) tort liability.
  22. Operation of law occurs when (1) (2) waste by the tenant (3) (4) transfer of title by the landlord or (5) .
  23. Periodic Tenancy is a leasehold estate that is created when (1) express agreement (2) or (3) .
  24. Fixture is a (1) once movable object that is (2) such that (3) it .
  25. Landlord’s Tort Liability to Tenant for injuries occurring on the leased property consist of (1) (2) latent defects (3) assumption of repairs (4) or (5) .
  26. Sublease consists of a (1) Tenant’s from (2) sublessor to sublessee.
  27. Breach of the Implied Warranty of Habitability grants the Tenants remedies against the landlord consisting of (1) move-out (2) (3) or (4) remain and seek damages.
  28. Constructive Eviction is the Landlord’s action or inactions render the property uninhabitable whereupon there is (1) substantial interference (2) and (3) after the landlord fails to repair the substantial interference.
  29. Implied Covenant of Quiet Enjoyment is the Tenant’s right to (1) use and (2) (3) with the Landlord.
  30. Actual Eviction is the Landlord (1) or (2) excludes the tenant from the property.
  31. Tenancy at Will is a leasehold estate with (1) and (2) terminable by either party at any time without notice.
  32. Tenancy at Will terminates upon (1) will or (2) by .
  33. Implied Warranty of Habitability means the (1) residential property is (2) .
  34. Tenancy at Sufferance is created when (1) the (2) beyond the lease expiration.
  35. Assignment consists of a (1) Tenant’s entire transfer of the leasehold estate to (2) an .
  36. The four types of leasehold estates in which the tenant has a present possessory property interest, and the landlord has a future interest are (1) (2) periodic tenancy (3) tenancy at will and (4) .
  37. Tenant’s Duty at common law for leasehold estates consist of (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  38. Periodic Tenancy terminates when a tenant gives proper notice that is (1) and (2) the .
  39. Landlord’s Duties and Warranties to tenant consist of (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  40. Operation of law occurs when (1) (2) (3) (4) or (5) .
  41. Periodic Tenancy is a leasehold estate that is created when (1) (2) or (3) .
  42. Fixture is a (1) that is (2) such that (3) it .
  43. Landlord’s Tort Liability to Tenant for injuries occurring on the leased property consist of (1) (2) (3) (4) or (5) .
  44. Sublease consists of a (1) Tenant’s from (2) .
  45. Breach of the Implied Warranty of Habitability grants the Tenants remedies against the landlord consisting of (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  46. Constructive Eviction is the Landlord’s action or inactions render the property uninhabitable whereupon there is (1) (2) and (3) after the landlord fails to repair the .
  47. Implied Covenant of Quiet Enjoyment is the Tenant’s right to (1) and (2) (3) with the Landlord.
  48. Actual Eviction is the Landlord (1) or (2) .
  49. Tenancy at Will is a leasehold estate with (1) and (2) without notice.
  50. Tenancy at Will terminates upon (1) or (2) by .
  51. Implied Warranty of Habitability means the (1) is (2) .
  52. Tenancy at Sufferance is created when (1) the (2) .
  53. Assignment consists of a (1) Tenant’s to (2) an .
  54. The four types of leasehold estates in which the tenant has a present possessory property interest, and the landlord has a future interest are (1) (2) (3) and (4) .

Servitudes

0 Correct out of 17
  1. Reciprocal Negative Servitude are covenants where the land is subdivided into parcels with restrictions attached that are created by (1) or (2) notice.
  2. Easement Appurtenant is a type of easement that (1) passes automatically (2) to use the servient estates land.
  3. Profit is a non-possessory property interest entitling the holder to (1) to (2) remove resources from the land.
  4. License is a (1) revocable right to use (2) .
  5. Burdening covenant that runs with the land must (1) (2) have intent (3) touches and concerns the land (4) horizontal and vertical privity and (5) notice.
  6. Easement by Prescription requires the use of another’s land to be (1) continuous (2) open and notorious (3) actual and (4) .
  7. Negative Easement is created only by an express grant where the holder of the easement prevents the servient landowner from engaging in otherwise permissible actions such as (1) light (2) air (3) or (4) stream of water from an artificial flow.
  8. Covenant terminates upon (1) written releases (2) merger of benefited and burden estates or (3) .
  9. Easement may be terminated by (1) estoppel (2) necessity ends (3) destruction of servient tenement (4) release (5) (6) merger (7) prescription or (8) expiration.
  10. Easement is a (1) non-possessory interest that (2) .
  11. Easement by Implication is an easement based upon prior use where (1) an (2) continuous and apparent use by the common Grantor (3) use is reasonably necessary for enjoyment of the dominant tenant and (4) parties intended the use after the division of land.
  12. Easement in Gross is a type of easement which entitles an (1) individual or (2) .
  13. Benefiting covenant that runs with the land requires (1) writing (2) (3) touches and concerns the land and (4) vertical privity only.
  14. Defenses to Equitable Servitude include (1) change in neighborhood (2) estoppel (3) (4) uncleans hands doctrine or (5) laches.
  15. Easement by Necessity is an easement where access to and from the property is (1) impossible without the easement and (2) .
  16. Covenant is a promise (1) or (2) refrain from doing something related to one’s land.
  17. Equitable Servitudes are covenants that are enforced through equity against successors through injunctive relief which must (1) be in writing (2) intent (3) touches and concerns the land and (4) .
  18. Reciprocal Negative Servitude are covenants where the land is subdivided into parcels with restrictions attached that are created by (1) common plan or scheme or (2) .
  19. Easement Appurtenant is a type of easement that (1) passes automatically (2) to use the servient estates land.
  20. Profit is a non-possessory property interest entitling the holder to (1) to (2) remove resources from the land.
  21. License is a (1) revocable right to use (2) .
  22. Burdening covenant that runs with the land must (1) be in writing (2) (3) touches and concerns the land (4) and (5) .
  23. Easement by Prescription requires the use of another’s land to be (1) (2) open and notorious (3) actual and (4) .
  24. Negative Easement is created only by an express grant where the holder of the easement prevents the servient landowner from engaging in otherwise permissible actions such as (1) light (2) air (3) or (4) .
  25. Covenant terminates upon (1) (2) merger of benefited and burden estates or (3) .
  26. Easement may be terminated by (1) (2) necessity ends (3) (4) release (5) (6) merger (7) prescription or (8) .
  27. Easement is a (1) that (2) confers a right to uses another’s land.
  28. Easement by Implication is an easement based upon prior use where (1) an easement exists prior to division of land (2) use by the common Grantor (3) use is and (4) parties intended the use after the division of land.
  29. Easement in Gross is a type of easement which entitles an (1) individual or (2) .
  30. Benefiting covenant that runs with the land requires (1) (2) (3) touches and concerns the land and (4) vertical privity only.
  31. Defenses to Equitable Servitude include (1) (2) estoppel (3) (4) or (5) laches.
  32. Easement by Necessity is an easement where access to and from the property is (1) and (2) expires when the necessity ends.
  33. Covenant is a promise (1) or (2) refrain from doing something related to one’s land.
  34. Equitable Servitudes are covenants that are enforced through equity against successors through injunctive relief which must (1) (2) intent (3) touches and concerns the land and (4) .
  35. Reciprocal Negative Servitude are covenants where the land is subdivided into parcels with restrictions attached that are created by (1) or (2) .
  36. Easement Appurtenant is a type of easement that (1) (2) to use the servient estates land.
  37. Profit is a non-possessory property interest entitling the holder to (1) to (2) .
  38. License is a (1) to use (2) .
  39. Burdening covenant that runs with the land must (1) (2) (3) (4) and (5) .
  40. Easement by Prescription requires the use of another’s land to be (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  41. Negative Easement is created only by an express grant where the holder of the easement prevents the servient landowner from engaging in otherwise permissible actions such as (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  42. Covenant terminates upon (1) (2) or (3) .
  43. Easement may be terminated by (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (7) or (8) .
  44. Easement is a (1) that (2) .
  45. Easement by Implication is an easement based upon prior use where (1) an (2) use by the common Grantor (3) use is and (4) parties intended the use .
  46. Easement in Gross is a type of easement which entitles an (1) or (2) .
  47. Benefiting covenant that runs with the land requires (1) (2) (3) and (4) only.
  48. Defenses to Equitable Servitude include (1) (2) (3) (4) or (5) .
  49. Easement by Necessity is an easement where access to and from the property is (1) and (2) .
  50. Covenant is a promise (1) or (2) .
  51. Equitable Servitudes are covenants that are enforced through equity against successors through injunctive relief which must (1) (2) (3) and (4) .

Adverse Possession

0 Correct out of 2
  1. Tacking permits an adverse possessor to add the current period of possession to that of another’s prior adverse possession to establish continuous control if (1) and (2) privity between the possessors.
  2. Adverse Possession is when a trespasser acquires title to another’s property without compensation if the trespasser’s possession of the land is (1) continuous for the statutory period (2) open and notorious (3) actual and exclusive and (4) .
  3. Tacking permits an adverse possessor to add the current period of possession to that of another’s prior adverse possession to establish continuous control if (1) and (2) privity between the possessors.
  4. Adverse Possession is when a trespasser acquires title to another’s property without compensation if the trespasser’s possession of the land is (1) continuous for the statutory period (2) (3) and (4) hostile.
  5. Tacking permits an adverse possessor to add the current period of possession to that of another’s prior adverse possession to establish continuous control if (1) and (2) .
  6. Adverse Possession is when a trespasser acquires title to another’s property without compensation if the trespasser’s possession of the land is (1) (2) (3) and (4) .

Land Sale Contracts

0 Correct out of 11
  1. Contract for the Sale of Land must comply with the statute of frauds and be (1) (2) signed by the parties to be charged and (3) articulate the essential terms of the land sale.
  2. Wild Deed is a (1) recorded deed that is (2) .
  3. Equitable Conversion is the (1) transfer of real property to the Buyer (2) during the escrow process (3) .
  4. Race Statute is the (1) first grantee to record prevails regardless of (2) .
  5. General Warranty Deed is a deed that must contain all covenants including (1) seisin (2) (3) against encumbrances (4) quiet enjoyment (5) warranty and (6) further assurances.
  6. Land Sale Contract must contain (1) promise to provide marketable title (2) and (3) make no materially false statements.
  7. Bona Fide Purchaser for Value is one who purchases property for value without notice of the prior conveyance including (1) actual notice (2) inquiry notice or (3) .
  8. Race Notice Statute is the (1) first subsequent bona fide purchaser to (2) .
  9. Estoppel by Deed is (1) a Grantor who conveys title to land (2) in which the (3) cannot acquire the same land.
  10. Notice Statute is (1) the subsequent bona fide purchaser always prevails (2) .
  11. Deed is the legal title which passes from Seller to Buyer that is (1) and (2) delivered.
  12. Contract for the Sale of Land must comply with the statute of frauds and be (1) in writing (2) and (3) .
  13. Wild Deed is a (1) recorded deed that is (2) .
  14. Equitable Conversion is the (1) (2) during the escrow process (3) .
  15. Race Statute is the (1) first grantee to record prevails regardless of (2) .
  16. General Warranty Deed is a deed that must contain all covenants including (1) seisin (2) (3) (4) quiet enjoyment (5) warranty and (6) .
  17. Land Sale Contract must contain (1) promise to provide marketable title (2) and (3) .
  18. Bona Fide Purchaser for Value is one who purchases property for value without notice of the prior conveyance including (1) actual notice (2) or (3) .
  19. Race Notice Statute is the (1) first subsequent bona fide purchaser to (2) .
  20. Estoppel by Deed is (1) a (2) in which the (3) cannot acquire the same land.
  21. Notice Statute is (1) the subsequent bona fide purchaser always prevails (2) .
  22. Deed is the legal title which passes from Seller to Buyer that is (1) lawfully executed and (2) .
  23. Contract for the Sale of Land must comply with the statute of frauds and be (1) (2) and (3) .
  24. Wild Deed is a (1) that is (2) .
  25. Equitable Conversion is the (1) (2) (3) .
  26. Race Statute is the (1) of (2) .
  27. General Warranty Deed is a deed that must contain all covenants including (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) and (6) .
  28. Land Sale Contract must contain (1) (2) and (3) .
  29. Bona Fide Purchaser for Value is one who purchases property for value without notice of the prior conveyance including (1) (2) or (3) .
  30. Race Notice Statute is the (1) to (2) .
  31. Estoppel by Deed is (1) a (2) in which the (3) .
  32. Notice Statute is (1) the (2) .
  33. Deed is the legal title which passes from Seller to Buyer that is (1) and (2) .

Mortgages

0 Correct out of 2
  1. Acceleration Clause is a loan agreement that requires the (1) mortgagor to pay the full loan immediately (2) if .
  2. Purchase Money Mortgage is a (1) (2) that is used as collateral to acquire the loan for the land.
  3. Acceleration Clause is a loan agreement that requires the (1) mortgagor to pay the full loan immediately (2) if .
  4. Purchase Money Mortgage is a (1) security interest on the land (2) that is .
  5. Acceleration Clause is a loan agreement that requires the (1) (2) if .
  6. Purchase Money Mortgage is a (1) (2) that is .
  • Agency
  • Types of Partnerships
  • Liability
  • Corporations
  • LLC

Agency

0 Correct out of 10
  1. Liability of the Principal and Agent to the Third Party will depend if (1) the Agent had authority from the Principal in which the Principal is liable to the third party or (2) if the .
  2. Actual Authority is given by the Principal to the Agent in either (1) or (2) implied authority.
  3. Respondent Superior means the Principal will be liable when there is (1) an and (2) that conduct was within the scope of the employee’s employment.
  4. Principal Rights afforded to the agent are (1) (2) cooperation and (3) reimbursement.
  5. Agency Relationship is created by a Principal and an Agent when there is the presence of (1) control (2) consent or (3) .
  6. Independent Contractors are generally not liable for committing acts (1) outside the scope of employment (2) on .
  7. Apparent Authority occurs when (1) the Principal holds the agent out as having authority to act on the Principal’s behalf and (2) the .
  8. Agent Rights afforded to the principal are (1) loyalty (2) and (3) care.
  9. Ratification occurs when (1) the (2) Principal has knowledge of the facts and (3) Principal affirmed those actions.
  10. Termination of an agency relationship occurs when (1) (2) expiration or (3) purpose is fulfilled.
  11. Liability of the Principal and Agent to the Third Party will depend if (1) the in which the Principal is liable to the third party or (2) if the Agent disclosed to the Third Party the Principals identity.
  12. Actual Authority is given by the Principal to the Agent in either (1) or (2) implied authority.
  13. Respondent Superior means the Principal will be liable when there is (1) an existence of an employer-employee relationship and (2) that .
  14. Principal Rights afforded to the agent are (1) (2) and (3) reimbursement.
  15. Agency Relationship is created by a Principal and an Agent when there is the presence of (1) control (2) or (3) .
  16. Independent Contractors are generally not liable for committing acts (1) (2) on behalf of the Principal.
  17. Apparent Authority occurs when (1) the Principal holds the agent out as having authority to act on the Principal’s behalf and (2) the .
  18. Agent Rights afforded to the principal are (1) (2) and (3) care.
  19. Ratification occurs when (1) the (2) and (3) Principal affirmed those actions.
  20. Termination of an agency relationship occurs when (1) (2) or (3) purpose is fulfilled.
  21. Liability of the Principal and Agent to the Third Party will depend if (1) the in which the Principal is liable to the third party or (2) if the .
  22. Actual Authority is given by the Principal to the Agent in either (1) or (2) .
  23. Respondent Superior means the Principal will be liable when there is (1) an and (2) that .
  24. Principal Rights afforded to the agent are (1) (2) and (3) .
  25. Agency Relationship is created by a Principal and an Agent when there is the presence of (1) (2) or (3) .
  26. Independent Contractors are generally not liable for committing acts (1) (2) on .
  27. Apparent Authority occurs when (1) the and (2) the .
  28. Agent Rights afforded to the principal are (1) (2) and (3) .
  29. Ratification occurs when (1) the (2) and (3) .
  30. Termination of an agency relationship occurs when (1) (2) or (3) .

Types of Partnerships

0 Correct out of 11
  1. Limited Partnership is a partnership consisting of one or more (1) general partners and (2) a limited partner whom (3) .
  2. Partnership Books are freely available for partners to (1) and (2) copy partnership information.
  3. Dissociation is the act of any partner ceasing to be (1) and (2) carrying out the partnership business.
  4. Partnership Property consists of (1) capital contribution by each party (2) property titled in the partnership’s name (3) or (4) use of property by the partnership.
  5. Dissolution is the (1) .
  6. Proving a Partnership exists consists of (1) parties intent (2) profit sharing (3) parties control (4) or (5) the ownership of property.
  7. Contract Liability extends to all partners for (1) any contract made within the scope of the partnership and (2) .
  8. General Partnerships are an association of (1) two or more people as co-owners (2) in a .
  9. Profits and Losses of the partnership are (1) absent a written agreement and (2) transferable.
  10. Limited Liability Partnership is created by (1) and (2) filing the appropriate statement with the state.
  11. Fiduciary Duty owed by the partners to the partnership consist of (1) loyalty and (2) .
  12. Limited Partnership is a partnership consisting of one or more (1) and (2) a limited partner whom (3) .
  13. Partnership Books are freely available for partners to (1) and (2) copy partnership information.
  14. Dissociation is the act of any partner ceasing to be (1) associated and (2) .
  15. Partnership Property consists of (1) capital contribution by each party (2) (3) partnership purchases or (4) .
  16. Dissolution is the (1) .
  17. Proving a Partnership exists consists of (1) (2) (3) parties control (4) capital contributions or (5) the .
  18. Contract Liability extends to all partners for (1) and (2) any other expressly authorized contract.
  19. General Partnerships are an association of (1) (2) in a for-profit business.
  20. Profits and Losses of the partnership are (1) absent a written agreement and (2) transferable.
  21. Limited Liability Partnership is created by (1) and (2) filing the appropriate statement with the state.
  22. Fiduciary Duty owed by the partners to the partnership consist of (1) and (2) care.
  23. Limited Partnership is a partnership consisting of one or more (1) and (2) a (3) .
  24. Partnership Books are freely available for partners to (1) and (2) .
  25. Dissociation is the act of any partner ceasing to be (1) and (2) .
  26. Partnership Property consists of (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  27. Dissolution is the (1) .
  28. Proving a Partnership exists consists of (1) (2) (3) (4) or (5) the .
  29. Contract Liability extends to all partners for (1) and (2) .
  30. General Partnerships are an association of (1) (2) in a .
  31. Profits and Losses of the partnership are (1) absent a written agreement and (2) .
  32. Limited Liability Partnership is created by (1) and (2) .
  33. Fiduciary Duty owed by the partners to the partnership consist of (1) and (2) .

Liability

0 Correct out of 2
  1. Liability of each partner in a Limited Liability Partnership is (1) and (2) each partner is still liable for their own acts.
  2. Liability of a Limited Partnership consists of the general partners (1) personal and (2) .
  3. Liability of each partner in a Limited Liability Partnership is (1) limited to the partnership itself and (2) .
  4. Liability of a Limited Partnership consists of the general partners (1) and (2) jointly and several liability for all partnership obligations.
  5. Liability of each partner in a Limited Liability Partnership is (1) and (2) .
  6. Liability of a Limited Partnership consists of the general partners (1) and (2) .

Corporations

0 Correct out of 23
  1. Derivative suits are a (1) shareholders suit (2) to enforce (3) the rights of the corporation (4) when a .
  2. Shareholder Authority is the power of the shareholders to exert control over the corporation by (1) (2) drafting bylaws or (3) approve fundamental changes of the corporate structure.
  3. Dissolution of the corporation is the termination of the corporation when (1) winding up occurs (2) and (3) no new business is carried out.
  4. Direct suits are a shareholder’s pursuit of legal action towards a (1) corporation (2) or (3) a director.
  5. De Facto Corporation is a failed corporation formation where the corporation continues and will be treated as a properly formed corporation if (1) a law exists in which the corporation could become legally incorporated (2) conducted business in corporation name and (3) .
  6. Demand on the corporation for a Derivative suit must be in (1) writing (2) and (3) wait 90 days before filing suit.
  7. Meetings are conducted by the shareholders and the corporation where there are two types of meetings such as (1) annual and (2) .
  8. Proxies are (1) to (2) vote (3) in writing.
  9. Bylaws are written rules for managing the corporation and shall be enacted by (1) the or (2) board of directors.
  10. Funding for corporations derive from (1) (2) stocks or (3) a combination of and stocks.
  11. Business Judgement Rule is the court’s ability to ignore the business decision if the decision was made in (1) good faith (2) in the and (3) with the care a person in a similar position believed to appropriate under the circumstances.
  12. Article of Incorporation form a corporation when filed within the state that consist of (1) corporation name (2) incorporators (3) number of shares and (4) the .
  13. Corporation is a (1) that is (2) separate from its owners.
  14. Duty of Loyalty of the corporation is owed by (1) directors and (2) .
  15. Promoter is an individual that acts on behalf of a yet to be formed corporation to (1) raise capital (2) or (3) assist in corporate formation.
  16. Conflict of Interest is a (1) (2) of a transaction (3) with the corporation.
  17. Stocks reflect the investment in the corporation by (1) shareholders (2) .
  18. Ultra Vires are corporate acts outside the stated purpose where the consequences consist of (1) a (2) corporation suit or (3) state action.
  19. Piercing the Corporate Veil are acts done by a valid court which hold liable the (1) shareholders (2) or (3) officers for their actions or debts.
  20. Liability of the Promoter consists of (1) personally liability (2) for .
  21. Quorum is the (1) present (2) (3) eligible to vote.
  22. Debt is when a corporation (1) borrows funds from a lender and (2) .
  23. Merger is when two or more company’s combine into a single company after (1) a board vote and (2) .
  24. Derivative suits are a (1) (2) to (3) the rights of the corporation (4) when a cause of action exists by the corporation, but the corporation fails to pursue it.
  25. Shareholder Authority is the power of the shareholders to exert control over the corporation by (1) (2) or (3) approve fundamental changes of the corporate structure.
  26. Dissolution of the corporation is the termination of the corporation when (1) (2) liquidate assets and (3) .
  27. Direct suits are a shareholder’s pursuit of legal action towards a (1) (2) ’s officer or (3) a .
  28. De Facto Corporation is a failed corporation formation where the corporation continues and will be treated as a properly formed corporation if (1) a (2) and (3) good faith effort to comply with state’s incorporation laws.
  29. Demand on the corporation for a Derivative suit must be in (1) (2) demand the corporation act and (3) .
  30. Meetings are conducted by the shareholders and the corporation where there are two types of meetings such as (1) and (2) special meetings where notice is required.
  31. Proxies are (1) shareholders ability to (2) (3) .
  32. Bylaws are written rules for managing the corporation and shall be enacted by (1) the or (2) board of directors.
  33. Funding for corporations derive from (1) (2) or (3) a combination of and .
  34. Business Judgement Rule is the court’s ability to ignore the business decision if the decision was made in (1) (2) in the and (3) with the care a person in a similar position believed to appropriate under the circumstances.
  35. Article of Incorporation form a corporation when filed within the state that consist of (1) corporation name (2) (3) and (4) the registered agent.
  36. Corporation is a (1) legal entity that is (2) .
  37. Duty of Loyalty of the corporation is owed by (1) directors and (2) .
  38. Promoter is an individual that acts on behalf of a yet to be formed corporation to (1) (2) conduct corporate planning or (3) .
  39. Conflict of Interest is a (1) (2) of a (3) with the corporation.
  40. Stocks reflect the investment in the corporation by (1) (2) who become part owners of the corporation.
  41. Ultra Vires are corporate acts outside the stated purpose where the consequences consist of (1) a (2) or (3) state action.
  42. Piercing the Corporate Veil are acts done by a valid court which hold liable the (1) (2) or (3) officers for their actions or debts.
  43. Liability of the Promoter consists of (1) (2) for all contracts formed prior to corporation formation.
  44. Quorum is the (1) present (2) (3) .
  45. Debt is when a corporation (1) and (2) promises to pay the loan back.
  46. Merger is when two or more company’s combine into a single company after (1) a board vote and (2) .
  47. Derivative suits are a (1) (2) to (3) the (4) when a .
  48. Shareholder Authority is the power of the shareholders to exert control over the corporation by (1) (2) or (3) .
  49. Dissolution of the corporation is the termination of the corporation when (1) (2) and (3) .
  50. Direct suits are a shareholder’s pursuit of legal action towards a (1) (2) ’s officer or (3) a .
  51. De Facto Corporation is a failed corporation formation where the corporation continues and will be treated as a properly formed corporation if (1) a (2) and (3) .
  52. Demand on the corporation for a Derivative suit must be in (1) (2) and (3) .
  53. Meetings are conducted by the shareholders and the corporation where there are two types of meetings such as (1) and (2) .
  54. Proxies are (1) to (2) (3) .
  55. Bylaws are written rules for managing the corporation and shall be enacted by (1) the or (2) .
  56. Funding for corporations derive from (1) (2) or (3) a combination of and .
  57. Business Judgement Rule is the court’s ability to ignore the business decision if the decision was made in (1) (2) in the and (3) with the .
  58. Article of Incorporation form a corporation when filed within the state that consist of (1) (2) (3) and (4) the .
  59. Corporation is a (1) that is (2) .
  60. Duty of Loyalty of the corporation is owed by (1) and (2) .
  61. Promoter is an individual that acts on behalf of a yet to be formed corporation to (1) (2) or (3) .
  62. Conflict of Interest is a (1) s_0_0_1_6ad9d1ea32456_2" class="game-elemental" data-pid="panel_s">s_0_0_1_6ad9d1ea32456_2" type="hidden" value="personal interest" data-pid="panel_s" class="game-elemental-hidden"> (2) of a s_0_1_1_6ad9d1ea32458_10" class="game-elemental" data-pid="panel_s">s_0_1_1_6ad9d1ea32458_10" type="hidden" value="transaction" data-pid="panel_s" class="game-elemental-hidden"> (3) with the .
  63. Stocks reflect the investment in the corporation by (1) (2) .
  64. Ultra Vires are corporate acts outside the stated purpose where the consequences consist of (1) a (2) or (3) .
  65. Piercing the Corporate Veil are acts done by a valid court which hold liable the (1) (2) or (3) .
  66. Liability of the Promoter consists of (1) (2) for .
  67. Quorum is the (1) (2) (3) .
  68. Debt is when a corporation (1) and (2) .
  69. Merger is when two or more company’s combine into a single company after (1) a and (2) .

LLC

0 Correct out of 4
  1. Limited Liability Company is created when (1) (2) name of the LLC (3) address of the LLC and (4) name of registered agent.
  2. Manager Managed LLC is when only the managers owe a duty of (1) and (2) loyalty to each manager and the LLC.
  3. Good Faith and Fair Dealing is owed by all (1) members and (2) .
  4. Member Managed LLC is when all members owe a duty of (1) care and (2) .
  5. Limited Liability Company is created when (1) certificate is filed within the forum state (2) (3) and (4) name of registered agent.
  6. Manager Managed LLC is when only the managers owe a duty of (1) care and (2) .
  7. Good Faith and Fair Dealing is owed by all (1) and (2) managers of the LLC.
  8. Member Managed LLC is when all members owe a duty of (1) care and (2) .
  9. Limited Liability Company is created when (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  10. Manager Managed LLC is when only the managers owe a duty of (1) and (2) .
  11. Good Faith and Fair Dealing is owed by all (1) and (2) .
  12. Member Managed LLC is when all members owe a duty of (1) and (2) .
  • Jurisdiction
  • Marriage
  • Divorce
  • Property
  • Custody
  • Support
  • Adoption

Jurisdiction

0 Correct out of 1
  1. Jurisdiction in the forum state is established when one spouse has (1) (2) for at least 6 months.
  2. Jurisdiction in the forum state is established when one spouse has (1) (2) for at least 6 months.
  3. Jurisdiction in the forum state is established when one spouse has (1) (2) for at least .

Marriage

0 Correct out of 5
  1. Pre-Marital Agreements are legally enforceable contracts between the parties that provide distribution of the marital assets when (1) (2) voluntary and (3) full and fair disclosure.
  2. Marriage is the legal union of two individuals when (1) a license is obtained by the state and (2) .
  3. State of Mind required for marriage is (1) and (2) intent.
  4. Post-Marital Agreements are legally enforceable contracts formed after the marriage to divide the marital property if (1) voluntary (2) each spouse has adequate representation and (3) .
  5. Common Law Marriage occurs when a couple is considered legally married if (1) consent (2) holding themselves out to the public as married and (3) .
  6. Pre-Marital Agreements are legally enforceable contracts between the parties that provide distribution of the marital assets when (1) (2) voluntary and (3) .
  7. Marriage is the legal union of two individuals when (1) a license is obtained by the state and (2) .
  8. State of Mind required for marriage is (1) and (2) intent.
  9. Post-Marital Agreements are legally enforceable contracts formed after the marriage to divide the marital property if (1) (2) each spouse has adequate representation and (3) .
  10. Common Law Marriage occurs when a couple is considered legally married if (1) (2) and (3) cohabitation.
  11. Pre-Marital Agreements are legally enforceable contracts between the parties that provide distribution of the marital assets when (1) (2) and (3) .
  12. Marriage is the legal union of two individuals when (1) a and (2) .
  13. State of Mind required for marriage is (1) and (2) .
  14. Post-Marital Agreements are legally enforceable contracts formed after the marriage to divide the marital property if (1) (2) and (3) .
  15. Common Law Marriage occurs when a couple is considered legally married if (1) (2) and (3) .

Divorce

0 Correct out of 2
  1. Annulment is a judicial declaration that a marriage was void and never valid if due to (1) bigamy or polygamy (2) (3) consanguinity or (4) age.
  2. Divorce is a decree that terminates the marriage when (1) (2) living separate and apart for more than 6 months or (3) incompatible.
  3. Annulment is a judicial declaration that a marri was void and never valid if due to (1) bigamy or polygamy (2) (3) consanguinity or (4) .
  4. Divorce is a decree that terminates the marriage when (1) (2) living separate and apart for more than 6 months or (3) .
  5. Annulment is a judicial declaration that a marri was void and never valid if due to (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  6. Divorce is a decree that terminates the marriage when (1) (2) or (3) .

Property

0 Correct out of 4
  1. Property that is acquired during the marriage is presumed to be marital property unless (1) owned prior to the marriage and kept separate (2) or (3) passive income from separate property.
  2. Community Property is property (1) (2) will be split fairly between the spouses.
  3. Comingled property is (1) separate property (2) that is and (3) becomes martial property.
  4. Equitable Division of Property refers to the courts process of dividing (1) and (2) the property acquired during the marriage on an equitable basis.
  5. Property that is acquired during the marriage is presumed to be marital property unless (1) owned prior to the marriage and kept separate (2) or (3) .
  6. Community Property is property (1) acquired during the marriage (2) .
  7. Comingled property is (1) separate property (2) that is and (3) .
  8. Equitable Division of Property refers to the courts process of dividing (1) separate property and (2) the .
  9. Property that is acquired during the marriage is presumed to be marital property unless (1) (2) or (3) .
  10. Community Property is property (1) (2) .
  11. Comingled property is (1) (2) that is and (3) .
  12. Equitable Division of Property refers to the courts process of dividing (1) and (2) the .

Custody

0 Correct out of 1
  1. Custody is the primary standard of care to determine to all (1) (2) time sharing and (3) support is in the best interest of the child.
  2. Custody is the primary standard of care to determine to all (1) parenting (2) and (3) .
  3. Custody is the primary standard of care to determine to all (1) (2) and (3) .

Support

0 Correct out of 3
  1. Child Support is the duty of (1) both parents (2) to (3) until at least 18 years of age (4) unless dependent is mentally or physically handicapped.
  2. Spousal Support is the support of one spouse by another spouse in the form of (1) pendente lite (2) (3) rehabilitative (4) durational or (5) permanent alimony.
  3. Modification of support must show (1) a substantial (2) material (3) .
  4. Child Support is the duty of (1) (2) to support their child (3) until at least 18 years of age (4) unless .
  5. Spousal Support is the support of one spouse by another spouse in the form of (1) (2) (3) rehabilitative (4) or (5) permanent alimony.
  6. Modification of support must show (1) a (2) (3) unanticipated change of circumstances.
  7. Child Support is the duty of (1) (2) to (3) until at (4) unless .
  8. Spousal Support is the support of one spouse by another spouse in the form of (1) (2) (3) (4) or (5) .
  9. Modification of support must show (1) a (2) (3) .

Adoption

0 Correct out of 1
  1. Adoption requires the (1) and (2) terminates the legal relationship between the parent and child.
  2. Adoption requires the (1) consent to of both biological parents and (2) .
  3. Adoption requires the (1) and (2) .
  • Will Trusts and Estates

Will Trusts and Estates

0 Correct out of 28
  1. Ademption is the gift of (1) specific property (2) that is .
  2. Advancements are a (1) or (2) decedents life (3) with the intent that the gift be applied to any share the party would receive.
  3. Contesting a will requires an (1) individual with (2) a .
  4. Slayer Statute is one who (1) kills their spouse (2) .
  5. Abatement is when the estates value is (1) and (2) must reduce gifts to satisfy those obligations.
  6. Incorporation by Reference are documents that are not part of the will may be incorporated when (1) (2) document is authenticated and (3) document existed.
  7. Revival is the act of (1) revoking the instrument that (2) revoked the will (3) thus .
  8. Resulting Trust is a (1) (2) resulting in a trust implied by law.
  9. Wills are the instrument that directs the distribution of property of the decedent and shall (1) be in writing (2) and (3) signed by at least two witnesses.
  10. Revocation is the act of the testator to revoke the will at any time by (1) revocation evidenced in writing (2) revocation by physical act or (3) .
  11. Trust is a fiduciary relationship in which (1) one party (2) holds legal title to property (3) for .
  12. Trustees Duties consist of a duty to (1) administer (2) loyalty (3) report (4) (5) protect the trust and (6) preserve property.
  13. Integration is when separate documents become integrated in the will when (1) the documents were present at the time of the will’s execution and (2) .
  14. Trust requires the settlor to have (1) capacity (2) (3) definite beneficiary (4) named competent trustee (5) clear disposition of settlor’s specific property and (6) valid purpose of the trust.
  15. Adopted Children are treated (1) the same as a natural child (2) for .
  16. Capacity is required for a will to be valid at the time of execution when (1) the individual is over the age of 18 (2) they understand the act of the will (3) the property to be disposed (4) the and (5) the nature of the disposition in a common scheme.
  17. Codicils are (1) (2) amendments or (3) modifications to an already existing will that meet the will requirements.
  18. Disclaimer is the act of (1) one party (2) in (3) the decedent’s estate that would have passed to the other party.
  19. Attestation Clause is a clause (1) immediately preceding the will and (2) above the signatures (3) that .
  20. Undue Influence occurs when (1) influence was placed on the testator (2) the and (3) the testator’s will would not have been executed but for the undue influence.
  21. Fraud occurs when the testator was (1) intentionally deceived and (2) the .
  22. Constructive Trust is an (1) equitable remedy (2) to .
  23. Intestate Succession is the (1) (2) of the decedent (3) without a will.
  24. Holographic Wills are handwritten wills that must (1) be in the (2) reflect the intent to make a will and (3) signed by the Testator.
  25. Testamentary Intent is the (1) of the (2) individual that this is their will.
  26. Simultaneous Death means one spouse cannot take as heir to the beneficiary unless the spouse survives the decedent with (1) sufficient evidence one spouse died first or (2) there is .
  27. Intervivos Gift is a gift given by a living person to another with (1) intent (2) and (3) acceptance.
  28. Pretermitted Children are (1) children born or (2) .
  29. Ademption is the gift of (1) (2) that is no longer available in the estate.
  30. Advancements are a (1) or (2) (3) with the intent that the gift be applied to any share the party would receive.
  31. Contesting a will requires an (1) individual with (2) a .
  32. Slayer Statute is one who (1) kills their spouse (2) .
  33. Abatement is when the estates value is (1) and (2) must reduce gifts to satisfy those obligations.
  34. Incorporation by Reference are documents that are not part of the will may be incorporated when (1) Testator’s intent to incorporate (2) and (3) .
  35. Revival is the act of (1) revoking the instrument that (2) (3) thus .
  36. Resulting Trust is a (1) failed express trust (2) .
  37. Wills are the instrument that directs the distribution of property of the decedent and shall (1) be in (2) and (3) signed by at least two witnesses.
  38. Revocation is the act of the testator to revoke the will at any time by (1) (2) revocation by physical act or (3) .
  39. Trust is a fiduciary relationship in which (1) (2) (3) for benefit of designated beneficiaries.
  40. Trustees Duties consist of a duty to (1) (2) loyalty (3) (4) (5) protect the trust and (6) preserve property.
  41. Integration is when separate documents become integrated in the will when (1) the and (2) intent of the Testator to be included.
  42. Trust requires the settlor to have (1) (2) (3) definite beneficiary (4) named competent trustee (5) clear disposition of settlor’s specific property and (6) .
  43. Adopted Children are treated (1) the same as a natural child (2) for .
  44. Capacity is required for a will to be valid at the time of execution when (1) the individual is over the age of 18 (2) they (3) the (4) the and (5) the nature of the disposition in a common scheme.
  45. Codicils are (1) (2) amendments or (3) .
  46. Disclaimer is the act of (1) (2) disclaiming the party’s interest in (3) the .
  47. Attestation Clause is a clause (1) and (2) above the signatures (3) that .
  48. Undue Influence occurs when (1) (2) the and (3) the testator’s will would not have been executed but for the undue influence.
  49. Fraud occurs when the testator was (1) and (2) the testator relied upon those misrepresentations.
  50. Constructive Trust is an (1) (2) to rectify unjust enrichment.
  51. Intestate Succession is the (1) (2) of the decedent (3) .
  52. Holographic Wills are handwritten wills that must (1) be in the (2) and (3) signed by the Testator.
  53. Testamentary Intent is the (1) of the (2) individual that this is their will.
  54. Simultaneous Death means one spouse cannot take as heir to the beneficiary unless the spouse survives the decedent with (1) or (2) there is clear evidence the spouse survived more than 120 hours than the other spouse.
  55. Intervivos Gift is a gift given by a living person to another with (1) intent (2) and (3) .
  56. Pretermitted Children are (1) or (2) adopted after the will was executed.
  57. Ademption is the gift of (1) (2) that is .
  58. Advancements are a (1) or (2) (3) with the .
  59. Contesting a will requires an (1) with (2) a .
  60. Slayer Statute is one who (1) (2) .
  61. Abatement is when the estates value is (1) and (2) .
  62. Incorporation by Reference are documents that are not part of the will may be incorporated when (1) (2) and (3) .
  63. Revival is the act of (1) that (2) (3) thus .
  64. Resulting Trust is a (1) (2) .
  65. Wills are the instrument that directs the distribution of property of the decedent and shall (1) be in (2) and (3) .
  66. Revocation is the act of the testator to revoke the will at any time by (1) (2) or (3) .
  67. Trust is a fiduciary relationship in which (1) (2) (3) for .
  68. Trustees Duties consist of a duty to (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) and (6) .
  69. Integration is when separate documents become integrated in the will when (1) the and (2) .
  70. Trust requires the settlor to have (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) and (6) .
  71. Adopted Children are treated (1) (2) for .
  72. Capacity is required for a will to be valid at the time of execution when (1) the (2) they (3) the (4) the and (5) the .
  73. Codicils are (1) (2) or (3) .
  74. Disclaimer is the act of (1) (2) in (3) the .
  75. Attestation Clause is a clause (1) and (2) (3) that .
  76. Undue Influence occurs when (1) (2) the and (3) the .
  77. Fraud occurs when the testator was (1) and (2) the .
  78. Constructive Trust is an (1) (2) to .
  79. Intestate Succession is the (1) (2) of the (3) .
  80. Holographic Wills are handwritten wills that must (1) be in the (2) and (3) .
  81. Testamentary Intent is the (1) of the (2) .
  82. Simultaneous Death means one spouse cannot take as heir to the beneficiary unless the spouse survives the decedent with (1) or (2) there is .
  83. Intervivos Gift is a gift given by a living person to another with (1) (2) and (3) .
  84. Pretermitted Children are (1) or (2) .
  • Secured Transactions

Secured Transactions

0 Correct out of 15
  1. Security Interests can be created by (1) (2) control or (3) a security agreement.
  2. UCC Financing Statement is a (1) (2) with the correct spelling of the debtor’s name (3) the creditor’s name and (4) description of the collateral.
  3. Collateral is property that is subject to (1) a security interest or (2) .
  4. Attachment allows the (1) creditor to enforce the security interest (2) against the debtor when (3) the .
  5. Rights on Default arises when the debtor fails to fulfill their obligations to the creditor causing (1) collections (2) repossession (3) (4) redemption of (5) strict foreclosure.
  6. Perfection is (1) notice to third parties of (2) the .
  7. Priority is where the (1) creditor stands against other (2) in (3) the collateral.
  8. Fixture Filing is a financing statement filed (1) in the county where the property is located (2) which the .
  9. Security Agreement shall contain (1) value of the collateral (2) signed by the debtor and (3) .
  10. Certificate of Title is a notation on the title document that applies to (1) or (2) goods that are subject to title.
  11. Secured Transaction is governed by UCC Article 9 when intended to create a security interest in (1) or (2) fixtures.
  12. Fixture is when personal property has become so affixed into (1) the real estate that (2) .
  13. Accessions are goods that are (1) (2) other goods.
  14. Purchase-Money Security Interest is a (1) in (2) the purchase-money collateral that (3) was purchased in part by the debtor with funds given to create the .
  15. After Acquired Property is property to be owned by the debtor in the future which allows the secured party to have an interest in (1) and (2) future property.
  16. Security Interests can be created by (1) possession (2) or (3) a .
  17. UCC Financing Statement is a (1) written authenticated record of the debtor (2) with the correct spelling of the debtor’s name (3) the and (4) .
  18. Collateral is property that is subject to (1) a or (2) agricultural lien.
  19. Attachment allows the (1) creditor to enforce the security interest (2) when (3) the .
  20. Rights on Default arises when the debtor fails to fulfill their obligations to the creditor causing (1) collections (2) (3) (4) of (5) strict foreclosure.
  21. Perfection is (1) of (2) the secured party’s interest in the collateral.
  22. Priority is where the (1) (2) in (3) the collateral.
  23. Fixture Filing is a financing statement filed (1) in the (2) which the fixture was attached to the real property.
  24. Security Agreement shall contain (1) (2) and (3) rights in the described collateral.
  25. Certificate of Title is a notation on the title document that applies to (1) cars excluding inventory or (2) .
  26. Secured Transaction is governed by UCC Article 9 when intended to create a security interest in (1) personal property or (2) .
  27. Fixture is when personal property has become so affixed into (1) the real estate that (2) .
  28. Accessions are goods that are (1) (2) other goods.
  29. Purchase-Money Security Interest is a (1) in (2) the that (3) was purchased in part by the debtor with funds given to create the .
  30. After Acquired Property is property to be owned by the debtor in the future which allows the secured party to have an interest in (1) and (2) future property.
  31. Security Interests can be created by (1) (2) or (3) a .
  32. UCC Financing Statement is a (1) (2) (3) the and (4) .
  33. Collateral is property that is subject to (1) a or (2) .
  34. Attachment allows the (1) (2) when (3) the .
  35. Rights on Default arises when the debtor fails to fulfill their obligations to the creditor causing (1) (2) (3) (4) of (5) .
  36. Perfection is (1) of (2) the .
  37. Priority is where the (1) (2) in (3) the .
  38. Fixture Filing is a financing statement filed (1) in the (2) which the .
  39. Security Agreement shall contain (1) (2) and (3) .
  40. Certificate of Title is a notation on the title document that applies to (1) or (2) .
  41. Secured Transaction is governed by UCC Article 9 when intended to create a security interest in (1) or (2) .
  42. Fixture is when personal property has become so affixed into (1) the that (2) it becomes part of the .
  43. Accessions are goods that are (1) (2) .
  44. Purchase-Money Security Interest is a (1) in (2) the that (3) was purchased in part by the debtor with funds given to create the .
  45. After Acquired Property is property to be owned by the debtor in the future which allows the secured party to have an interest in (1) and (2) .

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