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Blank is a game where users receive a partial rule statement, and they have to type in the missing words or phrases.

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  • Contract Basics
  • Contract Formation
  • Defenses
  • Terms
  • UCC
  • Common Law Performance
  • Nonperformance Excuses
  • Changes to Contract Terms
  • Third Party
  • Damages

Contract Basics

0 Correct out of 7
  1. Offer is a (1) clear (2) objective manifestation of (3) .
  2. Statute of Frauds requires certain contracts to be in writing which include (1) marriage (2) performance longer than a year (3) land (4) (5) goods over $500 and (6) suretyship.
  3. Acceptance is a (1) (2) to the contract terms.
  4. Incapacity applies to (1) and (2) mentally incompetent individuals who lack the capacity to contract.
  5. Consideration is a (1) bargained for exchange of (2) (3) between the parties.
  6. Applicable law for all contracts is governed by either (1) Common Law or (2) .
  7. Contract is an (1) offer (2) (3) consideration and (4) no defenses.
  8. Offer is a (1) (2) of (3) present intent to contract.
  9. Statute of Frauds requires certain contracts to be in writing which include (1) (2) performance longer than a year (3) (4) (5) goods over $500 and (6) suretyship.
  10. Acceptance is a (1) clear expression of assent (2) .
  11. Incapacity applies to (1) infants and (2) who lack the capacity to contract.
  12. Consideration is a (1) (2) legal value (3) .
  13. Applicable law for all contracts is governed by either (1) Common Law or (2) .
  14. Contract is an (1) (2) acceptance (3) and (4) no defenses.
  15. Offer is a (1) (2) of (3) .
  16. Statute of Frauds requires certain contracts to be in writing which include (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) and (6) .
  17. Acceptance is a (1) (2) .
  18. Incapacity applies to (1) and (2) who lack the capacity to contract.
  19. Consideration is a (1) (2) (3) .
  20. Applicable law for all contracts is governed by either (1) or (2) .
  21. Contract is an (1) (2) (3) and (4) .

Contract Formation

0 Correct out of 7
  1. Acceptance by Performance occurs when the (1) or (2) offeror has knowledge that offeree has begun performance.
  2. Mailbox Rule is (1) acceptance of the contract terms (2) upon dispatch and (3) .
  3. Rejection occurs when there is (1) an express rejection (2) a counteroffer (3) a or (4) acceptance with additional terms.
  4. Acceptance by Shipment occurs when the individual (1) promises to ship goods or (2) .
  5. Offer Terminates upon (1) revocation by offeror (2) rejection by offeree or (3) .
  6. Revocation consists of (1) or (2) offeree becomes aware of the offeror’s unambiguous conduct.
  7. Irrevocable Offer is (1) (2) a UCC firm offer or (3) detrimental reliance.
  8. Acceptance by Performance occurs when the (1) or (2) offeror has knowledge that offeree has begun performance.
  9. Mailbox Rule is (1) (2) upon dispatch and (3) .
  10. Rejection occurs when there is (1) (2) a (3) a conditional acceptance or (4) acceptance with additional terms.
  11. Acceptance by Shipment occurs when the individual (1) or (2) promptly ship goods.
  12. Offer Terminates upon (1) revocation by offeror (2) or (3) .
  13. Revocation consists of (1) an unambiguous statement by the offeror to the offeree or (2) .
  14. Irrevocable Offer is (1) an options contract (2) a or (3) .
  15. Acceptance by Performance occurs when the (1) or (2) .
  16. Mailbox Rule is (1) (2) and (3) .
  17. Rejection occurs when there is (1) (2) a (3) a or (4) .
  18. Acceptance by Shipment occurs when the individual (1) or (2) .
  19. Offer Terminates upon (1) (2) or (3) .
  20. Revocation consists of (1) or (2) .
  21. Irrevocable Offer is (1) (2) a or (3) .

Defenses

0 Correct out of 7
  1. Duress is a (1) (2) which overcomes the party’s free will.
  2. Fraud is a (1) false assertion of (2) a (3) prior to contract formation or performance.
  3. Promissory Estoppel occurs when (1) a promisor expects reliance (2) detrimental reliance occurs and (3) .
  4. Satisfying Statute of Frauds occurs when either (1) a or (2) part performance.
  5. Illusory Promise is a (1) promise and (2) .
  6. Undue Influence is a (1) (2) under excessive pressure (3) by an individual susceptible to pressure.
  7. A Mistake occurs when (1) both parties are (2) (3) a factual assumption of the contract (4) at time of contract formation.
  8. Duress is a (1) (2) which overcomes the party’s free will.
  9. Fraud is a (1) false assertion of (2) a (3) .
  10. Promissory Estoppel occurs when (1) a promisor expects reliance (2) and (3) .
  11. Satisfying Statute of Frauds occurs when either (1) a or (2) part performance.
  12. Illusory Promise is a (1) and (2) no obligation to perform.
  13. Undue Influence is a (1) contract entered (2) (3) .
  14. A Mistake occurs when (1) (2) mistaken to (3) a (4) at time of contract formation.
  15. Duress is a (1) (2) .
  16. Fraud is a (1) (2) a (3) .
  17. Promissory Estoppel occurs when (1) a (2) and (3) .
  18. Satisfying Statute of Frauds occurs when either (1) a or (2) .
  19. Illusory Promise is a (1) and (2) .
  20. Undue Influence is a (1) (2) (3) .
  21. A Mistake occurs when (1) (2) (3) a (4) .

Terms

0 Correct out of 3
  1. Risk of Loss occurs when (1) shipment by common carrier upon dispatch (2) a non-carrier merchant sells to buyer and takes physical possession or (3) a .
  2. Warranties consists of (1) express warranty (2) and (3) implied warranty for a particular purpose.
  3. The Parole Evidence Rule is extrinsic evidence to a written contract is inadmissible to (1) or (2) contradict the written contract.
  4. Risk of Loss occurs when (1) shipment by common carrier upon dispatch (2) a or (3) a .
  5. Warranties consists of (1) express warranty (2) and (3) .
  6. The Parole Evidence Rule is extrinsic evidence to a written contract is inadmissible to (1) supplement or (2) .
  7. Risk of Loss occurs when (1) (2) a or (3) a .
  8. Warranties consists of (1) (2) and (3) .
  9. The Parole Evidence Rule is extrinsic evidence to a written contract is inadmissible to (1) or (2) .

UCC

0 Correct out of 4
  1. Buyers Options regarding delivery consist of (1) accept in part (2) reject in part (3) accept in whole or (4) .
  2. Installment Contract is (1) delivery (2) .
  3. Right to Cure delivery occurs when (1) (2) seller gives buyer notice of intent to cure and (3) time for performance has not yet expired.
  4. Perfect Tender are (1) goods must be delivered (2) (3) with respect to their manner of delivery.
  5. Buyers Options regarding delivery consist of (1) (2) reject in part (3) or (4) reject in whole.
  6. Installment Contract is (1) delivery (2) .
  7. Right to Cure delivery occurs when (1) (2) and (3) time for performance has not yet expired.
  8. Perfect Tender are (1) (2) in perfect tender (3) .
  9. Buyers Options regarding delivery consist of (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  10. Installment Contract is (1) (2) .
  11. Right to Cure delivery occurs when (1) (2) and (3) .
  12. Perfect Tender are (1) (2) (3) .

Common Law Performance

0 Correct out of 2
  1. Substantial Performance occurs when (1) (2) where the other party is obligated to perform or complete their performance.
  2. Material Breach is a (1) substantial benefit incurred to one party (2) .
  3. Substantial Performance occurs when (1) one party has substantially performed (2) .
  4. Material Breach is a (1) substantial benefit incurred to one party (2) .
  5. Substantial Performance occurs when (1) (2) .
  6. Material Breach is a (1) (2) .

Nonperformance Excuses

0 Correct out of 6
  1. Conditions are either (1) precedent or (2) .
  2. Anticipatory Repudiation is a (1) clear (2) unambiguous act (3) .
  3. Frustration of Purpose is an (1) which (2) destroys the purpose of the contract where (3) the event is not the fault of the parties.
  4. Impossibility is (1) (2) objectively impossible.
  5. At-will-employment is an (1) (2) that can be terminated by either party (3) at any time.
  6. Impracticability is (1) performance is (2) (3) with extreme and unreasonable difficulty or expense.
  7. Conditions are either (1) precedent or (2) .
  8. Anticipatory Repudiation is a (1) (2) (3) the party will not perform the contract.
  9. Frustration of Purpose is an (1) which (2) destroys the purpose of the contract where (3) the .
  10. Impossibility is (1) (2) objectively impossible.
  11. At-will-employment is an (1) agreement (2) (3) .
  12. Impracticability is (1) performance is (2) (3) .
  13. Conditions are either (1) or (2) .
  14. Anticipatory Repudiation is a (1) (2) (3) .
  15. Frustration of Purpose is an (1) which (2) where (3) the .
  16. Impossibility is (1) (2) .
  17. At-will-employment is an (1) (2) (3) .
  18. Impracticability is (1) is (2) (3) .

Changes to Contract Terms

0 Correct out of 2
  1. Novation is when (1) existing parties to a contract (2) (3) to perform the contract.
  2. Modification occurs when (1) (2) alter the original contract terms where (3) mutual assent and (4) consideration is now required.
  3. Novation is when (1) existing parties to a contract (2) (3) .
  4. Modification occurs when (1) (2) alter the original contract terms where (3) mutual assent and (4) .
  5. Novation is when (1) (2) (3) .
  6. Modification occurs when (1) (2) (3) and (4) .

Third Party

0 Correct out of 3
  1. Incidental Beneficiaries are (1) parties of the contract (2) did not intend (3) .
  2. Intended Beneficiaries are (1) (2) intended the third party (3) to benefit from the contract.
  3. Third Party Rights Vest when the third party (1) learns of and assents (2) learns of and or (3) learns of and relies upon the contract.
  4. Incidental Beneficiaries are (1) (2) (3) for the third party to benefit from the contract.
  5. Intended Beneficiaries are (1) (2) intended the third party (3) .
  6. Third Party Rights Vest when the third party (1) learns of and (2) learns of and or (3) learns of and relies upon the contract.
  7. Incidental Beneficiaries are (1) (2) (3) .
  8. Intended Beneficiaries are (1) (2) (3) .
  9. Third Party Rights Vest when the third party (1) learns of and (2) learns of and or (3) learns of and .

Damages

0 Correct out of 5
  1. Incidental damages are (1) unforeseeable (2) commercially reasonable expenses (3) .
  2. Liquidated Damages are an agreed upon amount of damages which (1) occur prior to contract formation and (2) .
  3. Consequential Damages are (1) foreseeable losses (2) .
  4. Specific Performance are (1) damages that are not personal services in which involve (2) land or (3) that money cannot compensate for.
  5. Expectation Damages are the standard measure of money damages that (1) put the non-breaching party in a (2) .
  6. Incidental damages are (1) (2) (3) which flow from the breach of the contract.
  7. Liquidated Damages are an agreed upon amount of damages which (1) and (2) reasonable.
  8. Consequential Damages are (1) foreseeable losses (2) .
  9. Specific Performance are (1) damages that are not personal services in which involve (2) or (3) that money cannot compensate for.
  10. Expectation Damages are the standard measure of money damages that (1) in a (2) economic position had the party completed the contract.
  11. Incidental damages are (1) (2) (3) .
  12. Liquidated Damages are an agreed upon amount of damages which (1) and (2) .
  13. Consequential Damages are (1) (2) .
  14. Specific Performance are (1) in which involve (2) or (3) that money cannot compensate for.
  15. Expectation Damages are the standard measure of money damages that (1) in a (2) .
  • Relevance
  • Character Evidence
  • Impeachment
  • Testimonial Evidence
  • Testimonial Privilege
  • Evidence
  • Hearsay
  • Confrontation Clause

Relevance

0 Correct out of 8
  1. Liability Insurance is generally not admissible to (1) or (2) a party’s ability to pay damages unless (3) it is used to prove ownership.
  2. Relevant evidence (401) is evidence that (1) makes a fact (2) more or less probable (3) .
  3. Probative value (403) is the exclusion of relevant evidence if (1) the probative value is (2) substantially outweighed by (3) .
  4. Subsequent Remedial Measures taken after an injury or event are inadmissible to prove (1) fault (2) defect or (3) .
  5. Relevant evidence based on public policy grounds may be excluded if it involves (1) liability insurance (2) (3) settlements or (4) payments or offers to pay medical expenses.
  6. Evidentiary Hearings are (1) a (2) conducted outside the presence of the jury.
  7. Excluded evidence (402) is evidence that is excluded if it is barred by (1) the United States Constitution (2) a federal statute (3) the or (4) any other rule established by the Supreme Court of the United States.
  8. Unfair Prejudice consist of (1) confusion of issues (2) (3) undue delay or waste of time or (4) presenting duplicative evidence.
  9. Liability Insurance is generally not admissible to (1) prove fault or (2) a unless (3) .
  10. Relevant evidence (401) is evidence that (1) (2) (3) than it would be without the evidence.
  11. Probative value (403) is the exclusion of relevant evidence if (1) the is (2) (3) the danger of unfair prejudice.
  12. Subsequent Remedial Measures taken after an injury or event are inadmissible to prove (1) (2) or (3) an inadequate warning.
  13. Relevant evidence based on public policy grounds may be excluded if it involves (1) (2) subsequent remedial measures (3) or (4) payments or offers to pay medical expenses.
  14. Evidentiary Hearings are (1) a (2) conducted outside the presence of the jury.
  15. Excluded evidence (402) is evidence that is excluded if it is barred by (1) the (2) a (3) the Federal Rules of Evidence or (4) any other rule established by the Supreme Court of the United States.
  16. Unfair Prejudice consist of (1) (2) (3) undue delay or waste of time or (4) presenting duplicative evidence.
  17. Liability Insurance is generally not admissible to (1) or (2) a unless (3) .
  18. Relevant evidence (401) is evidence that (1) (2) (3) .
  19. Probative value (403) is the exclusion of relevant evidence if (1) the is (2) (3) .
  20. Subsequent Remedial Measures taken after an injury or event are inadmissible to prove (1) (2) or (3) .
  21. Relevant evidence based on public policy grounds may be excluded if it involves (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  22. Evidentiary Hearings are (1) a (2) .
  23. Excluded evidence (402) is evidence that is excluded if it is barred by (1) the (2) a (3) the or (4) .
  24. Unfair Prejudice consist of (1) (2) (3) or (4) .

Character Evidence

0 Correct out of 7
  1. In Civil Sexual Assault Cases Victim’s character evidence is admissible by reputation, opinion, and specific instances of conduct if (1) the or (2) the victim puts their reputation at issue.
  2. In Criminal Sexual Assault cases reputation or opinion evidence is inadmissible unless (1) or (2) a third party is the source of the DNA or injury.
  3. Use of Sexual Assault Evidence must (1) (2) describe the evidence’s purpose and (3) notify the victim 14 days prior to trial.
  4. Character Evidence is generally inadmissible; however, is admissible to prove (1) motive (2) intent (3) mistake or lack of mistake (4) or (5) common plan or scheme.
  5. Victim’s character evidence can only be introduced by (1) the (2) rebutted by the prosecution.
  6. Prosecution may not initiate character evidence of the Defendant unless (1) or (2) if the Defendant first offers evidence of the victim’s character.
  7. In Homicide Cases Defendant may raise self-defense and offer evidence showing (1) (2) the victim attacked first.
  8. In Civil Sexual Assault Cases Victim’s character evidence is admissible by reputation, opinion, and specific instances of conduct if (1) the probative value is substantially outweighed by the danger of unfair prejudice or (2) the .
  9. In Criminal Sexual Assault cases reputation or opinion evidence is inadmissible unless (1) or (2) a third party is the source of the DNA or injury.
  10. Use of Sexual Assault Evidence must (1) (2) and (3) notify the victim 14 days prior to trial.
  11. Character Evidence is generally inadmissible; however, is admissible to prove (1) (2) (3) mistake or lack of mistake (4) or (5) common plan or scheme.
  12. Victim’s character evidence can only be introduced by (1) the (2) rebutted by the prosecution.
  13. Prosecution may not initiate character evidence of the Defendant unless (1) sexual assault or (2) .
  14. In Homicide Cases Defendant may raise self-defense and offer evidence showing (1) victim’s violent character reflects (2) the .
  15. In Civil Sexual Assault Cases Victim’s character evidence is admissible by reputation, opinion, and specific instances of conduct if (1) the or (2) the .
  16. In Criminal Sexual Assault cases reputation or opinion evidence is inadmissible unless (1) or (2) a .
  17. Use of Sexual Assault Evidence must (1) (2) and (3) .
  18. Character Evidence is generally inadmissible; however, is admissible to prove (1) (2) (3) (4) or (5) .
  19. Victim’s character evidence can only be introduced by (1) the (2) .
  20. Prosecution may not initiate character evidence of the Defendant unless (1) or (2) .
  21. In Homicide Cases Defendant may raise self-defense and offer evidence showing (1) (2) the .

Impeachment

0 Correct out of 3
  1. Impeachment is an adverse reflection on the veracity of the witnesses testimony shown by (1) contradiction (2) prior inconsistent statements (3) (4) interest (5) reputation or (6) prior acts of misconduct.
  2. Collateral Issues are a (1) (2) the issues in the case.
  3. Extrinsic Evidence is evidence that challenges the (1) credibility of the witness used to (2) .
  4. Impeachment is an adverse reflection on the veracity of the witnesses testimony shown by (1) (2) (3) (4) interest (5) reputation or (6) prior acts of misconduct.
  5. Collateral Issues are a (1) fact not relevant to (2) .
  6. Extrinsic Evidence is evidence that challenges the (1) (2) impeach the witness.
  7. Impeachment is an adverse reflection on the veracity of the witnesses testimony shown by (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) or (6) .
  8. Collateral Issues are a (1) (2) .
  9. Extrinsic Evidence is evidence that challenges the (1) (2) .

Testimonial Evidence

0 Correct out of 7
  1. Present Recollection Refreshed involves using documents to refresh the witness’s memory which requires (1) the (2) inspection of the document by the opposing party (3) not read into evidence and (4) the adverse party has the chance to enter it into evidence.
  2. Competency of a witness requires the witness has (1) personal knowledge (2) memory (3) communication and (4) .
  3. Objection to questions occurs when the question (1) (2) leading (3) augmentative or (4) are or beyond the scope of direct.
  4. Daubert Test are scientific evidence based upon (1) testing (2) rate of error (3) acceptance of others in the field and (4) .
  5. Expert Opinion testimony may be given if (1) helpful (2) qualified (3) provided with reasonable certainty (4) a proper factual basis formed and (4) .
  6. Past Recorded Recollection are contents of a record or document that was previously adopted or read into evidence in which (1) witness had knowledge of the subject matter at issue (2) (3) the record was made or adopted by the witness when it was fresh in their memory and (4) the record accurately reflects witness’s knowledge.
  7. Lay Opinion testimony is admissible if it is based upon (1) perception (2) rationally based (3) and (4) not an expert.
  8. Present Recollection Refreshed involves using documents to refresh the witness’s memory which requires (1) the witness to not read aloud from the document (2) (3) not read into evidence and (4) .
  9. Competency of a witness requires the witness has (1) personal knowledge (2) (3) communication and (4) .
  10. Objection to questions occurs when the question (1) (2) (3) augmentative or (4) are or beyond the scope of direct.
  11. Daubert Test are scientific evidence based upon (1) testing (2) rate of error (3) and (4) .
  12. Expert Opinion testimony may be given if (1) helpful (2) (3) (4) a proper factual basis formed and (4) .
  13. Past Recorded Recollection are contents of a record or document that was previously adopted or read into evidence in which (1) witness had knowledge of the subject matter at issue (2) (3) the record was made or adopted by the witness when it was fresh in their memory and (4) .
  14. Lay Opinion testimony is admissible if it is based upon (1) (2) rationally based (3) and (4) not an expert.
  15. Present Recollection Refreshed involves using documents to refresh the witness’s memory which requires (1) the (2) (3) and (4) .
  16. Competency of a witness requires the witness has (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  17. Objection to questions occurs when the question (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  18. Daubert Test are scientific evidence based upon (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  19. Expert Opinion testimony may be given if (1) (2) (3) (4) a and (4) .
  20. Past Recorded Recollection are contents of a record or document that was previously adopted or read into evidence in which (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  21. Lay Opinion testimony is admissible if it is based upon (1) (2) (3) and (4) .

Testimonial Privilege

0 Correct out of 4
  1. Attorney-Client Privilege protects communications between an attorney and a client if (1) and (2) made to facilitate the provision of legal services.
  2. Spousal Communication privilege applies to communication between spouses who were (1) married at the time of the trial (2) is limited to criminal cases (3) and (4) can only be invoked by the witness spouse.
  3. Marital Communication privilege pertains to communication between spouses (1) made during the marriage (2) can be invoked by either spouse (3) and (4) survives divorce.
  4. Testimonial Privilege is a privilege that is protected by the Federal Rules of Evidence which include (1) attorney client (2) spousal privilege or marital communications (3) or (4) doctor patient if recognized in the forum state.
  5. Attorney-Client Privilege protects communications between an attorney and a client if (1) they are intended to be confidential and (2) .
  6. Spousal Communication privilege applies to communication between spouses who were (1) married at the time of the trial (2) is (3) and (4) can only be invoked by the witness spouse.
  7. Marital Communication privilege pertains to communication between spouses (1) made during the marriage (2) (3) and (4) survives divorce.
  8. Testimonial Privilege is a privilege that is protected by the Federal Rules of Evidence which include (1) attorney client (2) (3) or (4) doctor patient if recognized in the forum state.
  9. Attorney-Client Privilege protects communications between an attorney and a client if (1) and (2) .
  10. Spousal Communication privilege applies to communication between spouses who were (1) (2) is (3) and (4) .
  11. Marital Communication privilege pertains to communication between spouses (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  12. Testimonial Privilege is a privilege that is protected by the Federal Rules of Evidence which include (1) (2) (3) or (4) .

Evidence

0 Correct out of 3
  1. Judicial Notice is a court notice that can recognize (1) any fact as true (2) without formal presentation (3) either on its own initiative or (4) .
  2. Best Evidence Rule is evidence that is offered when the original is unavailable to (1) or (2) an original document.
  3. Authenticated Evidence is evidence that is (1) physical that (2) (3) by any means that serve to establish authenticity.
  4. Judicial Notice is a court notice that can recognize (1) any fact as true (2) (3) or (4) by formal request of a party.
  5. Best Evidence Rule is evidence that is offered when the original is unavailable to (1) prove the contents of a writing or (2) .
  6. Authenticated Evidence is evidence that is (1) physical that (2) (3) .
  7. Judicial Notice is a court notice that can recognize (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  8. Best Evidence Rule is evidence that is offered when the original is unavailable to (1) or (2) .
  9. Authenticated Evidence is evidence that is (1) (2) (3) .

Hearsay

0 Correct out of 15
  1. Present Sense Impression are admissible if (1) describes or explains the event or condition and (2) the event in question.
  2. Business Records are admissible if (1) a record or transaction recorded by the business (2) (3) by someone with knowledge at or near the time the matters described and (4) authenticated or certified in writing.
  3. Former Testimony Under Oath is testimony given by a person in an earlier proceeding or deposition is admissible if (1) declarant is currently unavailable (2) prior testimony was given under oath and either (3) the party in the previous action had the opportunity to cross examine the declarant or (4) a predecessor in interest of a party in the previous action had the .
  4. Learned Treatises are accepted authority pertaining to a certain field by the expert and can be accepted by (1) testimony (2) admission or (3) .
  5. Physical Condition statements are admissible if (1) statement is made to physical personnel and (2) .
  6. Unavailability means the declarant’s testimony is (1) privileged (2) (3) refusal or (4) lack of memory.
  7. Non-Hearsay Exemptions are hearsay statements made by a party opponent that is in the form of (1) (2) adoptive statements or (3) a vicarious statement.
  8. Hearsay is a (1) out of court statement (2) offered to prove (3) .
  9. Public Records are admissible if (1) describe the activities of a public office or agency (2) under a duty of law (3) by a public employee within their scope of duty and (4) .
  10. Dying Declarations are admissible if (1) (2) declarant was under the belief of impending death (3) the statement was made in regard to the cause of circumstances surround the impending death and (4) only applies to homicide or all civil cases.
  11. Declarant Unavailability is admissible if (1) former testimony under oath (2) statement against interest (3) dying declaration or (4) .
  12. Statement Against Interest are admissible if (1) pecuniary gain (2) (3) statement was contrary to declarant’s pecuniary gain or (4) a reasonable person would not have made the statement unless believed to be true.
  13. Admissible Hearsay is an out of court statement consisting of (1) legal operative fact (2) words to proport the effect of the listener (3) speaker’s knowledge or (4) .
  14. Excited Utterance are admissible if (1) and (2) was made while under the excitement or stress of the event.
  15. Present State of Mind statements are admissible if (1) concern the declarant’s state of mind (2) (3) sensation or (4) physical condition at the time the statement was made.
  16. Present Sense Impression are admissible if (1) describes or explains the event or condition and (2) the event in question.
  17. Business Records are admissible if (1) a record or transaction recorded by the business (2) is made during the regular course of business (3) and (4) .
  18. Former Testimony Under Oath is testimony given by a person in an earlier proceeding or deposition is admissible if (1) (2) prior testimony was given under oath and either (3) the party in the previous action had the opportunity to cross examine the declarant or (4) a predecessor in interest of a party in the previous action had the .
  19. Learned Treatises are accepted authority pertaining to a certain field by the expert and can be accepted by (1) (2) or (3) by judicial notice.
  20. Physical Condition statements are admissible if (1) and (2) pertaining to the diagnosis of that treatment of condition.
  21. Unavailability means the declarant’s testimony is (1) privileged (2) (3) or (4) lack of memory.
  22. Non-Hearsay Exemptions are hearsay statements made by a party opponent that is in the form of (1) judicial statements (2) or (3) a .
  23. Hearsay is a (1) out of court statement (2) (3) .
  24. Public Records are admissible if (1) (2) under a duty of law (3) and (4) occurred at or near the time of the event.
  25. Dying Declarations are admissible if (1) declarant is unavailable (2) declarant was under the belief of impending death (3) and (4) .
  26. Declarant Unavailability is admissible if (1) former testimony under oath (2) (3) dying declaration or (4) .
  27. Statement Against Interest are admissible if (1) (2) declarant is unavailable (3) statement was contrary to declarant’s or (4) a reasonable person would not have made the statement unless believed to be true.
  28. Admissible Hearsay is an out of court statement consisting of (1) legal operative fact (2) (3) or (4) state of mind.
  29. Excited Utterance are admissible if (1) relate to the startling event in question and (2) was made while under the of the event.
  30. Present State of Mind statements are admissible if (1) concern the declarant’s state of mind (2) emotion (3) or (4) .
  31. Present Sense Impression are admissible if (1) and (2) the event in question.
  32. Business Records are admissible if (1) a (2) (3) and (4) .
  33. Former Testimony Under Oath is testimony given by a person in an earlier proceeding or deposition is admissible if (1) (2) and either (3) the party in the previous action had the or (4) a predecessor in interest of a party in the previous action had the .
  34. Learned Treatises are accepted authority pertaining to a certain field by the expert and can be accepted by (1) (2) or (3) .
  35. Physical Condition statements are admissible if (1) and (2) .
  36. Unavailability means the declarant’s testimony is (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  37. Non-Hearsay Exemptions are hearsay statements made by a party opponent that is in the form of (1) (2) or (3) a .
  38. Hearsay is a (1) (2) (3) .
  39. Public Records are admissible if (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  40. Dying Declarations are admissible if (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  41. Declarant Unavailability is admissible if (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  42. Statement Against Interest are admissible if (1) (2) (3) statement was contrary to declarant’s or (4) a .
  43. Admissible Hearsay is an out of court statement consisting of (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  44. Excited Utterance are admissible if (1) and (2) was made while under the of the event.
  45. Present State of Mind statements are admissible if (1) (2) (3) or (4) .

Confrontation Clause

0 Correct out of 1
  1. The Confrontation Clause ensures that every defendant has the right to confront witnesses when (1) is (2) offered against the defendant (3) in a criminal case and (4) may be excluded if the declarant is unavailable.
  2. The Confrontation Clause ensures that every defendant has the right to confront witnesses when (1) an out-of-court statement is (2) (3) and (4) may be excluded if the declarant is unavailable.
  3. The Confrontation Clause ensures that every defendant has the right to confront witnesses when (1) is (2) (3) and (4) .
  • Intentional Torts
  • Defenses
  • Defamation
  • Other Torts
  • Negligence
  • Strict Liability
  • Products Liability
  • Nuisance
  • Liability

Intentional Torts

0 Correct out of 9
  1. Conversion is the (1) intentional (2) (3) where Plaintiff can recover the fair market value at the time of conversion.
  2. Trespass to chattel is an (1) (2) intermeddling of another’s personal property.
  3. Bystander Intentional Infliction of Emotional Distress is the bystander is closely related to the injured person where the (1) Defendant’s conduct seriously injured a third person (2) (3) Plaintiff was present when the injury occurred (4) Defendant knew of the relation and (5) Plaintiff suffers emotional distress.
  4. False Imprisonment is an (1) intentional (2) (3) where the Plaintiff is confined to a bounded area.
  5. Trespass to Land is an (1) intentional (2) .
  6. Tort is an (1) intentional (2) (3) causing such harm.
  7. Intentional Infliction of Emotional Distress is (1) an extreme or outrageous act (2) by the (3) where the Plaintiff suffers severe emotional distress.
  8. Assault is an (1) (2) voluntary act by the defendant (3) where there is reasonable apprehension of harmful or immediate contact.
  9. Battery is an (1) intentional (2) (3) where there is harmful or immediate contact.
  10. Conversion is the (1) intentional (2) (3) where Plaintiff can recover the .
  11. Trespass to chattel is an (1) (2) intermeddling of another’s personal property.
  12. Bystander Intentional Infliction of Emotional Distress is the bystander is closely related to the injured person where the (1) (2) (3) Plaintiff was present when the injury occurred (4) and (5) Plaintiff suffers emotional distress.
  13. False Imprisonment is an (1) (2) (3) where the Plaintiff is confined to a bounded area.
  14. Trespass to Land is an (1) intentional (2) .
  15. Tort is an (1) (2) (3) causing such harm.
  16. Intentional Infliction of Emotional Distress is (1) an (2) by the (3) where the Plaintiff suffers severe emotional distress.
  17. Assault is an (1) intentional (2) (3) where there is .
  18. Battery is an (1) intentional (2) (3) where there is .
  19. Conversion is the (1) (2) (3) where Plaintiff can recover the .
  20. Trespass to chattel is an (1) (2) .
  21. Bystander Intentional Infliction of Emotional Distress is the bystander is closely related to the injured person where the (1) (2) (3) (4) and (5) .
  22. False Imprisonment is an (1) (2) (3) where the .
  23. Trespass to Land is an (1) (2) .
  24. Tort is an (1) (2) (3) .
  25. Intentional Infliction of Emotional Distress is (1) an (2) by the (3) where the .
  26. Assault is an (1) (2) (3) where there is .
  27. Battery is an (1) (2) (3) where there is .

Defenses

0 Correct out of 6
  1. Consent is a defense to all intentional torts where the Plaintiff has given (1) or (2) scope of consent was not exceeded.
  2. Self Defense is the (1) (2) of properly timed (3) applied reasonable force.
  3. Defense of Property is the (1) (2) non-deadly force.
  4. Recapture of chattels is a defense to trespass claims when (1) the Defendant may use peaceful means (2) .
  5. Necessity is a defense to all property damage claims of the Plaintiff’s property which are outweighed in an effort to avoid greater danger when (1) and (2) the threatened injury was more serious than the property interference.
  6. Defense of Others is the Defendant’s (1) (2) that the person they are aiding would have the right to self-defense.
  7. Consent is a defense to all intentional torts where the Plaintiff has given (1) express consent or (2) .
  8. Self Defense is the (1) (2) of properly timed (3) .
  9. Defense of Property is the (1) application of reasonable (2) .
  10. Recapture of chattels is a defense to trespass claims when (1) the (2) to recover unlawfully taken property.
  11. Necessity is a defense to all property damage claims of the Plaintiff’s property which are outweighed in an effort to avoid greater danger when (1) and (2) the threatened injury was more serious than the property interference.
  12. Defense of Others is the Defendant’s (1) (2) that the person they are aiding would have the right to self-defense.
  13. Consent is a defense to all intentional torts where the Plaintiff has given (1) or (2) .
  14. Self Defense is the (1) (2) of (3) .
  15. Defense of Property is the (1) (2) .
  16. Recapture of chattels is a defense to trespass claims when (1) the (2) .
  17. Necessity is a defense to all property damage claims of the Plaintiff’s property which are outweighed in an effort to avoid greater danger when (1) and (2) the .
  18. Defense of Others is the Defendant’s (1) (2) that the person they are aiding would have the .

Defamation

0 Correct out of 4
  1. Slander Per Se is spoken conduct of (1) crimes of moral turpitude (2) loathsome disease (3) impute women’s chastity or (4) .
  2. Defamation of a Private Citizen is (1) a defamatory statement (2) (3) that was published and (4) harmful to Plaintiff’s reputation.
  3. Slander is (1) spoken conduct where (2) .
  4. Defamation of a public citizen is a (1) (2) regarding the Plaintiff (3) that was published (4) harmful to the Plaintiff’s reputation and (5) falsity and fault.
  5. Slander Per Se is spoken conduct of (1) (2) loathsome disease (3) or (4) effects business or reputation.
  6. Defamation of a Private Citizen is (1) a (2) regarding the Plaintiff (3) and (4) harmful to Plaintiff’s reputation.
  7. Slander is (1) spoken conduct where (2) .
  8. Defamation of a public citizen is a (1) (2) regarding the Plaintiff (3) that was published (4) and (5) .
  9. Slander Per Se is spoken conduct of (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  10. Defamation of a Private Citizen is (1) a (2) (3) and (4) .
  11. Slander is (1) (2) .
  12. Defamation of a public citizen is a (1) (2) (3) (4) and (5) .

Other Torts

0 Correct out of 6
  1. Negligent Misrepresentation is the Defendant (1) misrepresents a material fact in a professional setting (2) where a breach of duty was owed (3) and (4) resulted in monetary loss.
  2. Intentional Interference with Business Relations is the (1) Plaintiff has a valid contractual relationship (2) where the Defendant has knowledge of such relationship (3) intentionally interferes with that relationship and (4) this interreference causes breach (5) .
  3. Intentional Misrepresentation is the (1) Defendant’s misrepresentation of a material fact (2) knows the misrepresentation to be false (3) intended to induce reliance (4) and (5) damages in the form of pecuniary loss.
  4. Appropriation is the (1) unauthorized use (2) of Plaintiff’s (3) name, image or likeness (4) .
  5. Intrusion Upon Seclusion is a (1) Plaintiffs’ reasonable expectation of privacy (2) where the intrusion would be .
  6. False Light is the (1) (2) of a falsehood or material misrepresentation (3) that would be offensive to a reasonable person.
  7. Negligent Misrepresentation is the Defendant (1) misrepresents a material fact in a professional setting (2) where a breach of duty was owed (3) and (4) .
  8. Intentional Interference with Business Relations is the (1) Plaintiff has a valid contractual relationship (2) (3) and (4) this interreference causes breach (5) .
  9. Intentional Misrepresentation is the (1) (2) (3) (4) actual reliance by the Plaintiff and (5) damages in the form of pecuniary loss.
  10. Appropriation is the (1) unauthorized use (2) (3) (4) for commercial purposes.
  11. Intrusion Upon Seclusion is a (1) (2) where the intrusion would be highly offensive to a reasonable prudent person.
  12. False Light is the (1) widespread publication (2) of a (3) that would be .
  13. Negligent Misrepresentation is the Defendant (1) (2) where a (3) and (4) .
  14. Intentional Interference with Business Relations is the (1) (2) (3) and (4) (5) .
  15. Intentional Misrepresentation is the (1) (2) (3) (4) and (5) .
  16. Appropriation is the (1) (2) (3) (4) .
  17. Intrusion Upon Seclusion is a (1) (2) where the intrusion would be .
  18. False Light is the (1) (2) of a (3) that would be .

Negligence

0 Correct out of 15
  1. Negligence consists of (1) duty (2) breach (3) causation and (4) .
  2. Negligent Infliction of Emotional Distress is (1) Defendants negligent act is in close proximity to the Plaintiff (2) Plaintiff and (3) Plaintiff suffers from some physical manifestation.
  3. Breach of Duty is a duty that (1) (2) owed to the individual.
  4. Invitee is an individual who enters the land (1) open to the public (2) .
  5. Damages consist of (1) personal injury (2) property damage or (3) .
  6. Licensee is an individual who enters the land with (1) the Owner’s permission for (2) Licensee’s own personal or (3) a .
  7. Contributory Negligence is the Plaintiff is barred from recovery of the Plaintiff’s injuries if (1) Defendant establishes that Plaintiff’s conduct (2) .
  8. Negligence Per Se is established when a (1) valid ordinance is in place (2) and (3) the ordinance is designed to protect against that type of harm that occurred.
  9. Res Ipsa Loquitur is an (1) inference of negligence (2) but (3) attributable to the defendant.
  10. Attractive Nuisance Doctrine holds the property owners liable for damages if (1) they know or should know that children are in the area (2) know or should know of the dangerous condition (3) the condition is likely to cause injury and (4) .
  11. Proximate Cause is a foreseeable connection to the alleged breach which doesn’t include (1) an act of God (2) or (3) criminal act.
  12. Duty of Care to behave like a reasonable prudent person is owed to (1) in the (2) zone of danger.
  13. Comparative Negligence is a defense to negligence where the Defendant can prove (1) the are (2) attributable to the Plaintiff.
  14. Specialized Duty of Care is owed to (1) common carrier or innkeepers (2) children (3) or (4) by custom or trade usage.
  15. Actual Cause is a causal connection between the (1) and (2) the duty owed.
  16. Negligence consists of (1) (2) breach (3) and (4) damages.
  17. Negligent Infliction of Emotional Distress is (1) Defendants negligent act is in (2) Plaintiff and (3) Plaintiff suffers from some physical manifestation.
  18. Breach of Duty is a duty that (1) (2) owed to the individual.
  19. Invitee is an individual who enters the land (1) (2) to confer a commercial benefit.
  20. Damages consist of (1) (2) property damage or (3) .
  21. Licensee is an individual who enters the land with (1) the (2) Licensee’s own personal or (3) a .
  22. Contributory Negligence is the Plaintiff is barred from recovery of the Plaintiff’s injuries if (1) (2) contributed to Plaintiff’s injuries.
  23. Negligence Per Se is established when a (1) (2) and (3) the ordinance is designed to protect against that type of harm that occurred.
  24. Res Ipsa Loquitur is an (1) inference of negligence (2) but (3) .
  25. Attractive Nuisance Doctrine holds the property owners liable for damages if (1) they know or should know that (2) know or should know of the dangerous condition (3) the and (4) the potential lost outweighs the risk of remedying the defect.
  26. Proximate Cause is a foreseeable connection to the alleged breach which doesn’t include (1) (2) intentional tort or (3) .
  27. Duty of Care to behave like a reasonable prudent person is owed to (1) in the (2) zone of danger.
  28. Comparative Negligence is a defense to negligence where the Defendant can prove (1) the are (2) attributable to the Plaintiff.
  29. Specialized Duty of Care is owed to (1) (2) (3) professionals or (4) by custom or trade usage.
  30. Actual Cause is a causal connection between the (1) and (2) the duty owed.
  31. Negligence consists of (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  32. Negligent Infliction of Emotional Distress is (1) Defendants negligent act is in (2) Plaintiff and (3) .
  33. Breach of Duty is a duty that (1) (2) .
  34. Invitee is an individual who enters the land (1) (2) .
  35. Damages consist of (1) (2) or (3) .
  36. Licensee is an individual who enters the land with (1) the (2) or (3) a .
  37. Contributory Negligence is the Plaintiff is barred from recovery of the Plaintiff’s injuries if (1) (2) .
  38. Negligence Per Se is established when a (1) (2) and (3) .
  39. Res Ipsa Loquitur is an (1) (2) but (3) .
  40. Attractive Nuisance Doctrine holds the property owners liable for damages if (1) they know or should know that (2) know or should know of the (3) the and (4) .
  41. Proximate Cause is a foreseeable connection to the alleged breach which doesn’t include (1) (2) or (3) .
  42. Duty of Care to behave like a reasonable prudent person is owed to (1) in the (2) .
  43. Comparative Negligence is a defense to negligence where the Defendant can prove (1) the are (2) .
  44. Specialized Duty of Care is owed to (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  45. Actual Cause is a causal connection between the (1) and (2) the .

Strict Liability

0 Correct out of 3
  1. Strict Liability abnormally dangers activity is a (1) uncommon activity that (2) (3) which poses a severe risk.
  2. Strict Liability is an (1) absolute duty to make safe (2) and (3) damages to person or property.
  3. Strict Liability of animal conduct are animal owners are strictly liable for (1) reasonably foreseeable damages (2) (3) on another’s property.
  4. Strict Liability abnormally dangers activity is a (1) uncommon activity that (2) (3) which .
  5. Strict Liability is an (1) absolute duty to make safe (2) and (3) .
  6. Strict Liability of animal conduct are animal owners are strictly liable for (1) reasonably foreseeable damages (2) (3) .
  7. Strict Liability abnormally dangers activity is a (1) that (2) (3) which .
  8. Strict Liability is an (1) (2) and (3) .
  9. Strict Liability of animal conduct are animal owners are strictly liable for (1) (2) (3) .

Products Liability

0 Correct out of 3
  1. Types of Warranties include (1) fit for particular purpose (2) or (3) express warranty.
  2. Products Strict Liability is a (1) (2) of a defective product (3) that was the actual or proximate cause of the injury (4) used in a foreseeable manner.
  3. Types of Defects consist of a (1) manufacturing defect (2) or (3) inadequate warning.
  4. Types of Warranties include (1) (2) or (3) express warranty.
  5. Products Strict Liability is a (1) commercial supplier (2) of a defective product (3) of the injury (4) .
  6. Types of Defects consist of a (1) manufacturing defect (2) or (3) .
  7. Types of Warranties include (1) (2) or (3) .
  8. Products Strict Liability is a (1) (2) of a (3) of the injury (4) .
  9. Types of Defects consist of a (1) (2) or (3) .

Nuisance

0 Correct out of 3
  1. Nuisance is a (1) (2) of the right to enjoy one’s property.
  2. Private Nuisance is a (1) substantial interference (2) with ones right to enjoy one’s property (3) where the interference is one where the .
  3. Public Nuisance is an (1) unreasonable interference (2) with .
  4. Nuisance is a (1) tortious invasion (2) .
  5. Private Nuisance is a (1) (2) with ones right to enjoy one’s property (3) where the interference is one where the .
  6. Public Nuisance is an (1) (2) with health, safety, or property rights of the public.
  7. Nuisance is a (1) (2) .
  8. Private Nuisance is a (1) (2) (3) where the interference is one where the .
  9. Public Nuisance is an (1) (2) with .

Liability

0 Correct out of 3
  1. Contribution allows a (1) Defendant who has paid to (2) recover against the other party for the excess damages paid.
  2. Vicarious Liability is when the (1) (2) against the Plaintiff and (3) the third person is held liable due in part to the relationship with the Defendant.
  3. Joint and Several Liability applies when the (1) acts of two or more Defendants (2) combine (3) to produce a .
  4. Contribution allows a (1) Defendant who has paid more than their fair share of damages to (2) .
  5. Vicarious Liability is when the (1) (2) against the Plaintiff and (3) the third person is held liable due in part .
  6. Joint and Several Liability applies when the (1) (2) (3) to produce a single indivisible injury.
  7. Contribution allows a (1) Defendant who has paid to (2) .
  8. Vicarious Liability is when the (1) (2) and (3) the third person is held liable due in part .
  9. Joint and Several Liability applies when the (1) (2) (3) to produce a .
  • Principles
  • Incohate Crimes
  • Defenses
  • Crimes Against the Person
  • Crimes Against Property

Principles

0 Correct out of 10
  1. Concurrence is the (1) physical act and (2) the required mental state (3) .
  2. Accomplice Liability arises when an individual (1) (2) the principal before, during or after the crime (3) with the intent that the principal commits the crime.
  3. Mens Rea refers to the required mental state at the time the crime was committed which can be either (1) specific intent (2) general intent or (3) .
  4. Merger occurs when (1) two or more offenses merge (2) .
  5. Conspiracy is an (1) agreement (2) (3) to commit a crime or unlawful activity.
  6. Criminal Act requires (1) actus reus (2) mens reus (3) and (4) concurrence.
  7. Transferred Intent occurs when the Defendant is held liable if the intended harm caused affects either a (1) different victim or (2) .
  8. Model Penal Code mental states are either (1) (2) knowingly (3) recklessly or (4) negligently.
  9. Actus Reus is a (1) voluntary (2) .
  10. Causation is either the (1) proximate cause or (2) the .
  11. Concurrence is the (1) physical act and (2) the required (3) .
  12. Accomplice Liability arises when an individual (1) (2) the the crime (3) with the intent that the principal commits the crime.
  13. Mens Rea refers to the required mental state at the time the crime was committed which can be either (1) specific intent (2) or (3) .
  14. Merger occurs when (1) merge (2) prohibiting the Defendant from being prosecuted separately for each crime.
  15. Conspiracy is an (1) agreement (2) (3) .
  16. Criminal Act requires (1) actus reus (2) (3) causation and (4) .
  17. Transferred Intent occurs when the Defendant is held liable if the intended harm caused affects either a (1) or (2) different object.
  18. Model Penal Code mental states are either (1) (2) knowingly (3) or (4) negligently.
  19. Actus Reus is a (1) voluntary (2) .
  20. Causation is either the (1) proximate cause or (2) the .
  21. Concurrence is the (1) and (2) the required (3) .
  22. Accomplice Liability arises when an individual (1) (2) the the crime (3) with the .
  23. Mens Rea refers to the required mental state at the time the crime was committed which can be either (1) (2) or (3) .
  24. Merger occurs when (1) merge (2) .
  25. Conspiracy is an (1) (2) (3) .
  26. Criminal Act requires (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  27. Transferred Intent occurs when the Defendant is held liable if the intended harm caused affects either a (1) or (2) .
  28. Model Penal Code mental states are either (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  29. Actus Reus is a (1) (2) .
  30. Causation is either the (1) or (2) the .

Incohate Crimes

0 Correct out of 4
  1. Attempt is an overt act (1) but (2) falls short of completing the crime.
  2. Co-Conspirator Liability holds each co-conspirator liable for the acts that are (1) foreseeable and (2) .
  3. Solicitation involves (1) inciting, urging, or asking (2) .
  4. Conspiracy is an (1) intentional agreement between two or more people (2) with the intent to commit the targeted crime and (3) .
  5. Attempt is an overt act (1) but (2) falls short of completing the crime.
  6. Co-Conspirator Liability holds each co-conspirator liable for the acts that are (1) and (2) committed in furtherance of the conspiracy.
  7. Solicitation involves (1) inciting, urging, or asking (2) .
  8. Conspiracy is an (1) intentional agreement between two or more people (2) with the and (3) .
  9. Attempt is an overt act (1) but (2) .
  10. Co-Conspirator Liability holds each co-conspirator liable for the acts that are (1) and (2) .
  11. Solicitation involves (1) (2) .
  12. Conspiracy is an (1) (2) with the and (3) .

Defenses

0 Correct out of 4
  1. Duress is a defense when the (1) Defendant committed a crime under the reasonable belief (2) that the crime was .
  2. Necessity applies when the (1) (2) to avoid imminent harm to themselves, others, or society.
  3. Insanity is a defense to all crimes regardless of the intent requirement which may be established under (1) (2) Irresistible Impulse Test (3) Model Penal Code or the (4) Durham Rule.
  4. Entrapment occurs when the (1) criminal plan originated with law enforcement and (2) the .
  5. Duress is a defense when the (1) Defendant committed a crime under the reasonable belief (2) that the crime was .
  6. Necessity applies when the (1) (2) to avoid imminent harm to themselves, others, or society.
  7. Insanity is a defense to all crimes regardless of the intent requirement which may be established under (1) M’Naghten Rule (2) Irresistible Impulse Test (3) or the (4) .
  8. Entrapment occurs when the (1) criminal plan originated with law enforcement and (2) the .
  9. Duress is a defense when the (1) (2) that the crime was .
  10. Necessity applies when the (1) (2) to avoid imminent harm to themselves, others, or society.
  11. Insanity is a defense to all crimes regardless of the intent requirement which may be established under (1) (2) (3) or the (4) .
  12. Entrapment occurs when the (1) and (2) the .

Crimes Against the Person

0 Correct out of 11
  1. Voluntary Manslaughter is a (1) (2) resulting from adequate provocation.
  2. The Types of Murder include (1) (2) intent to inflict serious bodily harm (3) Felony Murder and (4) Depraved Heart
  3. Murder is the (1) (2) of another human (3) with malice aforethought.
  4. Felony Murder occurs when a killing takes pace during the commission of an inherently dangerous felony such as (1) burglary (2) arson (3) rape (4) robbery or (5) .
  5. Battery is the (1) (2) to a person or another (3) resulting in bodily injury or offensive touching.
  6. Rape is the (1) carnal knowledge (2) (3) by a man other than her husband (4) without her consent.
  7. Involuntary Manslaughter is a (1) (2) committed with criminal negligence (3) during an unlawful act not resulting in Felony Murder.
  8. False Imprisonment is the (1) unlawful confinement of a person (2) .
  9. Assault is (1) an (2) reasonable apprehension of imminent bodily harm.
  10. Kidnapping is the (1) unlawful confinement of a person (2) (3) with either movement or concealment of the victim.
  11. Adequate Provocation occurs when the (1) (2) would cause an ordinary person to experience sudden and intense passion and (3) no time to cool off between and killing.
  12. Voluntary Manslaughter is a (1) (2) resulting from adequate provocation.
  13. The Types of Murder include (1) (2) (3) Felony Murder and (4) Depraved Heart
  14. Murder is the (1) (2) of another human (3) .
  15. Felony Murder occurs when a killing takes pace during the commission of an inherently dangerous felony such as (1) (2) (3) (4) robbery or (5) kidnapping.
  16. Battery is the (1) (2) (3) resulting in bodily injury or offensive touching.
  17. Rape is the (1) (2) of a woman (3) (4) without her consent.
  18. Involuntary Manslaughter is a (1) killing (2) (3) during an unlawful act .
  19. False Imprisonment is the (1) unlawful confinement of a person (2) .
  20. Assault is (1) an intentional (2) .
  21. Kidnapping is the (1) unlawful confinement of a person (2) (3) .
  22. Adequate Provocation occurs when the (1) (2) would cause an ordinary person to experience sudden and intense passion and (3) between and killing.
  23. Voluntary Manslaughter is a (1) (2) .
  24. The Types of Murder include (1) (2) (3) and (4)
  25. Murder is the (1) (2) (3) .
  26. Felony Murder occurs when a killing takes pace during the commission of an inherently dangerous felony such as (1) (2) (3) (4) or (5) .
  27. Battery is the (1) (2) (3) .
  28. Rape is the (1) (2) (3) (4) .
  29. Involuntary Manslaughter is a (1) (2) (3) during an unlawful act .
  30. False Imprisonment is the (1) (2) .
  31. Assault is (1) an (2) .
  32. Kidnapping is the (1) (2) (3) .
  33. Adequate Provocation occurs when the (1) (2) would cause an and (3) between and killing.

Crimes Against Property

0 Correct out of 9
  1. Larceny is the (1) (2) of another’s personal property (3) with the intent to permanently deprive them of that property.
  2. Larceny by Trick occurs when (1) obtaining title to another’s property (2) by false statements (3) .
  3. Arson is the (1) (2) burning (3) of another’s dwelling.
  4. Burglary is the (1) breaking and (2) entering (3) of another’s dwelling (4) at (5) with the intent to commit a felony therein.
  5. Robbery is the (1) taking and carrying away (2) of another’s personal property (3) with the intent to permanently deprive them of that property (4) by .
  6. Forgery is the (1) creation or alteration (2) of a written document (3) with purported legal significance (4) with .
  7. False Pretenses involve (1) obtaining title to another’s property (2) by false statements (3) (4) with the intent to defraud.
  8. Embezzlement is the (1) (2) of another’s personal property (3) by one in lawful possession.
  9. Receipt of Stolen Property involves (1) (2) of stolen property (3) known or should have known to be illegally obtained by another (4) with the intent to permanently deprive.
  10. Larceny is the (1) (2) (3) with the intent to permanently deprive them of that property.
  11. Larceny by Trick occurs when (1) (2) (3) of past or existing facts.
  12. Arson is the (1) malicious (2) (3) of .
  13. Burglary is the (1) breaking and (2) entering (3) of (4) at (5) with the .
  14. Robbery is the (1) (2) of (3) with the intent to permanently deprive them of that property (4) by force or threat.
  15. Forgery is the (1) (2) of a written document (3) with (4) with intent to defraud.
  16. False Pretenses involve (1) obtaining title to another’s property (2) by false statements (3) (4) .
  17. Embezzlement is the (1) (2) (3) by one in lawful possession.
  18. Receipt of Stolen Property involves (1) receiving possession and control (2) of (3) to be illegally obtained by another (4) with the intent to permanently deprive.
  19. Larceny is the (1) (2) (3) .
  20. Larceny by Trick occurs when (1) (2) (3) .
  21. Arson is the (1) (2) (3) of .
  22. Burglary is the (1) and (2) (3) of (4) at (5) with the .
  23. Robbery is the (1) (2) of (3) with the (4) by .
  24. Forgery is the (1) (2) of a (3) with (4) with .
  25. False Pretenses involve (1) (2) (3) (4) .
  26. Embezzlement is the (1) (2) (3) .
  27. Receipt of Stolen Property involves (1) (2) of (3) to be illegally obtained by another (4) .
  • Judicial Power
  • Legislative Power
  • Executive Power
  • Federalism
  • Individual Liberties
  • Due Process
  • Fundamental Rights
  • Equal Protection
  • Freedom of Speech

Judicial Power

0 Correct out of 12
  1. Third Party Standing is a Plaintiff asserts the rights of a third party where the Plaintiff was injured when either (1) Plaintiff’s injury adversely affects their relationship with third parties or (2) the .
  2. Eleventh Amendment bars suits against state governments in federal court unless (1) states waive sovereign immunity (2) suit involves fourteenth amendment (3) federal government brings the suit or (4) .
  3. Political Question Doctrine means federal courts cannot adjudicate constitutional issues such as (1) constitutional power reserved to another branch of government or (2) are .
  4. Injury to all is an (1) injury to (2) .
  5. Original Jurisdiction occurs when the Supreme Court has original jurisdiction over (1) suits between states (2) and (3) other foreign ministers.
  6. Adequate and Independent Grounds Doctrine means the Supreme Court cannot review a state court decision that rested on (1) and (2) adequate state law ground.
  7. Mootness is a courts ability to hear only live controversies unless (1) (2) voluntary cessation or (3) class action lawsuits.
  8. Justiciability is an ongoing controversy that includes (1) standing (2) ripeness or (3) .
  9. Final Judgement occurs when the Supreme Court can only hear cases if there has been (1) final judgement of a lower court or (2) .
  10. Standing is a party must have a concrete interest in the outcome of the claim including (1) injury (2) causation and (3) .
  11. Ripeness is a Plaintiff has been (1) or (2) suffers immediate threat of harm.
  12. Suits against state officers means a state officer can be sued in federal court when (1) a or (2) a claim for money damages paid by the state officer personally.
  13. Third Party Standing is a Plaintiff asserts the rights of a third party where the Plaintiff was injured when either (1) Plaintiff’s injury adversely affects their relationship with third parties or (2) the .
  14. Eleventh Amendment bars suits against state governments in federal court unless (1) states waive sovereign immunity (2) (3) federal government brings the suit or (4) .
  15. Political Question Doctrine means federal courts cannot adjudicate constitutional issues such as (1) constitutional power reserved to or (2) are inherently incapable of judicial resolution.
  16. Injury to all is an (1) injury to (2) .
  17. Original Jurisdiction occurs when the Supreme Court has original jurisdiction over (1) (2) and (3) other foreign ministers.
  18. Adequate and Independent Grounds Doctrine means the Supreme Court cannot review a state court decision that rested on (1) and (2) adequate state law ground.
  19. Mootness is a courts ability to hear only live controversies unless (1) (2) or (3) class action lawsuits.
  20. Justiciability is an ongoing controversy that includes (1) (2) or (3) mootness.
  21. Final Judgement occurs when the Supreme Court can only hear cases if there has been (1) or (2) judgement by the state’s highest court.
  22. Standing is a party must have a concrete interest in the outcome of the claim including (1) injury (2) and (3) .
  23. Ripeness is a Plaintiff has been (1) or (2) suffers immediate threat of harm.
  24. Suits against state officers means a state officer can be sued in federal court when (1) a or (2) a claim for money damages paid by the state officer personally.
  25. Third Party Standing is a Plaintiff asserts the rights of a third party where the Plaintiff was injured when either (1) or (2) the .
  26. Eleventh Amendment bars suits against state governments in federal court unless (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  27. Political Question Doctrine means federal courts cannot adjudicate constitutional issues such as (1) constitutional power reserved to or (2) are .
  28. Injury to all is an (1) to (2) .
  29. Original Jurisdiction occurs when the Supreme Court has original jurisdiction over (1) (2) and (3) .
  30. Adequate and Independent Grounds Doctrine means the Supreme Court cannot review a state court decision that rested on (1) and (2) .
  31. Mootness is a courts ability to hear only live controversies unless (1) (2) or (3) .
  32. Justiciability is an ongoing controversy that includes (1) (2) or (3) .
  33. Final Judgement occurs when the Supreme Court can only hear cases if there has been (1) or (2) .
  34. Standing is a party must have a concrete interest in the outcome of the claim including (1) (2) and (3) .
  35. Ripeness is a Plaintiff has been (1) or (2) .
  36. Suits against state officers means a state officer can be sued in federal court when (1) a or (2) a .

Legislative Power

0 Correct out of 9
  1. Delegation of Powers is the broad authority to delegate legislative powers but can only do so when (1) the scope is clearly defined and (2) .
  2. Tenth Amendment grants all powers (1) not granted to the federal government and (2) .
  3. Police Power occurs when Congress has no general police power except (1) military (2) Indian reservation (3) and (4) District of Columbia.
  4. Intrastate Commerce grants Congress the authority to regulate (1) commercial activity or (2) .
  5. Executing a law requires 1) (2) approval by the President and (3) signed within 10 days excluding Sunday.
  6. Conditional Grants refer to Congress’s ability to induce state regulatory or legislative action through conditional grants provided that (1) (2) condition must relate to the purpose of the law at issue and (3) condition cannot be unduly coercive.
  7. Taxing and Spending Clause grants Congress the authority to tax and spend in (1) anyway deemed necessary for the (2) .
  8. Commerce Clause grants Congress the (1) to (2) regulate interstate commerce.
  9. Interstate Commerce grants Congress the authority to regulate (1) channels (2) instrumentalities or (3) .
  10. Delegation of Powers is the broad authority to delegate legislative powers but can only do so when (1) and (2) not a delegation of a core power.
  11. Tenth Amendment grants all powers (1) and (2) not prohibited by the States are reserved to the States.
  12. Police Power occurs when Congress has no general police power except (1) military (2) Indian reservation (3) and (4) .
  13. Intrastate Commerce grants Congress the authority to regulate (1) commercial activity or (2) .
  14. Executing a law requires 1) (2) approval by the President and (3) .
  15. Conditional Grants refer to Congress’s ability to induce state regulatory or legislative action through conditional grants provided that (1) (2) condition must relate to the purpose of the law at issue and (3) .
  16. Taxing and Spending Clause grants Congress the authority to tax and spend in (1) anyway deemed necessary for the (2) .
  17. Commerce Clause grants Congress the (1) to (2) regulate interstate commerce.
  18. Interstate Commerce grants Congress the authority to regulate (1) (2) or (3) economic activities that have a substantial effect on interstate commerce.
  19. Delegation of Powers is the broad authority to delegate legislative powers but can only do so when (1) and (2) .
  20. Tenth Amendment grants all powers (1) and (2) .
  21. Police Power occurs when Congress has no general police power except (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  22. Intrastate Commerce grants Congress the authority to regulate (1) or (2) .
  23. Executing a law requires 1) (2) and (3) .
  24. Conditional Grants refer to Congress’s ability to induce state regulatory or legislative action through conditional grants provided that (1) (2) and (3) .
  25. Taxing and Spending Clause grants Congress the authority to tax and spend in (1) for the (2) .
  26. Commerce Clause grants Congress the (1) to (2) .
  27. Interstate Commerce grants Congress the authority to regulate (1) (2) or (3) .

Executive Power

0 Correct out of 8
  1. Executive Privilege protects against (1) and (2) conversations.
  2. Presidential Authority granted by Article II of the United States Constitution allows the President to enter (1) treaties (2) appoint ambassadors (3) and (4) power to represent the United States in foreign affairs.
  3. Presidential Appointment Powers consist of (1) ambassadors (2) and (3) other high-level officers without the consent of the Senate.
  4. Impeachment is the House of Representatives can impeach the (1) President (2) Vice President (3) and (4) other Federal Officers by a majority vote whereupon a trial in the Senate takes place with a 2/3 majority vote for removal from office.
  5. Congressional Appointment Powers vest in (1) inferior officers in the presidency (2) or (3) department or agency leadership.
  6. Pardon Power is the power retained by the President to pardon those (1) accused or (2) .
  7. Removal Powers are the power of the Executive Branch to remove a high-level executive officer in which (1) the President can remove them freely unless limited by Congress or (2) .
  8. Immunity occurs when the President has absolute immunity from (1) civil suits arising from official actions and (2) .
  9. Executive Privilege protects against (1) and (2) conversations.
  10. Presidential Authority granted by Article II of the United States Constitution allows the President to enter (1) treaties (2) (3) act as Commander in Chief of the military and (4) .
  11. Presidential Appointment Powers consist of (1) (2) and (3) other high-level officers without the consent of the Senate.
  12. Impeachment is the House of Representatives can impeach the (1) President (2) (3) Federal Judges and (4) .
  13. Congressional Appointment Powers vest in (1) inferior officers in the presidency (2) or (3) .
  14. Pardon Power is the power retained by the President to pardon those (1) or (2) convicted of federal crimes.
  15. Removal Powers are the power of the Executive Branch to remove a high-level executive officer in which (1) the or (2) Congress can remove high-level executive officers through its impeachment power.
  16. Immunity occurs when the President has absolute immunity from (1) and (2) taken while in office.
  17. Executive Privilege protects against (1) and (2) .
  18. Presidential Authority granted by Article II of the United States Constitution allows the President to enter (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  19. Presidential Appointment Powers consist of (1) (2) and (3) .
  20. Impeachment is the House of Representatives can impeach the (1) (2) Vice (3) and (4) .
  21. Congressional Appointment Powers vest in (1) (2) or (3) .
  22. Pardon Power is the power retained by the President to pardon those (1) or (2) .
  23. Removal Powers are the power of the Executive Branch to remove a high-level executive officer in which (1) the or (2) .
  24. Immunity occurs when the President has absolute immunity from (1) and (2) .

Federalism

0 Correct out of 7
  1. Dormant Commerce Clause Exceptions include (1) (2) state market participant (3) traditional government function or (4) Congressional approval.
  2. Implied Preemption occurs when a federal law is silent on confliction and will control when (1) mutual exclusivity (2) state law impedes a federal objective or (3) .
  3. Express Preemption means a federal law trumps conflicting (1) state and (2) .
  4. Supremacy Clause means a (1) federal law is (2) the .
  5. State Taxation means a state tax must have a substantial connection to the state in such a way that it does not interfere with interstate commerce unless (1) (2) tax is fairly apportioned to the activity connected to the state or (3) tax must be fairly related to some governmental service or benefit.
  6. Dormant Commerce Clause occurs when state and local law regulate local aspects of interstate commerce when not under the commerce power if it does not (1) discriminate against out-of-state competition (2) or (3) regulate wholly out-of-state activity.
  7. Privileges and Immunities Clause is a state may not discriminate against non-state residents when it (1) (2) commercial activities and (3) not necessary to achieve an important governmental interest.
  8. Dormant Commerce Clause Exceptions include (1) (2) state market participant (3) or (4) Congressional approval.
  9. Implied Preemption occurs when a federal law is silent on confliction and will control when (1) (2) state law impedes a federal objective or (3) .
  10. Express Preemption means a federal law trumps conflicting (1) and (2) local laws if expressly d.
  11. Supremacy Clause means a (1) federal law is (2) the .
  12. State Taxation means a state tax must have a substantial connection to the state in such a way that it does not interfere with interstate commerce unless (1) substantial nexus within the state (2) or (3) .
  13. Dormant Commerce Clause occurs when state and local law regulate local aspects of interstate commerce when not under the commerce power if it does not (1) (2) unduly burden interstate commerce or (3) .
  14. Privileges and Immunities Clause is a state may not discriminate against non-state residents when it (1) relates to civil liberties (2) and (3) .
  15. Dormant Commerce Clause Exceptions include (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  16. Implied Preemption occurs when a federal law is silent on confliction and will control when (1) (2) or (3) .
  17. Express Preemption means a federal law trumps conflicting (1) and (2) local laws if expressly d.
  18. Supremacy Clause means a (1) is (2) the .
  19. State Taxation means a state tax must have a substantial connection to the state in such a way that it does not interfere with interstate commerce unless (1) (2) or (3) .
  20. Dormant Commerce Clause occurs when state and local law regulate local aspects of interstate commerce when not under the commerce power if it does not (1) (2) or (3) .
  21. Privileges and Immunities Clause is a state may not discriminate against non-state residents when it (1) (2) and (3) .

Individual Liberties

0 Correct out of 8
  1. Government Action Exceptions include a (1) or (2) significant state entanglement between the government and private conduct.
  2. Rational Basis means a law is upheld if it is (1) to a (2) legitimate government interest.
  3. Intermediate Scrutiny means a law will be upheld if it is (2) to an (2) important governmental interest.
  4. Fifteenth Amendment are States or Federal government cannot deny any citizen the right to vote on the basis of (1) or (2) color.
  5. Government Action only applies to (1) (2) state or (3) local governments.
  6. Thirteenth Amendment expressly prohibits (1) slavery and (2) .
  7. Fourteenth Amendment are States cannot deprive any person of (1) (2) liberty or (3) property without due process of law.
  8. Strict Scrutiny means a law will be upheld if it is (1) a (2) compelling governmental interest.
  9. Government Action Exceptions include a (1) private entity performs an exclusive public function or (2) .
  10. Rational Basis means a law is upheld if it is (1) rationally related to a (2) .
  11. Intermediate Scrutiny means a law will be upheld if it is (2) to an (2) important governmental interest.
  12. Fifteenth Amendment are States or Federal government cannot deny any citizen the right to vote on the basis of (1) race or (2) .
  13. Government Action only applies to (1) federal (2) or (3) .
  14. Thirteenth Amendment expressly prohibits (1) slavery and (2) .
  15. Fourteenth Amendment are States cannot deprive any person of (1) life (2) or (3) .
  16. Strict Scrutiny means a law will be upheld if it is (1) necessary to achieve a (2) .
  17. Government Action Exceptions include a (1) or (2) .
  18. Rational Basis means a law is upheld if it is (1) to a (2) .
  19. Intermediate Scrutiny means a law will be upheld if it is (2) to an (2) .
  20. Fifteenth Amendment are States or Federal government cannot deny any citizen the right to vote on the basis of (1) or (2) .
  21. Government Action only applies to (1) (2) or (3) .
  22. Thirteenth Amendment expressly prohibits (1) and (2) .
  23. Fourteenth Amendment are States cannot deprive any person of (1) (2) or (3) .
  24. Strict Scrutiny means a law will be upheld if it is (1) a (2) .

Due Process

0 Correct out of 4
  1. Ex Post Fact Clause prohibit states and federal governments from passing retroactive laws if either (1) criminally punishes conduct that was lawful when done (2) increases punishment for a crime that has been committed or (3) .
  2. Contract Clause is a (1) with (2) existing contractual duties including governmental obligations.
  3. Bill of Attainder prohibit State and Federal governments from passing legislation that punish (1) specific individuals or (2) .
  4. Takings Clause is the government shall not take (1) private property (2) for public use (3) .
  5. Ex Post Fact Clause prohibit states and federal governments from passing retroactive laws if either (1) (2) or (3) reduces the burden required to convict a person for a crime after it was committed.
  6. Contract Clause is a (1) state cannot interfere with (2) .
  7. Bill of Attainder prohibit State and Federal governments from passing legislation that punish (1) or (2) group members without a judicial trial.
  8. Takings Clause is the government shall not take (1) (2) for (3) without just compensation.
  9. Ex Post Fact Clause prohibit states and federal governments from passing retroactive laws if either (1) (2) or (3) .
  10. Contract Clause is a (1) with (2) .
  11. Bill of Attainder prohibit State and Federal governments from passing legislation that punish (1) or (2) .
  12. Takings Clause is the government shall not take (1) (2) for (3) .

Fundamental Rights

0 Correct out of 1
  1. Fundamental Rights under the Right of Privacy include (1) (2) abortion (3) marriage (4) procreation (5) education (6) raise your family (7) travel and (8) right to vote.
  2. Fundamental Rights under the Right of Privacy include (1) (2) abortion (3) (4) procreation (5) (6) raise your family (7) travel and (8) .
  3. Fundamental Rights under the Right of Privacy include (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (7) and (8) .

Equal Protection

0 Correct out of 2
  1. Alienage means a non-United States citizen will be subject to scrutiny unless (1) related to self-government and the democratic process or (2) a .
  2. Equal Protection Clause means the government cannot treat similarly situated people or groups of people differently when a (1) law is discriminatory on its face (2) or (3) discriminatory motive is present.
  3. Alienage means a non-United States citizen will be subject to scrutiny unless (1) or (2) a congressional law regulating immigration.
  4. Equal Protection Clause means the government cannot treat similarly situated people or groups of people differently when a (1) law is discriminatory on its face (2) or (3) .
  5. Alienage means a non-United States citizen will be subject to scrutiny unless (1) or (2) a .
  6. Equal Protection Clause means the government cannot treat similarly situated people or groups of people differently when a (1) (2) or (3) .

Freedom of Speech

0 Correct out of 12
  1. Private Forums are private properties can restrict speech in (1) a or (2) non-public forum in which speech is reasonably related to some legitimate interest and viewpoint neutral.
  2. Commercial Speech is the Governmental regulation of unprotected commercial speech if (1) false (2) misleading (3) deceptive (4) illegal or (5) .
  3. Free Exercise Clause means the government is prohibited from punishing someone solely on the basis of that person’s (1) or (2) conduct.
  4. Symbolic Speech is speech that refers to expressive or communicative conduct will be restricted if (1) the (2) that government interest is unrelated to suppression of the message and (3) the impact on speech is no greater than necessary to further the important governmental interest.
  5. First Amendment expressly protects the freedom of expression including (1) speech (2) press (3) and (4) association.
  6. Obscenity is the Governmental regulation of lesser protected speech if (1) (2) patently offensive in its sexual portrayal and (3) taken as a whole lacks literary, artistic, or scientific merit.
  7. Incitement of Unlawful Activity occurs when fighting words or true threats are restricted if (1) there is a and (2) speech is aimed at causing imminent illegal activity.
  8. Freedom of Association is the right to participate with others who have similar (1) political (2) or (3) cultural beliefs.
  9. Public Forums means government property is constitutionally required to make speech available if it is (1) content neutral (2) narrowly tailored to serve an important governmental purpose and (3) .
  10. Overbreadth Law is unconstitutional if it regulates (1) than the (2) Constitution allows to be regulated.
  11. Establishment Clause is the governmental prohibition to (1) (2) sponsor a religion or (3) give preference to one religion over another.
  12. Vague Law is unconstitutional if a reasonable person cannot tell whether speech is (1) or (2) permitted.
  13. Private Forums are private properties can restrict speech in (1) a limited or designated public forum via a time, place, and manner restriction or (2) .
  14. Commercial Speech is the Governmental regulation of unprotected commercial speech if (1) (2) misleading (3) (4) or (5) concerns activity.
  15. Free Exercise Clause means the government is prohibited from punishing someone solely on the basis of that person’s (1) or (2) conduct.
  16. Symbolic Speech is speech that refers to expressive or communicative conduct will be restricted if (1) the (2) that and (3) the impact on speech is no greater than necessary to further the important governmental interest.
  17. First Amendment exly protects the freedom of exion including (1) (2) (3) assembly and (4) association.
  18. Obscenity is the Governmental regulation of lesser protected speech if (1) appeals to the prurient interest (2) and (3) .
  19. Incitement of Unlawful Activity occurs when fighting words or true threats are restricted if (1) there is a and (2) speech is aimed at causing imminent illegal activity.
  20. Freedom of Association is the right to participate with others who have similar (1) political (2) or (3) .
  21. Public Forums means government property is constitutionally required to make speech available if it is (1) content neutral (2) and (3) .
  22. Overbreadth Law is unconstitutional if it regulates (1) than the (2) Constitution allows to be regulated.
  23. Establishment Clause is the governmental prohibition to (1) (2) or (3) give preference to one religion over another.
  24. Vague Law is unconstitutional if a reasonable person cannot tell whether speech is (1) or (2) permitted.
  25. Private Forums are private properties can restrict speech in (1) a or (2) .
  26. Commercial Speech is the Governmental regulation of unprotected commercial speech if (1) (2) (3) (4) or (5) concerns activity.
  27. Free Exercise Clause means the government is prohibited from punishing someone solely on the basis of that person’s (1) or (2) .
  28. Symbolic Speech is speech that refers to expressive or communicative conduct will be restricted if (1) the (2) that and (3) the .
  29. First Amendment exly protects the freedom of exion including (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  30. Obscenity is the Governmental regulation of lesser protected speech if (1) (2) and (3) .
  31. Incitement of Unlawful Activity occurs when fighting words or true threats are restricted if (1) there is a and (2) .
  32. Freedom of Association is the right to participate with others who have similar (1) (2) or (3) .
  33. Public Forums means government property is constitutionally required to make speech available if it is (1) (2) and (3) .
  34. Overbreadth Law is unconstitutional if it regulates (1) than the (2) .
  35. Establishment Clause is the governmental prohibition to (1) (2) or (3) .
  36. Vague Law is unconstitutional if a reasonable person cannot tell whether speech is (1) or (2) permitted.
  • 4th Amendment
  • Warrantless Searches
  • Exclusionary Rules
  • Fifth Amendment
  • 6th Amendment
  • Trial Procedures
  • 8th Amendment

4th Amendment

0 Correct out of 8
  1. Automobile Stop occurs when the police have (1) reasonable suspicion that (2) a .
  2. Validity of Search & Seizure must be viewed under reasonableness under the Fourth Amendment unless (1) governmental conduct (2) Defendant has standing (3) or (4) the presence of exigent circumstances.
  3. Probable Cause requires trustworthy facts or knowledge sufficient to a reasonable person to believe that the individual has (1) committed the crime or (2) .
  4. Police Checkpoints to search vehicles must be (1) and (2) serve a purpose related to automobiles.
  5. Reasonable Expectation of Privacy occurs when the individual has exhibited a (1) and (2) whether society is prepared to accept that activity as reasonable.
  6. Detention is a governmental seizure of the person which could be in the form of (1) stop & frisk (2) automobile stop (3) (4) detainment to obtain a search warrant or (5) detainment of occupants of a premise.
  7. Search Warrant requires (1) probable cause (2) precise on its face and (3) .
  8. Arrest occurs when an individual is taken into custody for a (1) or (2) interrogation.
  9. Automobile Stop occurs when the police have (1) that (2) a law was violated.
  10. Validity of Search & Seizure must be viewed under reasonableness under the Fourth Amendment unless (1) governmental conduct (2) (3) valid search warrant or (4) the .
  11. Probable Cause requires trustworthy facts or knowledge sufficient to a reasonable person to believe that the individual has (1) or (2) planning to commit the crime.
  12. Police Checkpoints to search vehicles must be (1) and (2) serve a purpose related to automobiles.
  13. Reasonable Expectation of Privacy occurs when the individual has exhibited a (1) and (2) whether society is prepared to accept that activity as reasonable.
  14. Detention is a governmental seizure of the person which could be in the form of (1) (2) (3) stationhouse detainment (4) or (5) detainment of occupants of a premise.
  15. Search Warrant requires (1) (2) and (3) signed by a neutral detached magistrate.
  16. Arrest occurs when an individual is taken into custody for a (1) criminal investigation purpose or (2) .
  17. Automobile Stop occurs when the police have (1) that (2) a .
  18. Validity of Search & Seizure must be viewed under reasonableness under the Fourth Amendment unless (1) (2) (3) or (4) the .
  19. Probable Cause requires trustworthy facts or knowledge sufficient to a reasonable person to believe that the individual has (1) or (2) .
  20. Police Checkpoints to search vehicles must be (1) and (2) .
  21. Reasonable Expectation of Privacy occurs when the individual has exhibited a (1) and (2) .
  22. Detention is a governmental seizure of the person which could be in the form of (1) (2) (3) (4) or (5) .
  23. Search Warrant requires (1) (2) and (3) .
  24. Arrest occurs when an individual is taken into custody for a (1) or (2) .

Warrantless Searches

0 Correct out of 9
  1. Electronic Surveillance requires a warrant when (1) probable cause that a specific crime has occurred or likely to occur (2) (3) describe with particularity the subject of conversations that are surveilled (4) limited to short time periods and (5) terminate when the information acquired is the information sought.
  2. Stop & Frisk occurs when the police detain a person for investigative purposes if (1) reasonable suspicion of criminally activity is a foot (2) and (3) frisk is limited to plain feel of weapons or contraband.
  3. Public School Searches occur when school officials have (1) reasonable suspicion (2) moderate chance at finding evidence (3) procedure for searching is reasonably related to the objective and (4) .
  4. Exigent Circumstances occurs when the police search and seize evidence without a warrant if (1) hot pursuit (2) emergency aid or (3) .
  5. Automobile Search occurs when the police search a vehicle if (1) probable cause exists and (2) .
  6. Search Incident to Lawful Arrest occurs when the police may search a lawfully arrested person in their immediate surrounding without a warrant if (1) arrest was lawful (2) search was contemporaneous with the arrest and (3) .
  7. Consent to Search occurs when the police search anything if (1) (2) intelligibly made and (3) consenting person has authority to do so.
  8. Administrative Searches are conducted by Government agencies for (1) routine searches or (2) .
  9. Plain View Searches occurs when the police search any place where criminal activity is present when viewing if (1) legitimately on premise (2) criminal activity is immediately apparent and (3) .
  10. Electronic Surveillance requires a warrant when (1) probable cause that a specific crime has occurred or likely to occur (2) (3) (4) and (5) terminate when the information acquired is the information sought.
  11. Stop & Frisk occurs when the police detain a person for investigative purposes if (1) (2) length of detainment is no longer than necessary and (3) .
  12. Public School Searches occur when school officials have (1) (2) (3) procedure for searching is reasonably related to the objective and (4) search is not overly intrusive.
  13. Exigent Circumstances occurs when the police search and seize evidence without a warrant if (1) (2) emergency aid or (3) .
  14. Automobile Search occurs when the police search a vehicle if (1) and (2) probable cause arises prior to the search beginning.
  15. Search Incident to Lawful Arrest occurs when the police may search a lawfully arrested person in their immediate surrounding without a warrant if (1) arrest was lawful (2) and (3) .
  16. Consent to Search occurs when the police search anything if (1) (2) and (3) consenting person has authority to do so.
  17. Administrative Searches are conducted by Government agencies for (1) or (2) inspections of highly regulated business or industries.
  18. Plain View Searches occurs when the police search any place where criminal activity is present when viewing if (1) (2) criminal activity is immediately apparent and (3) .
  19. Electronic Surveillance requires a warrant when (1) (2) (3) (4) and (5) .
  20. Stop & Frisk occurs when the police detain a person for investigative purposes if (1) (2) and (3) .
  21. Public School Searches occur when school officials have (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  22. Exigent Circumstances occurs when the police search and seize evidence without a warrant if (1) (2) or (3) .
  23. Automobile Search occurs when the police search a vehicle if (1) and (2) .
  24. Search Incident to Lawful Arrest occurs when the police may search a lawfully arrested person in their immediate surrounding without a warrant if (1) (2) and (3) .
  25. Consent to Search occurs when the police search anything if (1) (2) and (3) .
  26. Administrative Searches are conducted by Government agencies for (1) or (2) .
  27. Plain View Searches occurs when the police search any place where criminal activity is present when viewing if (1) (2) and (3) .

Exclusionary Rules

0 Correct out of 2
  1. Exclusionary Rule is illegally obtained evidence is excluded against the defendant unless (1) government had an independent source to obtain the evidence (2) or (3) attenuation.
  2. Exclusionary Rule doesn’t apply to (1) (2) parole or civil proceedings (3) violations of knock and announce rules or (4) evidence seized as a result of a Miranda violation.
  3. Exclusionary Rule is illegally obtained evidence is excluded against the defendant unless (1) (2) or (3) attenuation.
  4. Exclusionary Rule doesn’t apply to (1) (2) parole or civil proceedings (3) violations of knock and announce rules or (4) .
  5. Exclusionary Rule is illegally obtained evidence is excluded against the defendant unless (1) (2) or (3) .
  6. Exclusionary Rule doesn’t apply to (1) (2) (3) or (4) .

Fifth Amendment

0 Correct out of 7
  1. Fifth Amendment of the United States Constitution protects (1) (2) in any proceeding (3) whom have the right to not respond to questions that might incriminate themselves.
  2. Waving Miranda occurs when (1) knowing (2) and (3) intelligently made.
  3. Retrial occurs when (1) hung jury (2) manifest necessity (3) successful appeal (4) or (5) separate sovereigns.
  4. Miranda Warnings apply to individuals when (1) in custody and (2) .
  5. Invoking Miranda occurs when an individual (1) or (2) right to their fifth amendment right to counsel.
  6. Double Jeopardy occurs when the defendant cannot be retried for the same offense if (1) jury is sworn in (2) first witness is sworn in or (3) a .
  7. Miranda Warnings is the (1) right to remain silent as anything said can be used against them (2) right to an attorney and (3) .
  8. Fifth Amendment of the United States Constitution protects (1) (2) in (3) whom have the right to not respond to questions that might incriminate themselves.
  9. Waving Miranda occurs when (1) (2) and (3) intelligently made.
  10. Retrial occurs when (1) hung jury (2) (3) successful appeal (4) or (5) .
  11. Miranda Warnings apply to individuals when (1) in custody and (2) .
  12. Invoking Miranda occurs when an individual (1) or (2) right to their fifth amendment right to counsel.
  13. Double Jeopardy occurs when the defendant cannot be retried for the same offense if (1) (2) first witness is sworn in or (3) a .
  14. Miranda Warnings is the (1) right to remain silent as anything said can be used against them (2) and (3) .
  15. Fifth Amendment of the United States Constitution protects (1) (2) in (3) .
  16. Waving Miranda occurs when (1) (2) and (3) .
  17. Retrial occurs when (1) (2) (3) (4) or (5) .
  18. Miranda Warnings apply to individuals when (1) and (2) .
  19. Invoking Miranda occurs when an individual (1) or (2) .
  20. Double Jeopardy occurs when the defendant cannot be retried for the same offense if (1) (2) or (3) a .
  21. Miranda Warnings is the (1) (2) and (3) .

6th Amendment

0 Correct out of 1
  1. Sixth Amendment Right to Counsel attaches automatically when (1) and (2) offense specific.
  2. Sixth Amendment Right to Counsel attaches automatically when (1) and (2) offense specific.
  3. Sixth Amendment Right to Counsel attaches automatically when (1) and (2) .

Trial Procedures

0 Correct out of 5
  1. Admissions must be made (1) voluntarily and (2) .
  2. Confrontation Clause grants every Defendant the right to confront the witnesses when (1) an out of court statement is (2) offered against the Defendant (3) in a criminal case and (4) .
  3. Grand Jury Proceedings are (1) required in federal court (2) held in secret where (3) suspect has no right to confront witnesses (4) and (5) no right to counsel.
  4. Plea Bargain occurs when the Defendant’s plea is (1) (2) intelligently made and (3) understands the nature of their charge including critical elements, maximum penalty, right to plead not guilty, and right to a jury trial.
  5. Jury Requirements consist of (1) at least 6 jurors (2) unanimous decision (3) jury pool must be a representative cross-section of the community (4) and (5) afforded peremptory challenges.
  6. Admissions must be made (1) and (2) based on the totality of the circumstances.
  7. Confrontation Clause grants every Defendant the right to confront the witnesses when (1) (2) offered against the Defendant (3) and (4) may be excluded if the declarant is unavailable.
  8. Grand Jury Proceedings are (1) required in federal court (2) (3) (4) and (5) no right to counsel.
  9. Plea Bargain occurs when the Defendant’s plea is (1) (2) and (3) understands the nature of their charge including critical elements, maximum penalty, right to plead not guilty, and right to a jury trial.
  10. Jury Requirements consist of (1) (2) unanimous decision (3) (4) and (5) afforded peremptory challenges.
  11. Admissions must be made (1) and (2) .
  12. Confrontation Clause grants every Defendant the right to confront the witnesses when (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  13. Grand Jury Proceedings are (1) (2) (3) (4) and (5) .
  14. Plea Bargain occurs when the Defendant’s plea is (1) (2) and (3) .
  15. Jury Requirements consist of (1) (2) (3) (4) and (5) .

8th Amendment

0 Correct out of 2
  1. Death Penalty is only imposed if the victim dies as a result of the Defendant’s crime unless (1) the Defendant was a minor when the crime was committed (2) mentally disabled (3) insane at the time of the criminal execution or (4) .
  2. Cruel and Unusual Punishment consists of (1) any cruel or (2) is banned that is (3) grossly disproportionate to the charged offense.
  3. Death Penalty is only imposed if the victim dies as a result of the Defendant’s crime unless (1) the Defendant was a minor when the crime was committed (2) (3) or (4) conviction was for felony murder when Defendant was not a participant or didn’t act with depraved heart.
  4. Cruel and Unusual Punishment consists of (1) or (2) unusual punishment is banned that is (3) .
  5. Death Penalty is only imposed if the victim dies as a result of the Defendant’s crime unless (1) the Defendant was a (2) (3) or (4) .
  6. Cruel and Unusual Punishment consists of (1) or (2) is banned that is (3) .
  • Personal Jurisdiction
  • Subject Matter Jurisdiction
  • Venue 
  • Service of Process
  • Interlocutory Injunctions
  • Pleadings and Motions
  • Joining Claims
  • Class Actions
  • Discovery
  • Pretrial, Trial, and Appeal 

Personal Jurisdiction

0 Correct out of 6
  1. Personal Jurisdiction consists of (1) (2) in rem or (3) quasi in rem.
  2. Fairness Factors requires Due Process to be fair when (1) relatedness of contacts and claims (2) and (3) state interest.
  3. Minimum Contacts with the forum state must be (1) present (2) such that it doesn’t offend the traditional notions of fair play and (3) .
  4. Notice requires that Defendant must be sufficiently notified of a pending lawsuit in which notice must be reasonably calculated under the circumstances to apprise interested parties of the (1) and (2) afford an opportunity to be heard.
  5. Personal Jurisdiction is the court’s ability to exercise authority over a (1) or (2) ’s property.
  6. Personal Jurisdiction is lawful if (1) service of process is done in the forum state (2) domiciled in the forum state (3) consent to jurisdiction or (4) .
  7. Personal Jurisdiction consists of (1) (2) in rem or (3) .
  8. Fairness Factors requires Due Process to be fair when (1) (2) convenience and (3) .
  9. Minimum Contacts with the forum state must be (1) (2) and (3) substantial justice.
  10. Notice requires that Defendant must be sufficiently notified of a pending lawsuit in which notice must be reasonably calculated under the circumstances to apprise interested parties of the (1) action and (2) .
  11. Personal Jurisdiction is the court’s ability to exercise authority over a (1) party or (2) .
  12. Personal Jurisdiction is lawful if (1) (2) domiciled in the forum state (3) or (4) Defendant’s actions fall within state’s long-arm statutes.
  13. Personal Jurisdiction consists of (1) (2) or (3) quasi .
  14. Fairness Factors requires Due Process to be fair when (1) (2) and (3) .
  15. Minimum Contacts with the forum state must be (1) (2) and (3) .
  16. Notice requires that Defendant must be sufficiently notified of a pending lawsuit in which notice must be reasonably calculated under the circumstances to apprise interested parties of the (1) and (2) .
  17. Personal Jurisdiction is the court’s ability to exercise authority over a (1) or (2) ’s property.
  18. Personal Jurisdiction is lawful if (1) (2) (3) or (4) .

Subject Matter Jurisdiction

0 Correct out of 15
  1. Diversity Jurisdiction is Federal courts have subject matter jurisdiction over (1) controversies between citizens of different states and (2) .
  2. Exclusive Jurisdiction is when Federal courts have exclusive jurisdiction over certain types of claims including (1) bankruptcy (2) intellectual property (3) federal anti-trust claims or (4) .
  3. Business Corporations are citizens of every state where (1) incorporation occurs and (2) .
  4. Federal Question is when Federal courts have jurisdiction over proper pleaded claims arising under federal law if the (1) and (2) not based on allegations or potential defenses.
  5. State Substantive Law will always govern (1) elements of a claim or defense (2) statute of limitations (3) conflict or choice of law rules or (4) .
  6. Citizenship for Complete Diversity is every Plaintiff must (1) be of diverse citizenship (2) .
  7. Natural Citizens are citizens of the state where (1) they are domiciled (2) at the .
  8. Aggregation is the Plaintiff’s compiling of multiple claims against a (1) single Defendant (2) .
  9. Erie Doctrine is the federal courts application of state substantive law and federal procedural law when (1) there is a valid federal law that is on point and directly conflicts with state law or (2) if no federal law is on point, then apply either state law .
  10. Removal Jurisdiction is the Defendant can remove a case, other than diversity jurisdiction filed in Defendants home state, if (1) federal court would have had subject matter jurisdiction (2) all Defendants agree and (3) .
  11. Supplemental Jurisdiction allows federal courts to hear additional claims that on their own would not meet Diversity or Federal Question Jurisdiction if (1) case is already in federal court and (2) each additional claim must .
  12. Subject Matter Jurisdiction is Federal courts must have authority over the claim in question with either (1) (2) Federal Question Jurisdiction (3) Supplemental Jurisdiction or (4) Removal Jurisdiction
  13. Domicile factors include (1) physical presence in the state and (2) .
  14. Amount in Controversy is the Plaintiff’s complaint must make a (1) good faith allegation of the damages and (2) .
  15. Unincorporated Businesses are Citizens of all states in which (1) or (2) member is a citizen.
  16. Diversity Jurisdiction is Federal courts have subject matter jurisdiction over (1) and (2) amount in controversy exceeds $75,000.
  17. Exclusive Jurisdiction is when Federal courts have exclusive jurisdiction over certain types of claims including (1) (2) (3) federal anti-trust claims or (4) postal matters.
  18. Business Corporations are citizens of every state where (1) incorporation occurs and (2) .
  19. Federal Question is when Federal courts have jurisdiction over proper pleaded claims arising under federal law if the (1) federal question appears on the face of the complaint and (2) .
  20. State Substantive Law will always govern (1) elements of a claim or defense (2) (3) or (4) rules for tolling .
  21. Citizenship for Complete Diversity is every Plaintiff must (1) be of diverse citizenship (2) .
  22. Natural Citizens are citizens of the state where (1) they are (2) at the time of the lawsuit.
  23. Aggregation is the Plaintiff’s compiling of multiple claims against a (1) single Defendant (2) .
  24. Erie Doctrine is the federal courts application of state substantive law and federal procedural law when (1) there is a or (2) if no federal law is on point, then apply either state law if outcome determinative or law that has a stronger interest or prevent forum shopping.
  25. Removal Jurisdiction is the Defendant can remove a case, other than diversity jurisdiction filed in Defendants home state, if (1) (2) all Defendants agree and (3) .
  26. Supplemental Jurisdiction allows federal courts to hear additional claims that on their own would not meet Diversity or Federal Question Jurisdiction if (1) and (2) each additional claim must share a common nucleus of operative fact with an existing claim.
  27. Subject Matter Jurisdiction is Federal courts must have authority over the claim in question with either (1) (2) Federal Question Jurisdiction (3) or (4) Removal Jurisdiction
  28. Domicile factors include (1) and (2) intent to remain in that state.
  29. Amount in Controversy is the Plaintiff’s complaint must make a (1) good faith allegation of the damages and (2) .
  30. Unincorporated Businesses are Citizens of all states in which (1) or (2) member is a citizen.
  31. Diversity Jurisdiction is Federal courts have subject matter jurisdiction over (1) and (2) .
  32. Exclusive Jurisdiction is when Federal courts have exclusive jurisdiction over certain types of claims including (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  33. Business Corporations are citizens of every state where (1) and (2) .
  34. Federal Question is when Federal courts have jurisdiction over proper pleaded claims arising under federal law if the (1) and (2) .
  35. State Substantive Law will always govern (1) (2) (3) or (4) rules for tolling .
  36. Citizenship for Complete Diversity is every Plaintiff must (1) be of (2) .
  37. Natural Citizens are citizens of the state where (1) they are (2) at the .
  38. Aggregation is the Plaintiff’s compiling of multiple claims against a (1) (2) .
  39. Erie Doctrine is the federal courts application of state substantive law and federal procedural law when (1) there is a or (2) if no federal law is on point, then apply either state law .
  40. Removal Jurisdiction is the Defendant can remove a case, other than diversity jurisdiction filed in Defendants home state, if (1) (2) and (3) .
  41. Supplemental Jurisdiction allows federal courts to hear additional claims that on their own would not meet Diversity or Federal Question Jurisdiction if (1) and (2) each additional claim must .
  42. Subject Matter Jurisdiction is Federal courts must have authority over the claim in question with either (1) (2) (3) or (4)
  43. Domicile factors include (1) and (2) .
  44. Amount in Controversy is the Plaintiff’s complaint must make a (1) and (2) .
  45. Unincorporated Businesses are Citizens of all states in which (1) or (2) .

Venue

0 Correct out of 2
  1. Venue Transfer is a case may be transferred from one federal court to another federal court, unless venue is proper, if (1) or (2) all parties consent to the transfer.
  2. Venue is proper in the judicial district where the Plaintiff brings the suit when (1) any district where any Defendant resides (2) (3) location of property or (4) Defendant is subject to Personal Jurisdiction.
  3. Venue Transfer is a case may be transferred from one federal court to another federal court, unless venue is proper, if (1) or (2) all parties consent to the transfer.
  4. Venue is proper in the judicial district where the Plaintiff brings the suit when (1) any district where any Defendant resides (2) (3) or (4) Defendant is subject to Personal Jurisdiction.
  5. Venue Transfer is a case may be transferred from one federal court to another federal court, unless venue is proper, if (1) or (2) .
  6. Venue is proper in the judicial district where the Plaintiff brings the suit when (1) (2) (3) or (4) .

Service of Process

0 Correct out of 4
  1. Service of Process is the delivery to the Defendant of the (1) and (2) complaint.
  2. Acceptable Methods of Service of Process may be completed by (1) personal service (2) substituted service (3) service upon Defendants authorized agent (4) or (5) any method permitted under state law.
  3. Waiver is when the Plaintiff requests that Defendant waive service of process by (1) and (2) a formal request to waive service.
  4. Any individual may serve (1) and (2) a non-party.
  5. Service of Process is the delivery to the Defendant of the (1) summons and (2) .
  6. Acceptable Methods of Service of Process may be completed by (1) (2) (3) service upon Defendants authorized agent (4) mail or (5) .
  7. Waiver is when the Plaintiff requests that Defendant waive service of process by (1) and (2) a formal request to waive service.
  8. Any individual may serve (1) who are 18 or older and (2) a .
  9. Service of Process is the delivery to the Defendant of the (1) and (2) .
  10. Acceptable Methods of Service of Process may be completed by (1) (2) (3) service upon (4) or (5) .
  11. Waiver is when the Plaintiff requests that Defendant waive service of process by (1) and (2) a .
  12. Any individual may serve (1) and (2) a .

Interlocutory Injunctions

0 Correct out of 2
  1. Temporary Restraining Order are issued by a court when (1) (2) irreparable injury to a party (3) that will result before a hearing can be heard and (4) lasts up to 14 days from issuance.
  2. Preliminary Injunctions are a court order requiring a person to do or to cease doing something may be granted if (1) the and (2) likely hood of success on the merits.
  3. Temporary Restraining Order are issued by a court when (1) necessary to prevent (2) (3) that will result before a hearing can be heard and (4) .
  4. Preliminary Injunctions are a court order requiring a person to do or to cease doing something may be granted if (1) the moving the party will suffer irreparable harm that does not outweigh harm to the adverse party and (2) .
  5. Temporary Restraining Order are issued by a court when (1) (2) (3) that will result and (4) .
  6. Preliminary Injunctions are a court order requiring a person to do or to cease doing something may be granted if (1) the and (2) .

Pleadings and Motions

0 Correct out of 16
  1. Parties may only amend without a right when (1) or (2) leave of court.
  2. Rules 11 sanctions require (1) to allow the opposing party to remedy the issue and (2) a required hearing.
  3. Complaint is the initial pleading filed by the Plaintiff to begin the lawsuit which requires (1) statement of jurisdiction (2) statement of the claim and (3) .
  4. Parties may amend their pleadings once as a matter of course if (1) within 21 days after service or (2) if the pleading is one which .
  5. Motion for judgement of the pleadings is a (1) judgement rendered by the court (2) prior to a verdict (3) resulting from no material issue of facts exists and (4) .
  6. Relation Back Doctrine applies when a party amends a pleading to (1) add a new claim (2) or (3) after the statute of limitations has run.
  7. Answer is a response to the complaint in which (1) and (2) admit or deny each claim of Plaintiff’s complaint.
  8. Permissive Counterclaim is a claim by the Defendant against the Plaintiff that does not arise from (1) the or (2) occurrence.
  9. An amendment will relate back to a new or substituted Defendant if (1) the amendment concerns the same conduct, transaction, or occurrence or (2) when the Defendant knew or should have known about the filing.
  10. Motion to strike is the Defendant request to strike any (1) redundant (2) immaterial (3) or (4) scandalous material in the complaint.
  11. Rule 11 certifications require the attorney or pro se party, to the best of their ability, certify that the (1) filing is not for an improper purpose (2) and (3) factual contentions and denials have or likely to have evidentiary support.
  12. Motion for a more definitive statement is the Defendant requires more information to answer the complaint if the complaint is (1) vague or (2) .
  13. Rule 12 Motions are a Defendant’s response to the validity of Plaintiff’s complaint consisting of (1) lack of subject matter jurisdiction (2) lack of personal jurisdiction (3) improper venue (4) insufficiency of process (5) insufficiency of service of process (6) or (7) failure to join a necessary party.
  14. Cross Claims are a claim asserted by a co-party that have (1) independent jurisdiction and (2) or (3) occurrence.
  15. An amendment will relate back to a new claim if (1) (2) same transaction or (3) occurrence as the original pleading.
  16. Compulsory Counterclaim is a clam by the Defendant against the Plaintiff that arises from (1) the same transaction or (2) .
  17. Parties may only amend without a right when (1) written consent from the adverse party was given or (2) .
  18. Rules 11 sanctions require (1) safe harbor for 21 days to allow the opposing party to remedy the issue and (2) a .
  19. Complaint is the initial pleading filed by the Plaintiff to begin the lawsuit which requires (1) statement of jurisdiction (2) and (3) .
  20. Parties may amend their pleadings once as a matter of course if (1) within 21 days after service or (2) if the pleading is one which .
  21. Motion for judgement of the pleadings is a (1) judgement rendered by the court (2) prior to a verdict (3) resulting from and (4) .
  22. Relation Back Doctrine applies when a party amends a pleading to (1) (2) add or substitute a new Defendant or (3) .
  23. Answer is a response to the complaint in which (1) and (2) admit or deny each claim of Plaintiff’s complaint.
  24. Permissive Counterclaim is a claim by the Defendant against the Plaintiff that does not arise from (1) the or (2) occurrence.
  25. An amendment will relate back to a new or substituted Defendant if (1) the amendment concerns the same or (2) occurs within 90 days of filing of the original pleading when the Defendant knew or should have known about the filing.
  26. Motion to strike is the Defendant request to strike any (1) (2) immaterial (3) impertinent or (4) .
  27. Rule 11 certifications require the attorney or pro se party, to the best of their ability, certify that the (1) (2) non-frivolous legal contentions made are warranted by law and (3) .
  28. Motion for a more definitive statement is the Defendant requires more information to answer the complaint if the complaint is (1) vague or (2) .
  29. Rule 12 Motions are a Defendant’s response to the validity of Plaintiff’s complaint consisting of (1) lack of subject matter jurisdiction (2) (3) improper venue (4) (5) insufficiency of service of process (6) or (7) .
  30. Cross Claims are a claim asserted by a co-party that have (1) and (2) or (3) occurrence.
  31. An amendment will relate back to a new claim if (1) (2) same transaction or (3) .
  32. Compulsory Counterclaim is a clam by the Defendant against the Plaintiff that arises from (1) the or (2) occurrence as any of the Plaintiffs claims.
  33. Parties may only amend without a right when (1) or (2) .
  34. Rules 11 sanctions require (1) to allow the opposing party to remedy the issue and (2) a .
  35. Complaint is the initial pleading filed by the Plaintiff to begin the lawsuit which requires (1) (2) and (3) .
  36. Parties may amend their pleadings once as a matter of course if (1) or (2) if the pleading is one which .
  37. Motion for judgement of the pleadings is a (1) (2) (3) resulting from and (4) .
  38. Relation Back Doctrine applies when a party amends a pleading to (1) (2) or (3) .
  39. Answer is a response to the complaint in which (1) and (2) of Plaintiff’s complaint.
  40. Permissive Counterclaim is a claim by the Defendant against the Plaintiff that does not arise from (1) the or (2) .
  41. An amendment will relate back to a new or substituted Defendant if (1) the amendment concerns the same or (2) when the Defendant knew or should have known about the filing.
  42. Motion to strike is the Defendant request to strike any (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  43. Rule 11 certifications require the attorney or pro se party, to the best of their ability, certify that the (1) (2) and (3) .
  44. Motion for a more definitive statement is the Defendant requires more information to answer the complaint if the complaint is (1) or (2) .
  45. Rule 12 Motions are a Defendant’s response to the validity of Plaintiff’s complaint consisting of (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) or (7) .
  46. Cross Claims are a claim asserted by a co-party that have (1) and (2) or (3) .
  47. An amendment will relate back to a new claim if (1) (2) or (3) .
  48. Compulsory Counterclaim is a clam by the Defendant against the Plaintiff that arises from (1) the or (2) .

Joining Claims

0 Correct out of 9
  1. Impleader allows Defendant to join a non-party who may be liable to Defendant for all, or part of the claim brought by Plaintiff against the original Defendant if (1) Defendant impleaded a third-party defendant by filing a complaint within 14 days after serving their answer (2) Defendant cannot claim that third party Defendant is solely liable to Plaintiff and (3) .
  2. Statutory Interpleader allows a property holder to initiate a suit to compel claimants to the property to litigate a dispute if (1) less than or equal to $500 (2) minimal diversity is present (3) and (4) nationwide service.
  3. Indispensable Party is a necessary party who cannot join in which the court could dismiss the claim after evaluating (1) alternative forum availability (2) likelihood of prejudice (3) and (4) adequate remedies available for the Plaintiff if case is dismissed.
  4. Permissive Joinder is when the Plaintiff seeks to join non-parties as co-plaintiffs or co-defendants if (1) the event is of the (2) common questions of fact or law arise and (3) court has jurisdiction over parties and claims.
  5. Intervention as a right is when a non-party must join an already pending suit if either (1) or (2) absent non-party has an unconditional statutory right.
  6. Necessary Parties are absent parties may be forced to join the suit when either (1) without absentee court cannot grant complete relief (2) absentee’s legal interest may be impaired or (3) .
  7. Permissive Intervention is allowed at the court’s discretion if either (1) absentee has a claim or defense that shares a common question of law with the underlying action (2) absentee has a conditional statutory right or (3) .
  8. Necessary Parties must be under (1) personal jurisdiction of the court and (2) .
  9. Rule 22 Interpleader allows a property holder to initiate a suit to compel claimants to the property to litigate a dispute if (1) Federal Question Jurisdiction or Complete Diversity Jurisdiction (2) no nationwide service required and (3) .
  10. Impleader allows Defendant to join a non-party who may be liable to Defendant for all, or part of the claim brought by Plaintiff against the original Defendant if (1) Defendant impleaded a third-party defendant by filing a complaint (2) Defendant cannot claim that third party Defendant is solely liable to Plaintiff and (3) .
  11. Statutory Interpleader allows a property holder to initiate a suit to compel claimants to the property to litigate a dispute if (1) (2) (3) deposit property with the court and (4) nationwide service.
  12. Indispensable Party is a necessary party who cannot join in which the court could dismiss the claim after evaluating (1) alternative forum availability (2) (3) and (4) adequate remedies available for the Plaintiff if case is dismissed.
  13. Permissive Joinder is when the Plaintiff seeks to join non-parties as co-plaintiffs or co-defendants if (1) the event is of the same transaction or occurrence (2) and (3) .
  14. Intervention as a right is when a non-party must join an already pending suit if either (1) or (2) absent non-party has an unconditional statutory right.
  15. Necessary Parties are absent parties may be forced to join the suit when either (1) (2) or (3) absentee has an interest that creates a risk of multiple or inconsistent rulings.
  16. Permissive Intervention is allowed at the court’s discretion if either (1) (2) absentee has a conditional statutory right or (3) .
  17. Necessary Parties must be under (1) and (2) joining the parties will not destroy diversity jurisdiction.
  18. Rule 22 Interpleader allows a property holder to initiate a suit to compel claimants to the property to litigate a dispute if (1) Federal Question Jurisdiction or Complete Diversity Jurisdiction (2) and (3) .
  19. Impleader allows Defendant to join a non-party who may be liable to Defendant for all, or part of the claim brought by Plaintiff against the original Defendant if (1) Defendant impleaded a third-party defendant by filing a complaint (2) and (3) .
  20. Statutory Interpleader allows a property holder to initiate a suit to compel claimants to the property to litigate a dispute if (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  21. Indispensable Party is a necessary party who cannot join in which the court could dismiss the claim after evaluating (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  22. Permissive Joinder is when the Plaintiff seeks to join non-parties as co-plaintiffs or co-defendants if (1) the event is of the (2) and (3) .
  23. Intervention as a right is when a non-party must join an already pending suit if either (1) or (2) .
  24. Necessary Parties are absent parties may be forced to join the suit when either (1) (2) or (3) .
  25. Permissive Intervention is allowed at the court’s discretion if either (1) (2) or (3) .
  26. Necessary Parties must be under (1) and (2) .
  27. Rule 22 Interpleader allows a property holder to initiate a suit to compel claimants to the property to litigate a dispute if (1) (2) and (3) .

Class Actions

0 Correct out of 8
  1. Settlement for class action lawsuits must be (1) approved by the court (2) (3) reasonable and (4) adequate.
  2. Personal Jurisdiction for class actions apply to named class members and require (1) due process satisfied by reasonably adequate notice to class members (2) and (3) adequate representation.
  3. Rule 23(b)(2) of Class Actions for Injunctive Relief means an injunctive judgement can be obtained if (1) damages cannot be sought (2) and (3) no right to opt out.
  4. Rule 23(b)(3) of Class Actions for Monetary Damages means a large class action can be sought if (1) common question of law or fact are predominated over individual questions (2) (3) class members may opt out and (4) must receive reasonable notice.
  5. Judgement for class action lawsuits (1) binds all absent class members unless (2) .
  6. Class Action Certification is a court’s determination whether to allow the case to proceed as a class action if (1) and (2) appointed counsel must fairly and adequately represent the interest of the whole class.
  7. Diversity Jurisdiction for class actions require (1) diverse class representatives from all opposing parties and (2) .
  8. Rule 23 of Class Actions means an individual or small group can represent a larger class sharing a common question in a lawsuit if (1) numerosity (2) commonality (3) and (4) adequacy are all present.
  9. Settlement for class action lawsuits must be (1) approved by the court (2) (3) and (4) adequate.
  10. Personal Jurisdiction for class actions apply to named class members and require (1) due process satisfied by reasonably adequate notice to class members (2) and (3) .
  11. Rule 23(b)(2) of Class Actions for Injunctive Relief means an injunctive judgement can be obtained if (1) (2) notice may be at the discretion of the court and (3) .
  12. Rule 23(b)(3) of Class Actions for Monetary Damages means a large class action can be sought if (1) common question of law or fact are (2) class action is superior to other procedures to resolve the dispute (3) and (4) must receive reasonable notice.
  13. Judgement for class action lawsuits (1) unless (2) opt out is applicable.
  14. Class Action Certification is a court’s determination whether to allow the case to proceed as a class action if (1) and (2) appointed counsel must fairly and adequately represent the interest of the whole class.
  15. Diversity Jurisdiction for class actions require (1) and (2) one class representative claim that exceeds $75,000.
  16. Rule 23 of Class Actions means an individual or small group can represent a larger class sharing a common question in a lawsuit if (1) (2) commonality (3) and (4) adequacy are all present.
  17. Settlement for class action lawsuits must be (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  18. Personal Jurisdiction for class actions apply to named class members and require (1) (2) and (3) .
  19. Rule 23(b)(2) of Class Actions for Injunctive Relief means an injunctive judgement can be obtained if (1) (2) and (3) .
  20. Rule 23(b)(3) of Class Actions for Monetary Damages means a large class action can be sought if (1) common question of law or fact are (2) (3) and (4) .
  21. Judgement for class action lawsuits (1) unless (2) .
  22. Class Action Certification is a court’s determination whether to allow the case to proceed as a class action if (1) and (2) appointed counsel must .
  23. Diversity Jurisdiction for class actions require (1) and (2) .
  24. Rule 23 of Class Actions means an individual or small group can represent a larger class sharing a common question in a lawsuit if (1) (2) (3) and (4) are all present.

Discovery

0 Correct out of 15
  1. Work Product Privilege protects material prepared in anticipation of litigation or trial are not discoverable unless the opposing party shows (1) and (2) undue hardship to obtain the materials by other means.
  2. Request for Admission are written requests to parties to answer the truth of discoverable information with an (1) admit (2) or (3) lacks sufficient knowledge within 30 days of service.
  3. Expert disclosures require the identity of experts who may be used at trial and must occur (1) at least 90 days prior to trial (2) produce a report containing experts’ opinion (3) data used and (4) .
  4. Physical or Mental Examination of another party is available through the court when (1) the and (2) good cause is shown for the purpose of the examination.
  5. Discovery is material if (1) non-privileged (2) relevant to a claim or defense and (3) .
  6. Attorney Client Privilege protects information exchanged confidentially between an attorney and client when (1) made between client and counsel (2) and (3) was made for the purpose of obtaining or providing legal advice.
  7. Discovery is a court mandated process of (1) acquiring (2) (3) parties and non-party witnesses.
  8. Mandatory Disclosures are required to the opposing party regardless of request including (1) (2) damages sought and (3) insurance.
  9. Interrogatories are written questions proposed by one party to an opposing party (1) to ask about the identity of documents and (2) (3) limited to 25 questions per party and (4) respond within 30 days of service.
  10. Protective Order is a court order limiting discovery of material sought by a party to prevent disclosure of privileged material where the moving party must (1) certify they have or (2) .
  11. Requests for Production are written requests to one party to make documents or other items within the parties control available for (1) review (2) copy or (3) .
  12. Pretrial disclosures require the parties of the suit to (1) give detailed information about the evidence to be used at trial (2) .
  13. Depositions are oral proceedings in which an attorney (1) (2) not exceed 7 hours and (3) no more than 10 total depositions.
  14. Undiscoverable privileged material includes (1) attorney-client (2) work product (3) physician patient (4) clergy (5) (6) journalist source and (7) Fifth Amendment right of self-incrimination.
  15. Meet and Confer must (1) take place 21 days before scheduling conference (2) to discuss claims, defenses, and settlement and (3) .
  16. Work Product Privilege protects material prepared in anticipation of litigation or trial are not discoverable unless the opposing party shows (1) substantial need for the material and (2) .
  17. Request for Admission are written requests to parties to answer the truth of discoverable information with an (1) admit (2) or (3) .
  18. Expert disclosures require the identity of experts who may be used at trial and must occur (1) at least 90 days prior to trial (2) produce a report containing experts’ opinion (3) and (4) .
  19. Physical or Mental Examination of another party is available through the court when (1) the and (2) good cause is shown for the purpose of the examination.
  20. Discovery is material if (1) (2) relevant to a claim or defense and (3) .
  21. Attorney Client Privilege protects information exchanged confidentially between an attorney and client when (1) made (2) and (3) was made for the purpose of obtaining or providing legal advice.
  22. Discovery is a court mandated process of (1) (2) (3) parties and non-party witnesses.
  23. Mandatory Disclosures are required to the opposing party regardless of request including (1) (2) damages sought and (3) .
  24. Interrogatories are written questions proposed by one party to an opposing party (1) to ask about the and (2) people who have knowledge pertinent to claims and defenses (3) limited to 25 questions per party and (4) .
  25. Protective Order is a court order limiting discovery of material sought by a party to prevent disclosure of privileged material where the moving party must (1) or (2) attempted to meet and confer to resolve the dispute.
  26. Requests for Production are written requests to one party to make documents or other items within the parties control available for (1) (2) copy or (3) .
  27. Pretrial disclosures require the parties of the suit to (1) give detailed information about the evidence to be used at trial (2) .
  28. Depositions are oral proceedings in which an attorney (1) (2) and (3) no more than 10 total depositions.
  29. Undiscoverable privileged material includes (1) (2) (3) physician patient (4) (5) marital (6) journalist source and (7) .
  30. Meet and Confer must (1) take place 21 days before scheduling conference (2) to and (3) .
  31. Work Product Privilege protects material prepared in anticipation of litigation or trial are not discoverable unless the opposing party shows (1) and (2) .
  32. Request for Admission are written requests to parties to answer the truth of discoverable information with an (1) (2) or (3) .
  33. Expert disclosures require the identity of experts who may be used at trial and must occur (1) at least (2) (3) and (4) .
  34. Physical or Mental Examination of another party is available through the court when (1) the and (2) .
  35. Discovery is material if (1) (2) and (3) .
  36. Attorney Client Privilege protects information exchanged confidentially between an attorney and client when (1) made (2) and (3) was .
  37. Discovery is a court mandated process of (1) (2) (3) .
  38. Mandatory Disclosures are required to the opposing party regardless of request including (1) (2) and (3) .
  39. Interrogatories are written questions proposed by one party to an opposing party (1) to ask about the and (2) (3) per party and (4) .
  40. Protective Order is a court order limiting discovery of material sought by a party to prevent disclosure of privileged material where the moving party must (1) or (2) .
  41. Requests for Production are written requests to one party to make documents or other items within the parties control available for (1) (2) or (3) .
  42. Pretrial disclosures require the parties of the suit to (1) give (2) .
  43. Depositions are oral proceedings in which an attorney (1) (2) and (3) .
  44. Undiscoverable privileged material includes (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) and (7) .
  45. Meet and Confer must (1) take place (2) to and (3) .

Pretrial, Trial, and Appeal

0 Correct out of 11
  1. Motion to Set Aside Judgement or Order may be granted by a court to relieve a party from judgement or order when any of the following are present (1) a mistake was made (2) new undiscoverable evidence at time of trial (3) fraud or misrepresentation (4) void judgement (5) (6) any other reason that justifies relief.
  2. Issue Preclusion prevents re-litigation of a particular issue of fact or law that have been previously litigated when (1) final judgement on the merits (2) same issue (3) and (4) asserted against actual party in previous case.
  3. Appellate Courts review protentional errors by lower courts when (1) appealed within 30 days of entry of final judgement (2) and (3) questions of facts will not be disturbed.
  4. Summary Judgement can be filed by either party (1) no less than 30 days after the close of discovery where the moving party must show (2) no genuine issue of material fact and (3) .
  5. Default Judgement entered by Clerk may occur if (1) Plaintiff files for default judgement against Defendant (2) (3) Claim is for money damages (4) Plaintiff provides an affidavit of sum owed and (5) Defendant is not a minor or incompetent.
  6. Interlocutory Appeals can be filed prior to judgement when the appeal pertains to (1) (2) class action certification (3) collateral order (4) appointment of receivership (5) admiralty (6) bankruptcy (7) mandamus and (8) property.
  7. Renewed Judgement as a Matter of Law is a motion brought by either party (1) after the court enters judgement based in the jury verdict (2) renewed by the losing party (3) brought and (4) there is insufficient evidence for a reasonable jury to have reached the verdict.
  8. Motion for New Trial may be filed by either party (1) within and (2) judgement was entered based upon a serious error.
  9. Claim Preclusion occurs when one party had an opportunity to litigate the claim and cannot refile once final judgement has been ordered if (1) (2) same claim (3) final judgement on the merits.
  10. Voluntarily Dismissal occurs when the Plaintiff dismisses their case (1) with cause or (2) .
  11. Judgement as a Matter of Law is a motion brought by either party (1) prior to the case going to jury and (2) a reasonable jury would not have .
  12. Motion to Set Aside Judgement or Order may be granted by a court to relieve a party from judgement or order when any of the following are present (1) a mistake was made (2) (3) fraud or misrepresentation (4) void judgement (5) (6) .
  13. Issue Preclusion prevents re-litigation of a particular issue of fact or law that have been previously litigated when (1) (2) (3) issue was essential to judgement and (4) asserted against actual party in previous case.
  14. Appellate Courts review protentional errors by lower courts when (1) (2) de novo standard of review and (3) will not be disturbed.
  15. Summary Judgement can be filed by either party (1) no less than 30 days after the close of discovery where the moving party must show (2) and (3) .
  16. Default Judgement entered by Clerk may occur if (1) (2) Defendant has not responded at all (3) (4) and (5) Defendant is not a minor or incompetent.
  17. Interlocutory Appeals can be filed prior to judgement when the appeal pertains to (1) injunction (2) (3) collateral order (4) appointment of receivership (5) admiralty (6) (7) and (8) .
  18. Renewed Judgement as a Matter of Law is a motion brought by either party (1) (2) (3) brought within 28 days after entry of judgement and (4) there is insufficient evidence for a reasonable jury to have reached the verdict.
  19. Motion for New Trial may be filed by either party (1) within and (2) judgement was entered based upon a serious error.
  20. Claim Preclusion occurs when one party had an opportunity to litigate the claim and cannot refile once final judgement has been ordered if (1) (2) same claim (3) .
  21. Voluntarily Dismissal occurs when the Plaintiff dismisses their case (1) with cause or (2) .
  22. Judgement as a Matter of Law is a motion brought by either party (1) prior to the case going to jury and (2) a reasonable jury would not have .
  23. Motion to Set Aside Judgement or Order may be granted by a court to relieve a party from judgement or order when any of the following are present (1) a (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) .
  24. Issue Preclusion prevents re-litigation of a particular issue of fact or law that have been previously litigated when (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  25. Appellate Courts review protentional errors by lower courts when (1) (2) and (3) will not be disturbed.
  26. Summary Judgement can be filed by either party (1) where the moving party must show (2) and (3) .
  27. Default Judgement entered by Clerk may occur if (1) (2) (3) (4) and (5) .
  28. Interlocutory Appeals can be filed prior to judgement when the appeal pertains to (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (7) and (8) .
  29. Renewed Judgement as a Matter of Law is a motion brought by either party (1) (2) (3) brought and (4) there is for a reasonable jury to have reached the verdict.
  30. Motion for New Trial may be filed by either party (1) within and (2) judgement was .
  31. Claim Preclusion occurs when one party had an opportunity to litigate the claim and cannot refile once final judgement has been ordered if (1) (2) (3) .
  32. Voluntarily Dismissal occurs when the Plaintiff dismisses their case (1) or (2) .
  33. Judgement as a Matter of Law is a motion brought by either party (1) and (2) a reasonable jury would not have .
  • Estates in Land
  • Concurrent Estates
  • Leasehold Estates
  • Servitudes
  • Adverse Possession
  • Land Sale Contracts
  • Mortgages

Estates in Land

0 Correct out of 10
  1. Life Estate is an (1) that (2) lasts only for the life of the interest holder.
  2. Fee Simple Determinable is a fee simple estate which is potentially infinite that occurs (1) upon a given event or condition (2) grantor retains a possibility of reverter and (3) freely transferable.
  3. Fee Simple Subject to an Executory Interest is a potentially infinite fee simple estate that (1) automatically transfers upon a given event or condition (2) to a third party that is (3) .
  4. Ameliorative Waste is a type of waste where the Life Tenant (1) that (2) economically benefits the land.
  5. Vested Remainder is a remainder that automatically becomes possessory upon the natural expiration of the preceding events if (1) indefeasibly vested remainders (2) or (3) vested remainder subject to open (a class gift).
  6. Contingent Remainder is a remainder that is not automatically possessory but contingent if (1) subject to a condition precedent or (2) created in favor of an .
  7. Rule Against Perpetuities is an interest in land must (1) vest or fail (2) within a life in being at the time of creation (3) .
  8. Permissive Waste is a type of waste where the Life Tenant cannot harm the property including (1) neglect (2) or (3) interest on encumbrances.
  9. Affirmative Waste is a type of waste that the Life Tenant cannot consume or exploit the natural resources of the land except (1) necessary for repairs (2) grant or (3) lands was exploited prior to grant.
  10. Fee Simple Subject to Condition Subsequent is a potentially infinite fee simple estate that (1) grantor retains the right of reentry (2) not automatically forfeited and (3) .
  11. Life Estate is an (1) interest in land that (2) lasts only .
  12. Fee Simple Determinable is a fee simple estate which is potentially infinite that occurs (1) upon a given event or condition (2) grantor retains a possibility of reverter and (3) .
  13. Fee Simple Subject to an Executory Interest is a potentially infinite fee simple estate that (1) upon a given event or condition (2) to a third party that is (3) .
  14. Ameliorative Waste is a type of waste where the Life Tenant (1) that (2) economically benefits the land.
  15. Vested Remainder is a remainder that automatically becomes possessory upon the natural expiration of the preceding events if (1) (2) vested remainders subject to total divestment or (3) (a class gift).
  16. Contingent Remainder is a remainder that is not automatically possessory but contingent if (1) or (2) created in favor of an unascertained person.
  17. Rule Against Perpetuities is an interest in land must (1) vest or fail (2) (3) .
  18. Permissive Waste is a type of waste where the Life Tenant cannot harm the property including (1) (2) or (3) interest on encumbrances.
  19. Affirmative Waste is a type of waste that the Life Tenant cannot consume or exploit the natural resources of the land except (1) (2) grant expressly gives right to exploit or (3) lands was .
  20. Fee Simple Subject to Condition Subsequent is a potentially infinite fee simple estate that (1) grantor retains the (2) not automatically forfeited and (3) .
  21. Life Estate is an (1) that (2) lasts only .
  22. Fee Simple Determinable is a fee simple estate which is potentially infinite that occurs (1) upon a given event or condition (2) grantor retains a and (3) .
  23. Fee Simple Subject to an Executory Interest is a potentially infinite fee simple estate that (1) upon a given event or condition (2) to a that is (3) .
  24. Ameliorative Waste is a type of waste where the Life Tenant (1) that (2) .
  25. Vested Remainder is a remainder that automatically becomes possessory upon the natural expiration of the preceding events if (1) (2) or (3) (a class gift).
  26. Contingent Remainder is a remainder that is not automatically possessory but contingent if (1) or (2) created in favor of an .
  27. Rule Against Perpetuities is an interest in land must (1) (2) (3) .
  28. Permissive Waste is a type of waste where the Life Tenant cannot harm the property including (1) (2) or (3) .
  29. Affirmative Waste is a type of waste that the Life Tenant cannot consume or exploit the natural resources of the land except (1) (2) grant or (3) lands was .
  30. Fee Simple Subject to Condition Subsequent is a potentially infinite fee simple estate that (1) grantor retains the (2) and (3) .

Concurrent Estates

0 Correct out of 6
  1. Joint Tenancy is an estate that is created when (1) time (2) (3) interest and (4) possession concurrently exist among the tenants when they take their interest.
  2. Severance of a Tenancy by the Entirety creates a Tenancy in Common when (1) death of one co-tenant (2) mutual agreement by the parties in writing (3) and (4) execution by a joint creditor.
  3. Tenancy in Common is an estate with multiple tenants in which each co-tenant owns a distinct undivided interest while each has a right to possess the whole estate that is (1) freely transferable and (2) .
  4. Possession is when (1) has the (2) right to possess the whole.
  5. Severance of a Joint Tenancy creates a (1) Tenancy in Common with respect to the (2) .
  6. Tenancy by the Entirety is an estate that is created when (1) (2) title (3) interest (4) possession and (5) marriage concurrently exist among when the tenants take their interest.
  7. Joint Tenancy is an estate that is created when (1) (2) (3) interest and (4) possession concurrently exist among the tenants when they take their interest.
  8. Severance of a Tenancy by the Entirety creates a Tenancy in Common when (1) (2) mutual agreement by the parties in writing (3) and (4) execution by a joint creditor.
  9. Tenancy in Common is an estate with multiple tenants in which each co-tenant owns a distinct undivided interest while each has a right to possess the whole estate that is (1) freely transferable and (2) .
  10. Possession is when (1) each co-tenant has the (2) .
  11. Severance of a Joint Tenancy creates a (1) Tenancy in Common with respect to the (2) .
  12. Tenancy by the Entirety is an estate that is created when (1) (2) (3) interest (4) possession and (5) among when the tenants take their interest.
  13. Joint Tenancy is an estate that is created when (1) (2) (3) and (4) among the tenants when they take their .
  14. Severance of a Tenancy by the Entirety creates a Tenancy in Common when (1) (2) by the parties in writing (3) and (4) .
  15. Tenancy in Common is an estate with multiple tenants in which each co-tenant owns a distinct undivided interest while each has a right to possess the whole estate that is (1) and (2) .
  16. Possession is when (1) has the (2) .
  17. Severance of a Joint Tenancy creates a (1) with respect to the (2) .
  18. Tenancy by the Entirety is an estate that is created when (1) (2) (3) (4) and (5) among when the tenants take their .

Leasehold Estates

0 Correct out of 18
  1. Implied Warranty of Habitability means the (1) residential property is (2) .
  2. Landlord’s Tort Liability to Tenant for injuries occurring on the leased property consist of (1) common areas (2) latent defects (3) (4) public use or (5) seasonal or short-term lease of a furnished dwelling.
  3. Breach of the Implied Warranty of Habitability grants the Tenants remedies against the landlord consisting of (1) move-out (2) (3) reduce or withhold rent or (4) remain and seek damages.
  4. Tenancy at Will is a leasehold estate with (1) and (2) terminable by either party at any time without notice.
  5. Actual Eviction is the Landlord (1) wrongfully evicts or (2) .
  6. Operation of law occurs when (1) death by either party (2) waste by the tenant (3) (4) transfer of title by the landlord or (5) lease by the landlord to a third party.
  7. Sublease consists of a (1) Tenant’s partial transfer of the leasehold estate from (2) .
  8. Periodic Tenancy is a leasehold estate that is created when (1) express agreement (2) Implication or (3) .
  9. Constructive Eviction is the Landlord’s action or inactions render the property uninhabitable whereupon there is (1) substantial interference (2) and (3) tenant must vacate within a reasonable period after the landlord fails to repair the substantial interference.
  10. The four types of leasehold estates in which the tenant has a present possessory property interest, and the landlord has a future interest are (1) (2) periodic tenancy (3) tenancy at will and (4) tenancy at sufferance.
  11. Tenancy at Will terminates upon (1) or (2) by operation of law.
  12. Tenant’s Duty at common law for leasehold estates consist of (1) ordinary repairs (2) (3) pay rent and (4) use property in a legal manner.
  13. Assignment consists of a (1) Tenant’s entire transfer of the leasehold estate to (2) an .
  14. Tenancy at Sufferance is created when (1) the tenant wrongfully possesses the property (2) .
  15. Fixture is a (1) that is (2) fixed to real property such that (3) it becomes part of the real property.
  16. Implied Covenant of Quiet Enjoyment is the Tenant’s right to (1) use and (2) enjoy the land (3) with the Landlord.
  17. Periodic Tenancy terminates when a tenant gives proper notice that is (1) sufficiently timed and (2) the .
  18. Landlord’s Duties and Warranties to tenant consist of (1) (2) implied covenant of quiet enjoyment (3) implied warranty of habitability and (4) tort liability.
  19. Implied Warranty of Habitability means the (1) residential property is (2) .
  20. Landlord’s Tort Liability to Tenant for injuries occurring on the leased property consist of (1) common areas (2) latent defects (3) (4) or (5) .
  21. Breach of the Implied Warranty of Habitability grants the Tenants remedies against the landlord consisting of (1) move-out (2) (3) reduce or withhold rent or (4) .
  22. Tenancy at Will is a leasehold estate with (1) and (2) terminable by either party at any time without notice.
  23. Actual Eviction is the Landlord (1) wrongfully evicts or (2) .
  24. Operation of law occurs when (1) (2) (3) assignment by the tenant (4) transfer of title by the landlord or (5) .
  25. Sublease consists of a (1) Tenant’s partial transfer of the leasehold estate from (2) .
  26. Periodic Tenancy is a leasehold estate that is created when (1) (2) Implication or (3) .
  27. Constructive Eviction is the Landlord’s action or inactions render the property uninhabitable whereupon there is (1) substantial interference (2) and (3) after the landlord fails to repair the substantial interference.
  28. The four types of leasehold estates in which the tenant has a present possessory property interest, and the landlord has a future interest are (1) (2) (3) tenancy at will and (4) tenancy at sufferance.
  29. Tenancy at Will terminates upon (1) will or (2) by .
  30. Tenant’s Duty at common law for leasehold estates consist of (1) ordinary repairs (2) not commit waste (3) and (4) .
  31. Assignment consists of a (1) Tenant’s entire transfer of the leasehold estate to (2) an .
  32. Tenancy at Sufferance is created when (1) the (2) beyond the lease expiration.
  33. Fixture is a (1) that is (2) such that (3) it becomes part of the real property.
  34. Implied Covenant of Quiet Enjoyment is the Tenant’s right to (1) and (2) enjoy the land (3) with the Landlord.
  35. Periodic Tenancy terminates when a tenant gives proper notice that is (1) sufficiently timed and (2) the .
  36. Landlord’s Duties and Warranties to tenant consist of (1) duty to deliver possession (2) (3) and (4) tort liability.
  37. Implied Warranty of Habitability means the (1) is (2) .
  38. Landlord’s Tort Liability to Tenant for injuries occurring on the leased property consist of (1) (2) (3) (4) or (5) .
  39. Breach of the Implied Warranty of Habitability grants the Tenants remedies against the landlord consisting of (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  40. Tenancy at Will is a leasehold estate with (1) and (2) without notice.
  41. Actual Eviction is the Landlord (1) or (2) .
  42. Operation of law occurs when (1) (2) (3) (4) or (5) .
  43. Sublease consists of a (1) Tenant’s from (2) .
  44. Periodic Tenancy is a leasehold estate that is created when (1) (2) or (3) .
  45. Constructive Eviction is the Landlord’s action or inactions render the property uninhabitable whereupon there is (1) (2) and (3) after the landlord fails to repair the .
  46. The four types of leasehold estates in which the tenant has a present possessory property interest, and the landlord has a future interest are (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  47. Tenancy at Will terminates upon (1) or (2) by .
  48. Tenant’s Duty at common law for leasehold estates consist of (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  49. Assignment consists of a (1) Tenant’s to (2) an .
  50. Tenancy at Sufferance is created when (1) the (2) .
  51. Fixture is a (1) that is (2) such that (3) it .
  52. Implied Covenant of Quiet Enjoyment is the Tenant’s right to (1) and (2) (3) with the Landlord.
  53. Periodic Tenancy terminates when a tenant gives proper notice that is (1) and (2) the .
  54. Landlord’s Duties and Warranties to tenant consist of (1) (2) (3) and (4) .

Servitudes

0 Correct out of 17
  1. Easement is a (1) that (2) confers a right to uses another’s land.
  2. Easement Appurtenant is a type of easement that (1) (2) entitles a dominant estate owner to use the servient estates land.
  3. Defenses to Equitable Servitude include (1) change in neighborhood (2) estoppel (3) (4) uncleans hands doctrine or (5) laches.
  4. Easement by Necessity is an easement where access to and from the property is (1) impossible without the easement and (2) .
  5. Burdening covenant that runs with the land must (1) (2) have intent (3) touches and concerns the land (4) horizontal and vertical privity and (5) notice.
  6. Covenant terminates upon (1) written releases (2) or (3) condemnation of burdened property.
  7. Benefiting covenant that runs with the land requires (1) writing (2) (3) touches and concerns the land and (4) vertical privity only.
  8. Easement in Gross is a type of easement which entitles an (1) or (2) entity to use the servient estate.
  9. Covenant is a promise (1) or (2) refrain from doing something related to one’s land.
  10. Profit is a non-possessory property interest entitling the holder to (1) enter a servient estate to (2) .
  11. Easement by Implication is an easement based upon prior use where (1) an easement exists prior to division of land (2) use by the common Grantor (3) use is reasonably necessary for enjoyment of the dominant tenant and (4) parties intended the use after the division of land.
  12. Reciprocal Negative Servitude are covenants where the land is subdivided into parcels with restrictions attached that are created by (1) common plan or scheme or (2) .
  13. License is a (1) revocable right to use (2) .
  14. Easement may be terminated by (1) estoppel (2) necessity ends (3) (4) release (5) abandonment (6) merger (7) prescription or (8) expiration.
  15. Negative Easement is created only by an express grant where the holder of the easement prevents the servient landowner from engaging in otherwise permissible actions such as (1) light (2) (3) support or (4) stream of water from an artificial flow.
  16. Easement by Prescription requires the use of another’s land to be (1) continuous (2) open and notorious (3) and (4) hostile.
  17. Equitable Servitudes are covenants that are enforced through equity against successors through injunctive relief which must (1) (2) intent (3) touches and concerns the land and (4) notice.
  18. Easement is a (1) non-possessory interest that (2) .
  19. Easement Appurtenant is a type of easement that (1) (2) entitles a dominant estate owner to use the servient estates land.
  20. Defenses to Equitable Servitude include (1) (2) estoppel (3) (4) or (5) laches.
  21. Easement by Necessity is an easement where access to and from the property is (1) impossible without the easement and (2) .
  22. Burdening covenant that runs with the land must (1) be in writing (2) (3) (4) horizontal and vertical privity and (5) .
  23. Covenant terminates upon (1) (2) or (3) condemnation of burdened property.
  24. Benefiting covenant that runs with the land requires (1) (2) intent (3) touches and concerns the land and (4) only.
  25. Easement in Gross is a type of easement which entitles an (1) or (2) entity to use the servient estate.
  26. Covenant is a promise (1) or (2) refrain from doing something related to one’s land.
  27. Profit is a non-possessory property interest entitling the holder to (1) enter a servient estate to (2) .
  28. Easement by Implication is an easement based upon prior use where (1) an easement exists prior to division of land (2) continuous and apparent use by the common Grantor (3) use is and (4) parties intended the use .
  29. Reciprocal Negative Servitude are covenants where the land is subdivided into parcels with restrictions attached that are created by (1) common plan or scheme or (2) .
  30. License is a (1) revocable right to use (2) .
  31. Easement may be terminated by (1) estoppel (2) (3) destruction of servient tenement (4) (5) (6) (7) prescription or (8) expiration.
  32. Negative Easement is created only by an express grant where the holder of the easement prevents the servient landowner from engaging in otherwise permissible actions such as (1) light (2) air (3) or (4) .
  33. Easement by Prescription requires the use of another’s land to be (1) continuous (2) open and notorious (3) and (4) .
  34. Equitable Servitudes are covenants that are enforced through equity against successors through injunctive relief which must (1) (2) intent (3) touches and concerns the land and (4) .
  35. Easement is a (1) that (2) .
  36. Easement Appurtenant is a type of easement that (1) (2) to use the servient estates land.
  37. Defenses to Equitable Servitude include (1) (2) (3) (4) or (5) .
  38. Easement by Necessity is an easement where access to and from the property is (1) and (2) .
  39. Burdening covenant that runs with the land must (1) (2) (3) (4) and (5) .
  40. Covenant terminates upon (1) (2) or (3) .
  41. Benefiting covenant that runs with the land requires (1) (2) (3) and (4) only.
  42. Easement in Gross is a type of easement which entitles an (1) or (2) .
  43. Covenant is a promise (1) or (2) .
  44. Profit is a non-possessory property interest entitling the holder to (1) to (2) .
  45. Easement by Implication is an easement based upon prior use where (1) an (2) use by the common Grantor (3) use is and (4) parties intended the use .
  46. Reciprocal Negative Servitude are covenants where the land is subdivided into parcels with restrictions attached that are created by (1) or (2) .
  47. License is a (1) to use (2) .
  48. Easement may be terminated by (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (7) or (8) .
  49. Negative Easement is created only by an express grant where the holder of the easement prevents the servient landowner from engaging in otherwise permissible actions such as (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  50. Easement by Prescription requires the use of another’s land to be (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  51. Equitable Servitudes are covenants that are enforced through equity against successors through injunctive relief which must (1) (2) (3) and (4) .

Adverse Possession

0 Correct out of 2
  1. Tacking permits an adverse possessor to add the current period of possession to that of another’s prior adverse possession to establish continuous control if (1) and (2) privity between the possessors.
  2. Adverse Possession is when a trespasser acquires title to another’s property without compensation if the trespasser’s possession of the land is (1) continuous for the statutory period (2) (3) actual and exclusive and (4) hostile.
  3. Tacking permits an adverse possessor to add the current period of possession to that of another’s prior adverse possession to establish continuous control if (1) successive and (2) .
  4. Adverse Possession is when a trespasser acquires title to another’s property without compensation if the trespasser’s possession of the land is (1) (2) (3) actual and exclusive and (4) hostile.
  5. Tacking permits an adverse possessor to add the current period of possession to that of another’s prior adverse possession to establish continuous control if (1) and (2) .
  6. Adverse Possession is when a trespasser acquires title to another’s property without compensation if the trespasser’s possession of the land is (1) (2) (3) and (4) .

Land Sale Contracts

0 Correct out of 11
  1. Bona Fide Purchaser for Value is one who purchases property for value without notice of the prior conveyance including (1) actual notice (2) inquiry notice or (3) .
  2. Notice Statute is (1) the (2) over a prior grantee who fails to record.
  3. Race Notice Statute is the (1) to (2) record prevails.
  4. Equitable Conversion is the (1) transfer of real property to the Buyer (2) during the escrow process (3) .
  5. Land Sale Contract must contain (1) promise to provide marketable title (2) promise to disclose and (3) .
  6. Contract for the Sale of Land must comply with the statute of frauds and be (1) in writing (2) signed by the parties to be charged and (3) .
  7. Deed is the legal title which passes from Seller to Buyer that is (1) lawfully executed and (2) .
  8. General Warranty Deed is a deed that must contain all covenants including (1) seisin (2) right to convey (3) against encumbrances (4) quiet enjoyment (5) and (6) further assurances.
  9. Race Statute is the (1) first grantee to record prevails regardless of (2) .
  10. Estoppel by Deed is (1) a (2) in which the Grantor does not then own (3) cannot acquire the same land.
  11. Wild Deed is a (1) that is (2) unconnected to the chain of title.
  12. Bona Fide Purchaser for Value is one who purchases property for value without notice of the prior conveyance including (1) actual notice (2) or (3) .
  13. Notice Statute is (1) the subsequent bona fide purchaser always prevails (2) .
  14. Race Notice Statute is the (1) to (2) record prevails.
  15. Equitable Conversion is the (1) transfer of real property to the Buyer (2) (3) .
  16. Land Sale Contract must contain (1) (2) promise to disclose and (3) .
  17. Contract for the Sale of Land must comply with the statute of frauds and be (1) (2) and (3) articulate the essential terms of the land sale.
  18. Deed is the legal title which passes from Seller to Buyer that is (1) lawfully executed and (2) .
  19. General Warranty Deed is a deed that must contain all covenants including (1) seisin (2) (3) (4) quiet enjoyment (5) and (6) further assurances.
  20. Race Statute is the (1) first grantee to record prevails regardless of (2) .
  21. Estoppel by Deed is (1) a (2) in which the (3) cannot acquire the same land.
  22. Wild Deed is a (1) recorded deed that is (2) .
  23. Bona Fide Purchaser for Value is one who purchases property for value without notice of the prior conveyance including (1) (2) or (3) .
  24. Notice Statute is (1) the (2) .
  25. Race Notice Statute is the (1) to (2) .
  26. Equitable Conversion is the (1) (2) (3) .
  27. Land Sale Contract must contain (1) (2) and (3) .
  28. Contract for the Sale of Land must comply with the statute of frauds and be (1) (2) and (3) .
  29. Deed is the legal title which passes from Seller to Buyer that is (1) and (2) .
  30. General Warranty Deed is a deed that must contain all covenants including (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) and (6) .
  31. Race Statute is the (1) of (2) .
  32. Estoppel by Deed is (1) a (2) in which the (3) .
  33. Wild Deed is a (1) that is (2) .

Mortgages

0 Correct out of 2
  1. Acceleration Clause is a loan agreement that requires the (1) mortgagor to pay the full loan immediately (2) if .
  2. Purchase Money Mortgage is a (1) (2) that is used as collateral to acquire the loan for the land.
  3. Acceleration Clause is a loan agreement that requires the (1) (2) if certain conditions are not met.
  4. Purchase Money Mortgage is a (1) (2) that is used as collateral to acquire the loan for the land.
  5. Acceleration Clause is a loan agreement that requires the (1) (2) if .
  6. Purchase Money Mortgage is a (1) (2) that is .
  • Agency
  • Types of Partnerships
  • Liability
  • Corporations
  • LLC

Agency

0 Correct out of 10
  1. Liability of the Principal and Agent to the Third Party will depend if (1) the Agent had authority from the Principal in which the Principal is liable to the third party or (2) if the .
  2. Independent Contractors are generally not liable for committing acts (1) (2) on behalf of the Principal.
  3. Respondent Superior means the Principal will be liable when there is (1) an and (2) that conduct was within the scope of the employee’s employment.
  4. Principal Rights afforded to the agent are (1) compensation (2) cooperation and (3) .
  5. Actual Authority is given by the Principal to the Agent in either (1) or (2) implied authority.
  6. Termination of an agency relationship occurs when (1) (2) expiration or (3) purpose is fulfilled.
  7. Apparent Authority occurs when (1) the and (2) the Principal’s conduct causes a third party to reasonable rely on the Agent’s appearance of authority.
  8. Agency Relationship is created by a Principal and an Agent when there is the presence of (1) (2) consent or (3) acting on behalf of the Principal.
  9. Agent Rights afforded to the principal are (1) loyalty (2) obedience and (3) .
  10. Ratification occurs when (1) the (2) Principal has knowledge of the facts and (3) Principal affirmed those actions.
  11. Liability of the Principal and Agent to the Third Party will depend if (1) the in which the Principal is liable to the third party or (2) if the Agent disclosed to the Third Party the Principals identity.
  12. Independent Contractors are generally not liable for committing acts (1) (2) on behalf of the Principal.
  13. Respondent Superior means the Principal will be liable when there is (1) an existence of an employer-employee relationship and (2) that .
  14. Principal Rights afforded to the agent are (1) compensation (2) and (3) .
  15. Actual Authority is given by the Principal to the Agent in either (1) or (2) implied authority.
  16. Termination of an agency relationship occurs when (1) (2) or (3) purpose is fulfilled.
  17. Apparent Authority occurs when (1) the and (2) the Principal’s conduct causes a third party to reasonable rely on the Agent’s appearance of authority.
  18. Agency Relationship is created by a Principal and an Agent when there is the presence of (1) control (2) or (3) .
  19. Agent Rights afforded to the principal are (1) loyalty (2) and (3) .
  20. Ratification occurs when (1) the (2) and (3) Principal affirmed those actions.
  21. Liability of the Principal and Agent to the Third Party will depend if (1) the in which the Principal is liable to the third party or (2) if the .
  22. Independent Contractors are generally not liable for committing acts (1) (2) on .
  23. Respondent Superior means the Principal will be liable when there is (1) an and (2) that .
  24. Principal Rights afforded to the agent are (1) (2) and (3) .
  25. Actual Authority is given by the Principal to the Agent in either (1) or (2) .
  26. Termination of an agency relationship occurs when (1) (2) or (3) .
  27. Apparent Authority occurs when (1) the and (2) the .
  28. Agency Relationship is created by a Principal and an Agent when there is the presence of (1) (2) or (3) .
  29. Agent Rights afforded to the principal are (1) (2) and (3) .
  30. Ratification occurs when (1) the (2) and (3) .

Types of Partnerships

0 Correct out of 11
  1. General Partnerships are an association of (1) (2) in a for-profit business.
  2. Dissociation is the act of any partner ceasing to be (1) associated and (2) .
  3. Contract Liability extends to all partners for (1) any contract made within the scope of the partnership and (2) .
  4. Limited Partnership is a partnership consisting of one or more (1) general partners and (2) a limited partner whom (3) .
  5. Limited Liability Partnership is created by (1) and (2) filing the appropriate statement with the state.
  6. Dissolution is the (1) .
  7. Profits and Losses of the partnership are (1) shared equally upon each partner absent a written agreement and (2) .
  8. Partnership Books are freely available for partners to (1) inspect and (2) .
  9. Partnership Property consists of (1) capital contribution by each party (2) (3) partnership purchases or (4) use of property by the partnership.
  10. Proving a Partnership exists consists of (1) parties intent (2) profit sharing (3) parties control (4) or (5) the ownership of property.
  11. Fiduciary Duty owed by the partners to the partnership consist of (1) and (2) care.
  12. General Partnerships are an association of (1) (2) in a for-profit business.
  13. Dissociation is the act of any partner ceasing to be (1) associated and (2) .
  14. Contract Liability extends to all partners for (1) and (2) any other expressly authorized contract.
  15. Limited Partnership is a partnership consisting of one or more (1) and (2) a limited partner whom (3) .
  16. Limited Liability Partnership is created by (1) approval by vote of each partner and (2) .
  17. Dissolution is the (1) .
  18. Profits and Losses of the partnership are (1) absent a written agreement and (2) transferable.
  19. Partnership Books are freely available for partners to (1) inspect and (2) .
  20. Partnership Property consists of (1) capital contribution by each party (2) (3) or (4) use of property by the partnership.
  21. Proving a Partnership exists consists of (1) parties intent (2) profit sharing (3) (4) or (5) the .
  22. Fiduciary Duty owed by the partners to the partnership consist of (1) and (2) care.
  23. General Partnerships are an association of (1) (2) in a .
  24. Dissociation is the act of any partner ceasing to be (1) and (2) .
  25. Contract Liability extends to all partners for (1) and (2) .
  26. Limited Partnership is a partnership consisting of one or more (1) and (2) a (3) .
  27. Limited Liability Partnership is created by (1) and (2) .
  28. Dissolution is the (1) .
  29. Profits and Losses of the partnership are (1) absent a written agreement and (2) .
  30. Partnership Books are freely available for partners to (1) and (2) .
  31. Partnership Property consists of (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  32. Proving a Partnership exists consists of (1) (2) (3) (4) or (5) the .
  33. Fiduciary Duty owed by the partners to the partnership consist of (1) and (2) .

Liability

0 Correct out of 2
  1. Liability of each partner in a Limited Liability Partnership is (1) limited to the partnership itself and (2) .
  2. Liability of a Limited Partnership consists of the general partners (1) and (2) jointly and several liability for all partnership obligations.
  3. Liability of each partner in a Limited Liability Partnership is (1) limited to the partnership itself and (2) .
  4. Liability of a Limited Partnership consists of the general partners (1) and (2) jointly and several liability for all partnership obligations.
  5. Liability of each partner in a Limited Liability Partnership is (1) and (2) .
  6. Liability of a Limited Partnership consists of the general partners (1) and (2) .

Corporations

0 Correct out of 23
  1. De Facto Corporation is a failed corporation formation where the corporation continues and will be treated as a properly formed corporation if (1) a law exists in which the corporation could become legally incorporated (2) conducted business in corporation name and (3) .
  2. Corporation is a (1) legal entity that is (2) .
  3. Dissolution of the corporation is the termination of the corporation when (1) winding up occurs (2) liquidate assets and (3) .
  4. Derivative suits are a (1) shareholders suit (2) to enforce (3) the rights of the corporation (4) when a .
  5. Shareholder Authority is the power of the shareholders to exert control over the corporation by (1) appointing directors (2) or (3) approve fundamental changes of the corporate structure.
  6. Debt is when a corporation (1) and (2) promises to pay the loan back.
  7. Article of Incorporation form a corporation when filed within the state that consist of (1) corporation name (2) incorporators (3) number of shares and (4) the .
  8. Promoter is an individual that acts on behalf of a yet to be formed corporation to (1) raise capital (2) conduct corporate planning or (3) .
  9. Conflict of Interest is a (1) personal interest (2) of a (3) with the corporation.
  10. Business Judgement Rule is the court’s ability to ignore the business decision if the decision was made in (1) good faith (2) in the and (3) with the care a person in a similar position believed to appropriate under the circumstances.
  11. Quorum is the (1) present (2) (3) eligible to vote.
  12. Piercing the Corporate Veil are acts done by a valid court which hold liable the (1) (2) directors or (3) officers for their actions or debts.
  13. Demand on the corporation for a Derivative suit must be in (1) writing (2) and (3) wait 90 days before filing suit.
  14. Liability of the Promoter consists of (1) personally liability (2) for .
  15. Stocks reflect the investment in the corporation by (1) (2) who become part owners of the corporation.
  16. Ultra Vires are corporate acts outside the stated purpose where the consequences consist of (1) a shareholder suit (2) or (3) state action.
  17. Duty of Loyalty of the corporation is owed by (1) directors and (2) .
  18. Proxies are (1) shareholders ability to (2) (3) in writing.
  19. Bylaws are written rules for managing the corporation and shall be enacted by (1) the or (2) board of directors.
  20. Direct suits are a shareholder’s pursuit of legal action towards a (1) (2) ’s officer or (3) a director.
  21. Merger is when two or more company’s combine into a single company after (1) a and (2) shareholder votes favored the merger.
  22. Meetings are conducted by the shareholders and the corporation where there are two types of meetings such as (1) annual and (2) .
  23. Funding for corporations derive from (1) debt (2) stocks or (3) a .
  24. De Facto Corporation is a failed corporation formation where the corporation continues and will be treated as a properly formed corporation if (1) a law exists in which the corporation could become legally incorporated (2) and (3) .
  25. Corporation is a (1) legal entity that is (2) .
  26. Dissolution of the corporation is the termination of the corporation when (1) (2) and (3) no new business is carried out.
  27. Derivative suits are a (1) shareholders suit (2) to (3) the rights of the corporation (4) when a .
  28. Shareholder Authority is the power of the shareholders to exert control over the corporation by (1) appointing directors (2) or (3) .
  29. Debt is when a corporation (1) and (2) promises to pay the loan back.
  30. Article of Incorporation form a corporation when filed within the state that consist of (1) (2) incorporators (3) and (4) the registered agent.
  31. Promoter is an individual that acts on behalf of a yet to be formed corporation to (1) (2) or (3) assist in corporate formation.
  32. Conflict of Interest is a (1) personal interest (2) of a s_31_1_2_6ad9d1eab64b2_5" type="text" value="" size="11" class="game-standard">s_31_1_2_6ad9d1eab64b2_5" type="hidden" value="transaction" data-pid="panel_s" class="game-standard-hidden"> (3) with the .
  33. Business Judgement Rule is the court’s ability to ignore the business decision if the decision was made in (1) (2) in the and (3) with the care a person in a similar position believed to appropriate under the circumstances.
  34. Quorum is the (1) (2) majority of shares (3) .
  35. Piercing the Corporate Veil are acts done by a valid court which hold liable the (1) shareholders (2) or (3) .
  36. Demand on the corporation for a Derivative suit must be in (1) writing (2) and (3) .
  37. Liability of the Promoter consists of (1) personally liability (2) for .
  38. Stocks reflect the investment in the corporation by (1) shareholders (2) .
  39. Ultra Vires are corporate acts outside the stated purpose where the consequences consist of (1) a shareholder suit (2) or (3) .
  40. Duty of Loyalty of the corporation is owed by (1) and (2) officers.
  41. Proxies are (1) shareholders ability to (2) (3) .
  42. Bylaws are written rules for managing the corporation and shall be enacted by (1) the incorporators or (2) .
  43. Direct suits are a shareholder’s pursuit of legal action towards a (1) (2) ’s officer or (3) a director.
  44. Merger is when two or more company’s combine into a single company after (1) a and (2) shareholder votes favored the merger.
  45. Meetings are conducted by the shareholders and the corporation where there are two types of meetings such as (1) and (2) special meetings where notice is required.
  46. Funding for corporations derive from (1) (2) stocks or (3) a combination of and stocks.
  47. De Facto Corporation is a failed corporation formation where the corporation continues and will be treated as a properly formed corporation if (1) a (2) and (3) .
  48. Corporation is a (1) that is (2) .
  49. Dissolution of the corporation is the termination of the corporation when (1) (2) and (3) .
  50. Derivative suits are a (1) (2) to (3) the (4) when a .
  51. Shareholder Authority is the power of the shareholders to exert control over the corporation by (1) (2) or (3) .
  52. Debt is when a corporation (1) and (2) .
  53. Article of Incorporation form a corporation when filed within the state that consist of (1) (2) (3) and (4) the .
  54. Promoter is an individual that acts on behalf of a yet to be formed corporation to (1) (2) or (3) .
  55. Conflict of Interest is a (1) s_54_0_1_6ad9d1eab752a_4" type="text" value="" size="17" class="game-standard">s_54_0_1_6ad9d1eab752a_4" type="hidden" value="personal interest" data-pid="panel_s" class="game-standard-hidden"> (2) of a s_54_1_1_6ad9d1eab7533_1" type="text" value="" size="11" class="game-standard">s_54_1_1_6ad9d1eab7533_1" type="hidden" value="transaction" data-pid="panel_s" class="game-standard-hidden"> (3) with the .
  56. Business Judgement Rule is the court’s ability to ignore the business decision if the decision was made in (1) (2) in the and (3) with the .
  57. Quorum is the (1) (2) (3) .
  58. Piercing the Corporate Veil are acts done by a valid court which hold liable the (1) (2) or (3) .
  59. Demand on the corporation for a Derivative suit must be in (1) (2) and (3) .
  60. Liability of the Promoter consists of (1) (2) for .
  61. Stocks reflect the investment in the corporation by (1) (2) .
  62. Ultra Vires are corporate acts outside the stated purpose where the consequences consist of (1) a (2) or (3) .
  63. Duty of Loyalty of the corporation is owed by (1) and (2) .
  64. Proxies are (1) to (2) (3) .
  65. Bylaws are written rules for managing the corporation and shall be enacted by (1) the or (2) .
  66. Direct suits are a shareholder’s pursuit of legal action towards a (1) (2) ’s officer or (3) a .
  67. Merger is when two or more company’s combine into a single company after (1) a and (2) .
  68. Meetings are conducted by the shareholders and the corporation where there are two types of meetings such as (1) and (2) .
  69. Funding for corporations derive from (1) (2) or (3) a combination of and .

LLC

0 Correct out of 4
  1. Member Managed LLC is when all members owe a duty of (1) care and (2) .
  2. Good Faith and Fair Dealing is owed by all (1) and (2) managers of the LLC.
  3. Limited Liability Company is created when (1) certificate is filed within the forum state (2) name of the LLC (3) and (4) name of registered agent.
  4. Manager Managed LLC is when only the managers owe a duty of (1) care and (2) .
  5. Member Managed LLC is when all members owe a duty of (1) care and (2) .
  6. Good Faith and Fair Dealing is owed by all (1) members and (2) .
  7. Limited Liability Company is created when (1) (2) name of the LLC (3) and (4) name of registered agent.
  8. Manager Managed LLC is when only the managers owe a duty of (1) and (2) loyalty to each manager and the LLC.
  9. Member Managed LLC is when all members owe a duty of (1) and (2) .
  10. Good Faith and Fair Dealing is owed by all (1) and (2) .
  11. Limited Liability Company is created when (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  12. Manager Managed LLC is when only the managers owe a duty of (1) and (2) .
  • Jurisdiction
  • Marriage
  • Divorce
  • Property
  • Custody
  • Support
  • Adoption

Jurisdiction

0 Correct out of 1
  1. Jurisdiction in the forum state is established when one spouse has (1) (2) for at least 6 months.
  2. Jurisdiction in the forum state is established when one spouse has (1) (2) for at least 6 months.
  3. Jurisdiction in the forum state is established when one spouse has (1) (2) for at least .

Marriage

0 Correct out of 5
  1. Pre-Marital Agreements are legally enforceable contracts between the parties that provide distribution of the marital assets when (1) in writing (2) and (3) full and fair disclosure.
  2. State of Mind required for marriage is (1) and (2) intent.
  3. Common Law Marriage occurs when a couple is considered legally married if (1) consent (2) holding themselves out to the public as married and (3) .
  4. Marriage is the legal union of two individuals when (1) a and (2) solemnized.
  5. Post-Marital Agreements are legally enforceable contracts formed after the marriage to divide the marital property if (1) voluntary (2) and (3) time to review the disclosure.
  6. Pre-Marital Agreements are legally enforceable contracts between the parties that provide distribution of the marital assets when (1) (2) and (3) full and fair disclosure.
  7. State of Mind required for marriage is (1) capacity and (2) .
  8. Common Law Marriage occurs when a couple is considered legally married if (1) (2) holding themselves out to the public as married and (3) .
  9. Marriage is the legal union of two individuals when (1) a license is obtained by the state and (2) .
  10. Post-Marital Agreements are legally enforceable contracts formed after the marriage to divide the marital property if (1) (2) each spouse has adequate representation and (3) .
  11. Pre-Marital Agreements are legally enforceable contracts between the parties that provide distribution of the marital assets when (1) (2) and (3) .
  12. State of Mind required for marriage is (1) and (2) .
  13. Common Law Marriage occurs when a couple is considered legally married if (1) (2) and (3) .
  14. Marriage is the legal union of two individuals when (1) a and (2) .
  15. Post-Marital Agreements are legally enforceable contracts formed after the marriage to divide the marital property if (1) (2) and (3) .

Divorce

0 Correct out of 2
  1. Annulment is a judicial declaration that a marriage was void and never valid if due to (1) bigamy or polygamy (2) (3) consanguinity or (4) age.
  2. Divorce is a decree that terminates the marriage when (1) irretrievably broken (2) or (3) incompatible.
  3. Annulment is a judicial declaration that a marriage was void and never valid if due to (1) (2) (3) consanguinity or (4) age.
  4. Divorce is a decree that terminates the marriage when (1) (2) or (3) incompatible.
  5. Annulment is a judicial declaration that a marri was void and never valid if due to (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  6. Divorce is a decree that terminates the marriage when (1) (2) or (3) .

Property

0 Correct out of 4
  1. Comingled property is (1) (2) that is mixed with marital property and (3) becomes martial property.
  2. Community Property is property (1) (2) will be split fairly between the spouses.
  3. Equitable Division of Property refers to the courts process of dividing (1) separate property and (2) the .
  4. Property that is acquired during the marriage is presumed to be marital property unless (1) owned prior to the marriage and kept separate (2) or (3) passive income from separate property.
  5. Comingled property is (1) separate property (2) that is and (3) .
  6. Community Property is property (1) acquired during the marriage (2) .
  7. Equitable Division of Property refers to the courts process of dividing (1) separate property and (2) the .
  8. Property that is acquired during the marriage is presumed to be marital property unless (1) (2) gifts or inheritance in their sole name or (3) .
  9. Comingled property is (1) (2) that is and (3) .
  10. Community Property is property (1) (2) .
  11. Equitable Division of Property refers to the courts process of dividing (1) and (2) the .
  12. Property that is acquired during the marriage is presumed to be marital property unless (1) (2) or (3) .

Custody

0 Correct out of 1
  1. Custody is the primary standard of care to determine to all (1) parenting (2) and (3) support is in the best interest of the child.
  2. Custody is the primary standard of care to determine to all (1) (2) time sharing and (3) .
  3. Custody is the primary standard of care to determine to all (1) (2) and (3) .

Support

0 Correct out of 3
  1. Modification of support must show (1) a (2) material (3) unanticipated change of circumstances.
  2. Spousal Support is the support of one spouse by another spouse in the form of (1) (2) bridge-the-gap (3) rehabilitative (4) durational or (5) permanent alimony.
  3. Child Support is the duty of (1) both parents (2) to support their child (3) until at least 18 years of age (4) unless .
  4. Modification of support must show (1) a substantial (2) (3) .
  5. Spousal Support is the support of one spouse by another spouse in the form of (1) pendente lite (2) bridge-the-gap (3) (4) or (5) .
  6. Child Support is the duty of (1) (2) to (3) until at least 18 years of age (4) unless dependent is mentally or physically handicapped.
  7. Modification of support must show (1) a (2) (3) .
  8. Spousal Support is the support of one spouse by another spouse in the form of (1) (2) (3) (4) or (5) .
  9. Child Support is the duty of (1) (2) to (3) until at (4) unless .

Adoption

0 Correct out of 1
  1. Adoption requires the (1) consent to of both biological parents and (2) .
  2. Adoption requires the (1) and (2) terminates the legal relationship between the parent and child.
  3. Adoption requires the (1) and (2) .
  • Will Trusts and Estates

Will Trusts and Estates

0 Correct out of 28
  1. Revocation is the act of the testator to revoke the will at any time by (1) revocation evidenced in writing (2) revocation by physical act or (3) .
  2. Trust requires the settlor to have (1) capacity (2) intent to create the trust (3) (4) named competent trustee (5) clear disposition of settlor’s specific property and (6) valid purpose of the trust.
  3. Capacity is required for a will to be valid at the time of execution when (1) the individual is over the age of 18 (2) they understand the act of the will (3) the property to be disposed (4) the and (5) the nature of the disposition in a common scheme.
  4. Wills are the instrument that directs the distribution of property of the decedent and shall (1) be in writing (2) signed by the testator and (3) .
  5. Trustees Duties consist of a duty to (1) administer (2) loyalty (3) report (4) (5) protect the trust and (6) preserve property.
  6. Resulting Trust is a (1) failed express trust (2) .
  7. Abatement is when the estates value is (1) and (2) must reduce gifts to satisfy those obligations.
  8. Codicils are (1) changes (2) amendments or (3) .
  9. Disclaimer is the act of (1) one party (2) in (3) the decedent’s estate that would have passed to the other party.
  10. Advancements are a (1) gift made during the testator’s life or (2) decedents life (3) with the .
  11. Incorporation by Reference are documents that are not part of the will may be incorporated when (1) Testator’s intent to incorporate (2) document is authenticated and (3) .
  12. Undue Influence occurs when (1) (2) the testator’s free will and mind were overpowered and (3) the testator’s will would not have been executed but for the undue influence.
  13. Revival is the act of (1) revoking the instrument that (2) (3) thus reviving the prior will.
  14. Holographic Wills are handwritten wills that must (1) be in the testator’s handwriting (2) and (3) signed by the Testator.
  15. Attestation Clause is a clause (1) and (2) above the signatures (3) that certifies the will requirements have been fulfilled.
  16. Trust is a fiduciary relationship in which (1) one party (2) (3) for benefit of designated beneficiaries.
  17. Contesting a will requires an (1) with (2) a pecuniary interest in the beneficiaries.
  18. Intervivos Gift is a gift given by a living person to another with (1) intent (2) and (3) acceptance.
  19. Testamentary Intent is the (1) of the (2) individual that this is their will.
  20. Simultaneous Death means one spouse cannot take as heir to the beneficiary unless the spouse survives the decedent with (1) sufficient evidence one spouse died first or (2) there is .
  21. Adopted Children are treated (1) (2) for purposes of intestate succession.
  22. Intestate Succession is the (1) (2) of the decedent (3) without a will.
  23. Fraud occurs when the testator was (1) intentionally deceived and (2) the .
  24. Pretermitted Children are (1) or (2) adopted after the will was executed.
  25. Slayer Statute is one who (1) kills their spouse (2) .
  26. Integration is when separate documents become integrated in the will when (1) the and (2) intent of the Testator to be included.
  27. Ademption is the gift of (1) (2) that is no longer available in the estate.
  28. Constructive Trust is an (1) equitable remedy (2) to .
  29. Revocation is the act of the testator to revoke the will at any time by (1) (2) or (3) partial revocation.
  30. Trust requires the settlor to have (1) (2) (3) definite beneficiary (4) (5) clear disposition of settlor’s specific property and (6) valid purpose of the trust.
  31. Capacity is required for a will to be valid at the time of execution when (1) the individual is over the age of 18 (2) they understand the act of the will (3) the (4) the and (5) the .
  32. Wills are the instrument that directs the distribution of property of the decedent and shall (1) be in writing (2) and (3) .
  33. Trustees Duties consist of a duty to (1) administer (2) (3) (4) contain property (5) and (6) preserve property.
  34. Resulting Trust is a (1) failed express trust (2) .
  35. Abatement is when the estates value is (1) and (2) must reduce gifts to satisfy those obligations.
  36. Codicils are (1) (2) amendments or (3) .
  37. Disclaimer is the act of (1) (2) in (3) the decedent’s estate that would have passed to the other party.
  38. Advancements are a (1) gift made during the testator’s life or (2) (3) with the .
  39. Incorporation by Reference are documents that are not part of the will may be incorporated when (1) (2) document is authenticated and (3) .
  40. Undue Influence occurs when (1) (2) the testator’s free will and mind were overpowered and (3) the .
  41. Revival is the act of (1) that (2) (3) thus reviving the prior will.
  42. Holographic Wills are handwritten wills that must (1) be in the (2) and (3) signed by the Testator.
  43. Attestation Clause is a clause (1) and (2) above the signatures (3) that .
  44. Trust is a fiduciary relationship in which (1) (2) holds legal title to property (3) for .
  45. Contesting a will requires an (1) with (2) a pecuniary interest in the beneficiaries.
  46. Intervivos Gift is a gift given by a living person to another with (1) intent (2) and (3) .
  47. Testamentary Intent is the (1) of the (2) individual that this is their will.
  48. Simultaneous Death means one spouse cannot take as heir to the beneficiary unless the spouse survives the decedent with (1) sufficient evidence one spouse died first or (2) there is .
  49. Adopted Children are treated (1) the same as a natural child (2) for .
  50. Intestate Succession is the (1) (2) of the (3) without a will.
  51. Fraud occurs when the testator was (1) intentionally deceived and (2) the .
  52. Pretermitted Children are (1) or (2) adopted after the will was executed.
  53. Slayer Statute is one who (1) (2) forfeits the decedents estate.
  54. Integration is when separate documents become integrated in the will when (1) the and (2) intent of the Testator to be included.
  55. Ademption is the gift of (1) specific property (2) that is .
  56. Constructive Trust is an (1) equitable remedy (2) to .
  57. Revocation is the act of the testator to revoke the will at any time by (1) (2) or (3) .
  58. Trust requires the settlor to have (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) and (6) .
  59. Capacity is required for a will to be valid at the time of execution when (1) the (2) they (3) the (4) the and (5) the .
  60. Wills are the instrument that directs the distribution of property of the decedent and shall (1) be in (2) and (3) .
  61. Trustees Duties consist of a duty to (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) and (6) .
  62. Resulting Trust is a (1) (2) .
  63. Abatement is when the estates value is (1) and (2) .
  64. Codicils are (1) (2) or (3) .
  65. Disclaimer is the act of (1) (2) in (3) the .
  66. Advancements are a (1) or (2) (3) with the .
  67. Incorporation by Reference are documents that are not part of the will may be incorporated when (1) (2) and (3) .
  68. Undue Influence occurs when (1) (2) the and (3) the .
  69. Revival is the act of (1) that (2) (3) thus .
  70. Holographic Wills are handwritten wills that must (1) be in the (2) and (3) .
  71. Attestation Clause is a clause (1) and (2) (3) that .
  72. Trust is a fiduciary relationship in which (1) (2) (3) for .
  73. Contesting a will requires an (1) with (2) a .
  74. Intervivos Gift is a gift given by a living person to another with (1) (2) and (3) .
  75. Testamentary Intent is the (1) of the (2) .
  76. Simultaneous Death means one spouse cannot take as heir to the beneficiary unless the spouse survives the decedent with (1) or (2) there is .
  77. Adopted Children are treated (1) (2) for .
  78. Intestate Succession is the (1) (2) of the (3) .
  79. Fraud occurs when the testator was (1) and (2) the .
  80. Pretermitted Children are (1) or (2) .
  81. Slayer Statute is one who (1) (2) .
  82. Integration is when separate documents become integrated in the will when (1) the and (2) .
  83. Ademption is the gift of (1) (2) that is .
  84. Constructive Trust is an (1) (2) to .
  • Secured Transactions

Secured Transactions

0 Correct out of 15
  1. Rights on Default arises when the debtor fails to fulfill their obligations to the creditor causing (1) (2) repossession (3) sale of the collateral (4) redemption of (5) strict foreclosure.
  2. Purchase-Money Security Interest is a (1) security interest in (2) the that (3) was purchased in part by the debtor with funds given to create the security interest.
  3. Fixture is when personal property has become so affixed into (1) the real estate that (2) .
  4. After Acquired Property is property to be owned by the debtor in the future which allows the secured party to have an interest in (1) and (2) future property.
  5. Perfection is (1) notice to third parties of (2) the .
  6. Secured Transaction is governed by UCC Article 9 when intended to create a security interest in (1) or (2) fixtures.
  7. Collateral is property that is subject to (1) a or (2) agricultural lien.
  8. Security Interests can be created by (1) possession (2) control or (3) a .
  9. Attachment allows the (1) creditor to enforce the security interest (2) when (3) the security agreement is properly executed.
  10. Accessions are goods that are (1) (2) other goods.
  11. Security Agreement shall contain (1) value of the collateral (2) signed by the debtor and (3) .
  12. UCC Financing Statement is a (1) (2) with the correct spelling of the debtor’s name (3) the creditor’s name and (4) description of the collateral.
  13. Certificate of Title is a notation on the title document that applies to (1) or (2) goods that are subject to title.
  14. Fixture Filing is a financing statement filed (1) in the (2) which the fixture was attached to the real property.
  15. Priority is where the (1) (2) third parties that may have a right in (3) the collateral.
  16. Rights on Default arises when the debtor fails to fulfill their obligations to the creditor causing (1) collections (2) repossession (3) (4) of (5) .
  17. Purchase-Money Security Interest is a (1) security interest in (2) the that (3) was .
  18. Fixture is when personal property has become so affixed into (1) the real estate that (2) .
  19. After Acquired Property is property to be owned by the debtor in the future which allows the secured party to have an interest in (1) and (2) future property.
  20. Perfection is (1) notice to third parties of (2) the .
  21. Secured Transaction is governed by UCC Article 9 when intended to create a security interest in (1) or (2) fixtures.
  22. Collateral is property that is subject to (1) a or (2) agricultural lien.
  23. Security Interests can be created by (1) (2) or (3) a security agreement.
  24. Attachment allows the (1) creditor to enforce the security interest (2) when (3) the .
  25. Accessions are goods that are (1) (2) other goods.
  26. Security Agreement shall contain (1) (2) signed by the debtor and (3) .
  27. UCC Financing Statement is a (1) (2) with the correct spelling of the debtor’s name (3) the creditor’s name and (4) .
  28. Certificate of Title is a notation on the title document that applies to (1) cars excluding inventory or (2) .
  29. Fixture Filing is a financing statement filed (1) in the county where the property is located (2) which the .
  30. Priority is where the (1) creditor stands against other (2) in (3) the .
  31. Rights on Default arises when the debtor fails to fulfill their obligations to the creditor causing (1) (2) (3) (4) of (5) .
  32. Purchase-Money Security Interest is a (1) in (2) the that (3) was purchased in part by the debtor with funds given to create the .
  33. Fixture is when personal property has become so affixed into (1) the that (2) it becomes part of the .
  34. After Acquired Property is property to be owned by the debtor in the future which allows the secured party to have an interest in (1) and (2) .
  35. Perfection is (1) of (2) the .
  36. Secured Transaction is governed by UCC Article 9 when intended to create a security interest in (1) or (2) .
  37. Collateral is property that is subject to (1) a or (2) .
  38. Security Interests can be created by (1) (2) or (3) a .
  39. Attachment allows the (1) (2) when (3) the .
  40. Accessions are goods that are (1) (2) .
  41. Security Agreement shall contain (1) (2) and (3) .
  42. UCC Financing Statement is a (1) (2) (3) the and (4) .
  43. Certificate of Title is a notation on the title document that applies to (1) or (2) .
  44. Fixture Filing is a financing statement filed (1) in the (2) which the .
  45. Priority is where the (1) (2) in (3) the .

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