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Blank is a game where users receive a partial rule statement, and they have to type out the remaining statement.

Blank is a game where users receive a partial rule statement, and they have to type in the missing words or phrases.

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  • Contract Basics
  • Contract Formation
  • Defenses
  • Terms
  • UCC
  • Common Law Performance
  • Nonperformance Excuses
  • Changes to Contract Terms
  • Third Party
  • Damages

Contract Basics

0 Correct out of 7
  1. Contract is an (1) offer (2) acceptance (3) consideration and (4) .
  2. Applicable law for all contracts is governed by either (1) or (2) UCC Article 2.
  3. Consideration is a (1) (2) legal value (3) between the parties.
  4. Offer is a (1) (2) objective manifestation of (3) present intent to contract.
  5. Acceptance is a (1) (2) to the contract terms.
  6. Incapacity applies to (1) and (2) mentally incompetent individuals who lack the capacity to contract.
  7. Statute of Frauds requires certain contracts to be in writing which include (1) marriage (2) performance longer than a year (3) (4) executorship (5) goods over $500 and (6) suretyship.
  8. Contract is an (1) (2) (3) consideration and (4) no defenses.
  9. Applicable law for all contracts is governed by either (1) or (2) UCC Article 2.
  10. Consideration is a (1) (2) (3) between the parties.
  11. Offer is a (1) (2) objective manifestation of (3) .
  12. Acceptance is a (1) clear expression of assent (2) .
  13. Incapacity applies to (1) infants and (2) who lack the capacity to contract.
  14. Statute of Frauds requires certain contracts to be in writing which include (1) (2) performance longer than a year (3) (4) executorship (5) and (6) suretyship.
  15. Contract is an (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  16. Applicable law for all contracts is governed by either (1) or (2) .
  17. Consideration is a (1) (2) (3) .
  18. Offer is a (1) (2) of (3) .
  19. Acceptance is a (1) (2) .
  20. Incapacity applies to (1) and (2) who lack the capacity to contract.
  21. Statute of Frauds requires certain contracts to be in writing which include (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) and (6) .

Contract Formation

0 Correct out of 7
  1. Mailbox Rule is (1) acceptance of the contract terms (2) upon dispatch and (3) .
  2. Offer Terminates upon (1) revocation by offeror (2) rejection by offeree or (3) .
  3. Acceptance by Shipment occurs when the individual (1) promises to ship goods or (2) .
  4. Revocation consists of (1) or (2) offeree becomes aware of the offeror’s unambiguous conduct.
  5. Acceptance by Performance occurs when the (1) offeree begins performance or (2) .
  6. Rejection occurs when there is (1) (2) a counteroffer (3) a conditional acceptance or (4) acceptance with additional terms.
  7. Irrevocable Offer is (1) (2) a UCC firm offer or (3) detrimental reliance.
  8. Mailbox Rule is (1) acceptance of the contract terms (2) and (3) .
  9. Offer Terminates upon (1) (2) or (3) lapse of time.
  10. Acceptance by Shipment occurs when the individual (1) or (2) promptly ship goods.
  11. Revocation consists of (1) an unambiguous statement by the offeror to the offeree or (2) .
  12. Acceptance by Performance occurs when the (1) or (2) offeror has knowledge that offeree has begun performance.
  13. Rejection occurs when there is (1) an express rejection (2) a (3) a or (4) acceptance with additional terms.
  14. Irrevocable Offer is (1) (2) a or (3) detrimental reliance.
  15. Mailbox Rule is (1) (2) and (3) .
  16. Offer Terminates upon (1) (2) or (3) .
  17. Acceptance by Shipment occurs when the individual (1) or (2) .
  18. Revocation consists of (1) or (2) .
  19. Acceptance by Performance occurs when the (1) or (2) .
  20. Rejection occurs when there is (1) (2) a (3) a or (4) .
  21. Irrevocable Offer is (1) (2) a or (3) .

Defenses

0 Correct out of 7
  1. Satisfying Statute of Frauds occurs when either (1) a or (2) part performance.
  2. Fraud is a (1) false assertion of (2) a (3) prior to contract formation or performance.
  3. Promissory Estoppel occurs when (1) a promisor expects reliance (2) detrimental reliance occurs and (3) .
  4. Illusory Promise is a (1) promise and (2) .
  5. Undue Influence is a (1) (2) under excessive pressure (3) by an individual susceptible to pressure.
  6. A Mistake occurs when (1) both parties are (2) (3) a factual assumption of the contract (4) at time of contract formation.
  7. Duress is a (1) wrongful act (2) .
  8. Satisfying Statute of Frauds occurs when either (1) a signed writing by the party to be charged or (2) .
  9. Fraud is a (1) false assertion of (2) a (3) .
  10. Promissory Estoppel occurs when (1) a (2) and (3) injustice will occur without the enforcement of the promise.
  11. Illusory Promise is a (1) promise and (2) .
  12. Undue Influence is a (1) contract entered (2) (3) .
  13. A Mistake occurs when (1) (2) mistaken to (3) a factual assumption of the contract (4) .
  14. Duress is a (1) (2) which overcomes the party’s free will.
  15. Satisfying Statute of Frauds occurs when either (1) a or (2) .
  16. Fraud is a (1) (2) a (3) .
  17. Promissory Estoppel occurs when (1) a (2) and (3) .
  18. Illusory Promise is a (1) and (2) .
  19. Undue Influence is a (1) (2) (3) .
  20. A Mistake occurs when (1) (2) (3) a (4) .
  21. Duress is a (1) (2) .

Terms

0 Correct out of 3
  1. Warranties consists of (1) express warranty (2) and (3) implied warranty for a particular purpose.
  2. Risk of Loss occurs when (1) shipment by common carrier upon dispatch (2) a non-carrier merchant sells to buyer and takes physical possession or (3) a .
  3. The Parole Evidence Rule is extrinsic evidence to a written contract is inadmissible to (1) supplement or (2) .
  4. Warranties consists of (1) (2) and (3) implied warranty for a particular purpose.
  5. Risk of Loss occurs when (1) (2) a or (3) a non-carrier non-merchant buyer need only tender delivery.
  6. The Parole Evidence Rule is extrinsic evidence to a written contract is inadmissible to (1) or (2) contradict the written contract.
  7. Warranties consists of (1) (2) and (3) .
  8. Risk of Loss occurs when (1) (2) a or (3) a .
  9. The Parole Evidence Rule is extrinsic evidence to a written contract is inadmissible to (1) or (2) .

UCC

0 Correct out of 4
  1. Installment Contract is (1) (2) in separate lots.
  2. Perfect Tender are (1) (2) in perfect tender (3) with respect to their manner of delivery.
  3. Buyers Options regarding delivery consist of (1) accept in part (2) reject in part (3) or (4) reject in whole.
  4. Right to Cure delivery occurs when (1) (2) seller gives buyer notice of intent to cure and (3) time for performance has not yet expired.
  5. Installment Contract is (1) (2) in separate lots.
  6. Perfect Tender are (1) goods must be delivered (2) (3) .
  7. Buyers Options regarding delivery consist of (1) accept in part (2) reject in part (3) or (4) .
  8. Right to Cure delivery occurs when (1) (2) seller gives buyer notice of intent to cure and (3) .
  9. Installment Contract is (1) (2) .
  10. Perfect Tender are (1) (2) (3) .
  11. Buyers Options regarding delivery consist of (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  12. Right to Cure delivery occurs when (1) (2) and (3) .

Common Law Performance

0 Correct out of 2
  1. Material Breach is a (1) substantial benefit incurred to one party (2) .
  2. Substantial Performance occurs when (1) (2) where the other party is obligated to perform or complete their performance.
  3. Material Breach is a (1) substantial benefit incurred to one party (2) .
  4. Substantial Performance occurs when (1) (2) where the other party is obligated to perform or complete their performance.
  5. Material Breach is a (1) (2) .
  6. Substantial Performance occurs when (1) (2) .

Nonperformance Excuses

0 Correct out of 6
  1. Frustration of Purpose is an (1) unexpected event which (2) destroys the purpose of the contract where (3) the .
  2. Anticipatory Repudiation is a (1) clear (2) (3) the party will not perform the contract.
  3. Impracticability is (1) performance is (2) (3) with extreme and unreasonable difficulty or expense.
  4. Impossibility is (1) (2) objectively impossible.
  5. At-will-employment is an (1) agreement (2) (3) at any time.
  6. Conditions are either (1) or (2) subsequent to the required performance of the contract.
  7. Frustration of Purpose is an (1) which (2) destroys the purpose of the contract where (3) the .
  8. Anticipatory Repudiation is a (1) clear (2) (3) .
  9. Impracticability is (1) performance is (2) (3) .
  10. Impossibility is (1) (2) objectively impossible.
  11. At-will-employment is an (1) agreement (2) (3) .
  12. Conditions are either (1) or (2) subsequent to the required performance of the contract.
  13. Frustration of Purpose is an (1) which (2) where (3) the .
  14. Anticipatory Repudiation is a (1) (2) (3) .
  15. Impracticability is (1) is (2) (3) .
  16. Impossibility is (1) (2) .
  17. At-will-employment is an (1) (2) (3) .
  18. Conditions are either (1) or (2) .

Changes to Contract Terms

0 Correct out of 2
  1. Novation is when (1) (2) agree to substitute a new party (3) to perform the contract.
  2. Modification occurs when (1) existing parties (2) (3) mutual assent and (4) consideration is now required.
  3. Novation is when (1) existing parties to a contract (2) (3) .
  4. Modification occurs when (1) existing parties (2) (3) and (4) consideration is now required.
  5. Novation is when (1) (2) (3) .
  6. Modification occurs when (1) (2) (3) and (4) .

Third Party

0 Correct out of 3
  1. Third Party Rights Vest when the third party (1) learns of and (2) learns of and files suit or (3) learns of and relies upon the contract.
  2. Incidental Beneficiaries are (1) parties of the contract (2) did not intend (3) .
  3. Intended Beneficiaries are (1) parties of the contract (2) (3) to benefit from the contract.
  4. Third Party Rights Vest when the third party (1) learns of and (2) learns of and or (3) learns of and relies upon the contract.
  5. Incidental Beneficiaries are (1) parties of the contract (2) (3) .
  6. Intended Beneficiaries are (1) (2) (3) to benefit from the contract.
  7. Third Party Rights Vest when the third party (1) learns of and (2) learns of and or (3) learns of and .
  8. Incidental Beneficiaries are (1) (2) (3) .
  9. Intended Beneficiaries are (1) (2) (3) .

Damages

0 Correct out of 5
  1. Specific Performance are (1) in which involve (2) land or (3) unique goods that money cannot compensate for.
  2. Liquidated Damages are an agreed upon amount of damages which (1) and (2) reasonable.
  3. Consequential Damages are (1) foreseeable losses (2) .
  4. Incidental damages are (1) unforeseeable (2) commercially reasonable expenses (3) .
  5. Expectation Damages are the standard measure of money damages that (1) put the non-breaching party in a (2) .
  6. Specific Performance are (1) damages that are not personal services in which involve (2) or (3) that money cannot compensate for.
  7. Liquidated Damages are an agreed upon amount of damages which (1) and (2) reasonable.
  8. Consequential Damages are (1) (2) indirectly resulting from the breach of contract.
  9. Incidental damages are (1) unforeseeable (2) (3) .
  10. Expectation Damages are the standard measure of money damages that (1) in a (2) economic position had the party completed the contract.
  11. Specific Performance are (1) in which involve (2) or (3) that money cannot compensate for.
  12. Liquidated Damages are an agreed upon amount of damages which (1) and (2) .
  13. Consequential Damages are (1) (2) .
  14. Incidental damages are (1) (2) (3) .
  15. Expectation Damages are the standard measure of money damages that (1) in a (2) .
  • Relevance
  • Character Evidence
  • Impeachment
  • Testimonial Evidence
  • Testimonial Privilege
  • Evidence
  • Hearsay
  • Confrontation Clause

Relevance

0 Correct out of 8
  1. Excluded evidence (402) is evidence that is excluded if it is barred by (1) the United States Constitution (2) a (3) the Federal Rules of Evidence or (4) any other rule established by the Supreme Court of the United States.
  2. Relevant evidence (401) is evidence that (1) makes a fact (2) (3) than it would be without the evidence.
  3. Probative value (403) is the exclusion of relevant evidence if (1) the probative value is (2) substantially outweighed by (3) .
  4. Subsequent Remedial Measures taken after an injury or event are inadmissible to prove (1) (2) defect or (3) an inadequate warning.
  5. Relevant evidence based on public policy grounds may be excluded if it involves (1) liability insurance (2) subsequent remedial measures (3) or (4) payments or offers to pay medical expenses.
  6. Unfair Prejudice consist of (1) (2) misleading the jury (3) undue delay or waste of time or (4) presenting duplicative evidence.
  7. Evidentiary Hearings are (1) a court-ordered hearing on admissibility of evidence (2) .
  8. Liability Insurance is generally not admissible to (1) or (2) a party’s ability to pay damages unless (3) it is used to prove ownership.
  9. Excluded evidence (402) is evidence that is excluded if it is barred by (1) the United States Constitution (2) a (3) the or (4) any other rule established by the Supreme Court of the United States.
  10. Relevant evidence (401) is evidence that (1) (2) more or less probable (3) .
  11. Probative value (403) is the exclusion of relevant evidence if (1) the is (2) substantially outweighed by (3) .
  12. Subsequent Remedial Measures taken after an injury or event are inadmissible to prove (1) fault (2) or (3) .
  13. Relevant evidence based on public policy grounds may be excluded if it involves (1) (2) subsequent remedial measures (3) settlements or (4) .
  14. Unfair Prejudice consist of (1) (2) (3) undue delay or waste of time or (4) presenting duplicative evidence.
  15. Evidentiary Hearings are (1) a court-ordered hearing on admissibility of evidence (2) .
  16. Liability Insurance is generally not admissible to (1) or (2) a party’s ability to pay damages unless (3) .
  17. Excluded evidence (402) is evidence that is excluded if it is barred by (1) the (2) a (3) the or (4) .
  18. Relevant evidence (401) is evidence that (1) (2) (3) .
  19. Probative value (403) is the exclusion of relevant evidence if (1) the is (2) (3) .
  20. Subsequent Remedial Measures taken after an injury or event are inadmissible to prove (1) (2) or (3) .
  21. Relevant evidence based on public policy grounds may be excluded if it involves (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  22. Unfair Prejudice consist of (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  23. Evidentiary Hearings are (1) a (2) .
  24. Liability Insurance is generally not admissible to (1) or (2) a unless (3) .

Character Evidence

0 Correct out of 7
  1. Victim’s character evidence can only be introduced by (1) the (2) rebutted by the prosecution.
  2. In Criminal Sexual Assault cases reputation or opinion evidence is inadmissible unless (1) or (2) a third party is the source of the DNA or injury.
  3. Prosecution may not initiate character evidence of the Defendant unless (1) sexual assault or (2) .
  4. Character Evidence is generally inadmissible; however, is admissible to prove (1) motive (2) (3) mistake or lack of mistake (4) identity or (5) common plan or scheme.
  5. Use of Sexual Assault Evidence must (1) be disclosed with their intent to offer the evidence (2) and (3) notify the victim 14 days prior to trial.
  6. In Civil Sexual Assault Cases Victim’s character evidence is admissible by reputation, opinion, and specific instances of conduct if (1) the probative value is substantially outweighed by the danger of unfair prejudice or (2) the .
  7. In Homicide Cases Defendant may raise self-defense and offer evidence showing (1) victim’s violent character reflects (2) the .
  8. Victim’s character evidence can only be introduced by (1) the (2) rebutted by the prosecution.
  9. In Criminal Sexual Assault cases reputation or opinion evidence is inadmissible unless (1) or (2) a third party is the source of the DNA or injury.
  10. Prosecution may not initiate character evidence of the Defendant unless (1) or (2) if the Defendant first offers evidence of the victim’s character.
  11. Character Evidence is generally inadmissible; however, is admissible to prove (1) motive (2) (3) mistake or lack of mistake (4) or (5) .
  12. Use of Sexual Assault Evidence must (1) (2) and (3) notify the victim 14 days prior to trial.
  13. In Civil Sexual Assault Cases Victim’s character evidence is admissible by reputation, opinion, and specific instances of conduct if (1) the or (2) the victim puts their reputation at issue.
  14. In Homicide Cases Defendant may raise self-defense and offer evidence showing (1) (2) the victim attacked first.
  15. Victim’s character evidence can only be introduced by (1) the (2) .
  16. In Criminal Sexual Assault cases reputation or opinion evidence is inadmissible unless (1) or (2) a .
  17. Prosecution may not initiate character evidence of the Defendant unless (1) or (2) .
  18. Character Evidence is generally inadmissible; however, is admissible to prove (1) (2) (3) (4) or (5) .
  19. Use of Sexual Assault Evidence must (1) (2) and (3) .
  20. In Civil Sexual Assault Cases Victim’s character evidence is admissible by reputation, opinion, and specific instances of conduct if (1) the or (2) the .
  21. In Homicide Cases Defendant may raise self-defense and offer evidence showing (1) (2) the .

Impeachment

0 Correct out of 3
  1. Impeachment is an adverse reflection on the veracity of the witnesses testimony shown by (1) contradiction (2) prior inconsistent statements (3) bias (4) interest (5) reputation or (6) .
  2. Extrinsic Evidence is evidence that challenges the (1) (2) impeach the witness.
  3. Collateral Issues are a (1) fact not relevant to (2) .
  4. Impeachment is an adverse reflection on the veracity of the witnesses testimony shown by (1) contradiction (2) (3) (4) interest (5) reputation or (6) .
  5. Extrinsic Evidence is evidence that challenges the (1) credibility of the witness used to (2) .
  6. Collateral Issues are a (1) fact not relevant to (2) .
  7. Impeachment is an adverse reflection on the veracity of the witnesses testimony shown by (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) or (6) .
  8. Extrinsic Evidence is evidence that challenges the (1) (2) .
  9. Collateral Issues are a (1) (2) .

Testimonial Evidence

0 Correct out of 7
  1. Past Recorded Recollection are contents of a record or document that was previously adopted or read into evidence in which (1) witness had knowledge of the subject matter at issue (2) (3) the record was made or adopted by the witness when it was fresh in their memory and (4) the record accurately reflects witness’s knowledge.
  2. Daubert Test are scientific evidence based upon (1) testing (2) rate of error (3) and (4) published.
  3. Expert Opinion testimony may be given if (1) helpful (2) qualified (3) (4) a proper factual basis formed and (4) reliable principles relied upon.
  4. Present Recollection Refreshed involves using documents to refresh the witness’s memory which requires (1) the witness to not read aloud from the document (2) inspection of the document by the opposing party (3) and (4) the adverse party has the chance to enter it into evidence.
  5. Competency of a witness requires the witness has (1) (2) memory (3) communication and (4) sincerity.
  6. Lay Opinion testimony is admissible if it is based upon (1) perception (2) (3) helpful to understand or determining a fact and (4) not an expert.
  7. Objection to questions occurs when the question (1) calls for narrative (2) (3) augmentative or (4) are or beyond the scope of direct.
  8. Past Recorded Recollection are contents of a record or document that was previously adopted or read into evidence in which (1) (2) witness memory is insufficient to testify to the record’s content (3) the record was made or adopted by the witness when it was fresh in their memory and (4) .
  9. Daubert Test are scientific evidence based upon (1) (2) rate of error (3) and (4) published.
  10. Expert Opinion testimony may be given if (1) helpful (2) qualified (3) (4) a and (4) .
  11. Present Recollection Refreshed involves using documents to refresh the witness’s memory which requires (1) the witness to not read aloud from the document (2) (3) not read into evidence and (4) .
  12. Competency of a witness requires the witness has (1) personal knowledge (2) (3) and (4) sincerity.
  13. Lay Opinion testimony is admissible if it is based upon (1) (2) rationally based (3) and (4) not an expert.
  14. Objection to questions occurs when the question (1) (2) leading (3) or (4) are or beyond the scope of direct.
  15. Past Recorded Recollection are contents of a record or document that was previously adopted or read into evidence in which (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  16. Daubert Test are scientific evidence based upon (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  17. Expert Opinion testimony may be given if (1) (2) (3) (4) a and (4) .
  18. Present Recollection Refreshed involves using documents to refresh the witness’s memory which requires (1) the (2) (3) and (4) .
  19. Competency of a witness requires the witness has (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  20. Lay Opinion testimony is admissible if it is based upon (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  21. Objection to questions occurs when the question (1) (2) (3) or (4) .

Testimonial Privilege

0 Correct out of 4
  1. Testimonial Privilege is a privilege that is protected by the Federal Rules of Evidence which include (1) attorney client (2) (3) psychotherapist or (4) doctor patient if recognized in the forum state.
  2. Marital Communication privilege pertains to communication between spouses (1) made during the marriage (2) can be invoked by either spouse (3) applies to both criminal and civil proceedings and (4) .
  3. Spousal Communication privilege applies to communication between spouses who were (1) (2) is limited to criminal cases (3) terminates upon divorce and (4) can only be invoked by the witness spouse.
  4. Attorney-Client Privilege protects communications between an attorney and a client if (1) they are intended to be confidential and (2) .
  5. Testimonial Privilege is a privilege that is protected by the Federal Rules of Evidence which include (1) attorney client (2) (3) or (4) doctor patient if recognized in the forum state.
  6. Marital Communication privilege pertains to communication between spouses (1) (2) can be invoked by either spouse (3) applies to both criminal and civil proceedings and (4) .
  7. Spousal Communication privilege applies to communication between spouses who were (1) married at the time of the trial (2) is (3) terminates upon divorce and (4) .
  8. Attorney-Client Privilege protects communications between an attorney and a client if (1) and (2) made to facilitate the provision of legal services.
  9. Testimonial Privilege is a privilege that is protected by the Federal Rules of Evidence which include (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  10. Marital Communication privilege pertains to communication between spouses (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  11. Spousal Communication privilege applies to communication between spouses who were (1) (2) is (3) and (4) .
  12. Attorney-Client Privilege protects communications between an attorney and a client if (1) and (2) .

Evidence

0 Correct out of 3
  1. Authenticated Evidence is evidence that is (1) (2) the proponent produces (3) by any means that serve to establish authenticity.
  2. Judicial Notice is a court notice that can recognize (1) any fact as true (2) without formal presentation (3) or (4) by formal request of a party.
  3. Best Evidence Rule is evidence that is offered when the original is unavailable to (1) or (2) an original document.
  4. Authenticated Evidence is evidence that is (1) (2) the proponent produces (3) .
  5. Judicial Notice is a court notice that can recognize (1) any fact as true (2) (3) or (4) by formal request of a party.
  6. Best Evidence Rule is evidence that is offered when the original is unavailable to (1) or (2) an original document.
  7. Authenticated Evidence is evidence that is (1) (2) (3) .
  8. Judicial Notice is a court notice that can recognize (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  9. Best Evidence Rule is evidence that is offered when the original is unavailable to (1) or (2) .

Hearsay

0 Correct out of 15
  1. Unavailability means the declarant’s testimony is (1) privileged (2) death (3) refusal or (4) .
  2. Excited Utterance are admissible if (1) relate to the startling event in question and (2) was made while under the of the event.
  3. Present State of Mind statements are admissible if (1) concern the declarant’s state of mind (2) emotion (3) or (4) physical condition at the time the statement was made.
  4. Declarant Unavailability is admissible if (1) (2) statement against interest (3) dying declaration or (4) statements offered against the party procuring declarants unavailability.
  5. Business Records are admissible if (1) a (2) is made during the regular course of business (3) by someone with knowledge at or near the time the matters described and (4) authenticated or certified in writing.
  6. Present Sense Impression are admissible if (1) describes or explains the event or condition and (2) the event in question.
  7. Hearsay is a (1) out of court statement (2) offered to prove (3) .
  8. Learned Treatises are accepted authority pertaining to a certain field by the expert and can be accepted by (1) testimony (2) or (3) by judicial notice.
  9. Admissible Hearsay is an out of court statement consisting of (1) (2) words to proport the effect of the listener (3) speaker’s knowledge or (4) state of mind.
  10. Non-Hearsay Exemptions are hearsay statements made by a party opponent that is in the form of (1) judicial statements (2) adoptive statements or (3) a .
  11. Statement Against Interest are admissible if (1) pecuniary gain (2) declarant is unavailable (3) statement was or (4) a reasonable person would not have made the statement unless believed to be true.
  12. Former Testimony Under Oath is testimony given by a person in an earlier proceeding or deposition is admissible if (1) declarant is currently unavailable (2) prior testimony was given under oath and either (3) the party in the previous action had the opportunity to cross examine the declarant or (4) a predecessor in interest of a party in the previous action had the .
  13. Physical Condition statements are admissible if (1) and (2) pertaining to the diagnosis of that treatment of condition.
  14. Dying Declarations are admissible if (1) (2) declarant was under the belief of impending death (3) the statement was made in regard to the cause of circumstances surround the impending death and (4) only applies to homicide or all civil cases.
  15. Public Records are admissible if (1) describe the activities of a public office or agency (2) under a duty of law (3) by a public employee within their scope of duty and (4) .
  16. Unavailability means the declarant’s testimony is (1) privileged (2) (3) refusal or (4) .
  17. Excited Utterance are admissible if (1) and (2) was made while under the excitement or stress of the event.
  18. Present State of Mind statements are admissible if (1) concern the declarant’s state of mind (2) emotion (3) or (4) .
  19. Declarant Unavailability is admissible if (1) former testimony under oath (2) statement against interest (3) or (4) .
  20. Business Records are admissible if (1) a (2) is made during the regular course of business (3) and (4) authenticated or certified in writing.
  21. Present Sense Impression are admissible if (1) and (2) is made during or immediately after the event in question.
  22. Hearsay is a (1) (2) (3) the truth of the matter asserted.
  23. Learned Treatises are accepted authority pertaining to a certain field by the expert and can be accepted by (1) testimony (2) or (3) .
  24. Admissible Hearsay is an out of court statement consisting of (1) legal operative fact (2) words to proport the effect of the listener (3) or (4) .
  25. Non-Hearsay Exemptions are hearsay statements made by a party opponent that is in the form of (1) judicial statements (2) or (3) a .
  26. Statement Against Interest are admissible if (1) (2) declarant is unavailable (3) statement was contrary to declarant’s or (4) a .
  27. Former Testimony Under Oath is testimony given by a person in an earlier proceeding or deposition is admissible if (1) (2) and either (3) the party in the previous action had the opportunity to cross examine the declarant or (4) a predecessor in interest of a party in the previous action had the opportunity to cross examine and a similar motive in doing so.
  28. Physical Condition statements are admissible if (1) and (2) pertaining to the diagnosis of that treatment of condition.
  29. Dying Declarations are admissible if (1) declarant is unavailable (2) (3) and (4) only applies to homicide or all civil cases.
  30. Public Records are admissible if (1) (2) under a duty of law (3) by a public employee within their scope of duty and (4) .
  31. Unavailability means the declarant’s testimony is (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  32. Excited Utterance are admissible if (1) and (2) was made while under the of the event.
  33. Present State of Mind statements are admissible if (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  34. Declarant Unavailability is admissible if (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  35. Business Records are admissible if (1) a (2) (3) and (4) .
  36. Present Sense Impression are admissible if (1) and (2) the event in question.
  37. Hearsay is a (1) (2) (3) .
  38. Learned Treatises are accepted authority pertaining to a certain field by the expert and can be accepted by (1) (2) or (3) .
  39. Admissible Hearsay is an out of court statement consisting of (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  40. Non-Hearsay Exemptions are hearsay statements made by a party opponent that is in the form of (1) (2) or (3) a .
  41. Statement Against Interest are admissible if (1) (2) (3) statement was contrary to declarant’s or (4) a .
  42. Former Testimony Under Oath is testimony given by a person in an earlier proceeding or deposition is admissible if (1) (2) and either (3) the party in the previous action had the or (4) a predecessor in interest of a party in the previous action had the .
  43. Physical Condition statements are admissible if (1) and (2) .
  44. Dying Declarations are admissible if (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  45. Public Records are admissible if (1) (2) (3) and (4) .

Confrontation Clause

0 Correct out of 1
  1. The Confrontation Clause ensures that every defendant has the right to confront witnesses when (1) an out-of-court statement is (2) offered against the defendant (3) in a criminal case and (4) .
  2. The Confrontation Clause ensures that every defendant has the right to confront witnesses when (1) an out-of-court statement is (2) offered against the defendant (3) and (4) .
  3. The Confrontation Clause ensures that every defendant has the right to confront witnesses when (1) is (2) (3) and (4) .
  • Intentional Torts
  • Defenses
  • Defamation
  • Other Torts
  • Negligence
  • Strict Liability
  • Products Liability
  • Nuisance
  • Liability

Intentional Torts

0 Correct out of 9
  1. Conversion is the (1) intentional (2) intermeddling of another’s personal property (3) where Plaintiff can recover the .
  2. Assault is an (1) (2) voluntary act by the defendant (3) where there is reasonable apprehension of harmful or immediate contact.
  3. Trespass to chattel is an (1) (2) intermeddling of another’s personal property.
  4. Battery is an (1) intentional (2) voluntary act by the defendant (3) where there is .
  5. False Imprisonment is an (1) intentional (2) (3) where the Plaintiff is confined to a bounded area.
  6. Intentional Infliction of Emotional Distress is (1) an extreme or outrageous act (2) by the (3) where the Plaintiff suffers severe emotional distress.
  7. Tort is an (1) intentional (2) (3) causing such harm.
  8. Bystander Intentional Infliction of Emotional Distress is the bystander is closely related to the injured person where the (1) Defendant’s conduct seriously injured a third person (2) (3) Plaintiff was present when the injury occurred (4) Defendant knew of the relation and (5) Plaintiff suffers emotional distress.
  9. Trespass to Land is an (1) intentional (2) .
  10. Conversion is the (1) (2) (3) where Plaintiff can recover the fair market value at the time of conversion.
  11. Assault is an (1) (2) voluntary act by the defendant (3) where there is .
  12. Trespass to chattel is an (1) (2) intermeddling of another’s personal property.
  13. Battery is an (1) intentional (2) (3) where there is .
  14. False Imprisonment is an (1) (2) (3) where the Plaintiff is confined to a bounded area.
  15. Intentional Infliction of Emotional Distress is (1) an extreme or outrageous act (2) by the (3) where the .
  16. Tort is an (1) (2) voluntary act by the defendant (3) .
  17. Bystander Intentional Infliction of Emotional Distress is the bystander is closely related to the injured person where the (1) (2) (3) (4) Defendant knew of the relation and (5) Plaintiff suffers emotional distress.
  18. Trespass to Land is an (1) (2) physical invasion of one’s real property.
  19. Conversion is the (1) (2) (3) where Plaintiff can recover the .
  20. Assault is an (1) (2) (3) where there is .
  21. Trespass to chattel is an (1) (2) .
  22. Battery is an (1) (2) (3) where there is .
  23. False Imprisonment is an (1) (2) (3) where the .
  24. Intentional Infliction of Emotional Distress is (1) an (2) by the (3) where the .
  25. Tort is an (1) (2) (3) .
  26. Bystander Intentional Infliction of Emotional Distress is the bystander is closely related to the injured person where the (1) (2) (3) (4) and (5) .
  27. Trespass to Land is an (1) (2) .

Defenses

0 Correct out of 6
  1. Necessity is a defense to all property damage claims of the Plaintiff’s property which are outweighed in an effort to avoid greater danger when (1) and (2) the threatened injury was more serious than the property interference.
  2. Self Defense is the (1) reasonable belief (2) of properly timed (3) .
  3. Recapture of chattels is a defense to trespass claims when (1) the (2) to recover unlawfully taken property.
  4. Consent is a defense to all intentional torts where the Plaintiff has given (1) express consent or (2) .
  5. Defense of Others is the Defendant’s (1) (2) that the person they are aiding would have the right to self-defense.
  6. Defense of Property is the (1) application of reasonable (2) .
  7. Necessity is a defense to all property damage claims of the Plaintiff’s property which are outweighed in an effort to avoid greater danger when (1) reasonably necessary and (2) the .
  8. Self Defense is the (1) reasonable belief (2) of (3) .
  9. Recapture of chattels is a defense to trespass claims when (1) the Defendant may use peaceful means (2) .
  10. Consent is a defense to all intentional torts where the Plaintiff has given (1) express consent or (2) .
  11. Defense of Others is the Defendant’s (1) (2) that the person they are aiding would have the right to self-defense.
  12. Defense of Property is the (1) application of reasonable (2) .
  13. Necessity is a defense to all property damage claims of the Plaintiff’s property which are outweighed in an effort to avoid greater danger when (1) and (2) the .
  14. Self Defense is the (1) (2) of (3) .
  15. Recapture of chattels is a defense to trespass claims when (1) the (2) .
  16. Consent is a defense to all intentional torts where the Plaintiff has given (1) or (2) .
  17. Defense of Others is the Defendant’s (1) (2) that the person they are aiding would have the .
  18. Defense of Property is the (1) (2) .

Defamation

0 Correct out of 4
  1. Slander is (1) spoken conduct where (2) .
  2. Slander Per Se is spoken conduct of (1) (2) loathsome disease (3) impute women’s chastity or (4) effects business or reputation.
  3. Defamation of a public citizen is a (1) (2) regarding the Plaintiff (3) that was published (4) harmful to the Plaintiff’s reputation and (5) falsity and fault.
  4. Defamation of a Private Citizen is (1) a defamatory statement (2) regarding the Plaintiff (3) and (4) harmful to Plaintiff’s reputation.
  5. Slander is (1) (2) pecuniary damages.
  6. Slander Per Se is spoken conduct of (1) crimes of moral turpitude (2) (3) or (4) effects business or reputation.
  7. Defamation of a public citizen is a (1) (2) (3) (4) harmful to the Plaintiff’s reputation and (5) falsity and fault.
  8. Defamation of a Private Citizen is (1) a (2) (3) that was published and (4) harmful to Plaintiff’s reputation.
  9. Slander is (1) (2) .
  10. Slander Per Se is spoken conduct of (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  11. Defamation of a public citizen is a (1) (2) (3) (4) and (5) .
  12. Defamation of a Private Citizen is (1) a (2) (3) and (4) .

Other Torts

0 Correct out of 6
  1. Negligent Misrepresentation is the Defendant (1) (2) where a breach of duty was owed (3) justifiable reliance by the Plaintiff and (4) resulted in monetary loss.
  2. False Light is the (1) widespread publication (2) of a falsehood or material misrepresentation (3) that would be .
  3. Appropriation is the (1) unauthorized use (2) of Plaintiff’s (3) (4) for commercial purposes.
  4. Intentional Misrepresentation is the (1) Defendant’s misrepresentation of a material fact (2) knows the misrepresentation to be false (3) intended to induce reliance (4) actual reliance by the Plaintiff and (5) .
  5. Intrusion Upon Seclusion is a (1) (2) where the intrusion would be highly offensive to a reasonable prudent person.
  6. Intentional Interference with Business Relations is the (1) Plaintiff has a valid contractual relationship (2) where the Defendant has knowledge of such relationship (3) intentionally interferes with that relationship and (4) this interreference causes breach (5) .
  7. Negligent Misrepresentation is the Defendant (1) misrepresents a material fact in a professional setting (2) where a (3) justifiable reliance by the Plaintiff and (4) .
  8. False Light is the (1) widespread publication (2) of a (3) that would be .
  9. Appropriation is the (1) (2) of Plaintiff’s (3) name, image or likeness (4) .
  10. Intentional Misrepresentation is the (1) (2) (3) (4) actual reliance by the Plaintiff and (5) damages in the form of pecuniary loss.
  11. Intrusion Upon Seclusion is a (1) (2) where the intrusion would be highly offensive to a reasonable prudent person.
  12. Intentional Interference with Business Relations is the (1) (2) (3) intentionally interferes with that relationship and (4) this interreference causes breach (5) .
  13. Negligent Misrepresentation is the Defendant (1) (2) where a (3) and (4) .
  14. False Light is the (1) (2) of a (3) that would be .
  15. Appropriation is the (1) (2) (3) (4) .
  16. Intentional Misrepresentation is the (1) (2) (3) (4) and (5) .
  17. Intrusion Upon Seclusion is a (1) (2) where the intrusion would be .
  18. Intentional Interference with Business Relations is the (1) (2) (3) and (4) (5) .

Negligence

0 Correct out of 15
  1. Negligence consists of (1) duty (2) (3) causation and (4) damages.
  2. Invitee is an individual who enters the land (1) open to the public (2) .
  3. Damages consist of (1) (2) property damage or (3) punitive damages.
  4. Specialized Duty of Care is owed to (1) (2) children (3) professionals or (4) by custom or trade usage.
  5. Licensee is an individual who enters the land with (1) the (2) Licensee’s own personal or (3) a business purpose.
  6. Contributory Negligence is the Plaintiff is barred from recovery of the Plaintiff’s injuries if (1) (2) contributed to Plaintiff’s injuries.
  7. Negligent Infliction of Emotional Distress is (1) Defendants negligent act is in close proximity to the Plaintiff (2) Plaintiff and (3) Plaintiff suffers from some physical manifestation.
  8. Negligence Per Se is established when a (1) valid ordinance is in place (2) the Plaintiff is in the class the ordinance was designed to protect and (3) .
  9. Res Ipsa Loquitur is an (1) (2) not attributable to the plaintiff but (3) attributable to the defendant.
  10. Duty of Care to behave like a reasonable prudent person is owed to (1) in the (2) zone of danger.
  11. Actual Cause is a causal connection between the (1) and (2) the duty owed.
  12. Breach of Duty is a duty that (1) falls below the standard of care (2) .
  13. Comparative Negligence is a defense to negligence where the Defendant can prove (1) the injuries incurred are (2) .
  14. Attractive Nuisance Doctrine holds the property owners liable for damages if (1) they know or should know that children are in the area (2) know or should know of the dangerous condition (3) the condition is likely to cause injury and (4) .
  15. Proximate Cause is a foreseeable connection to the alleged breach which doesn’t include (1) an act of God (2) or (3) criminal act.
  16. Negligence consists of (1) (2) breach (3) causation and (4) .
  17. Invitee is an individual who enters the land (1) open to the public (2) .
  18. Damages consist of (1) personal injury (2) or (3) .
  19. Specialized Duty of Care is owed to (1) (2) (3) professionals or (4) by custom or trade usage.
  20. Licensee is an individual who enters the land with (1) the (2) or (3) a business purpose.
  21. Contributory Negligence is the Plaintiff is barred from recovery of the Plaintiff’s injuries if (1) (2) contributed to Plaintiff’s injuries.
  22. Negligent Infliction of Emotional Distress is (1) Defendants negligent act is in (2) Plaintiff suffers severe emotional distress from the incident and (3) .
  23. Negligence Per Se is established when a (1) (2) and (3) the ordinance is designed to protect against that type of harm that occurred.
  24. Res Ipsa Loquitur is an (1) (2) not attributable to the plaintiff but (3) .
  25. Duty of Care to behave like a reasonable prudent person is owed to (1) foreseeable Plaintiffs in the (2) .
  26. Actual Cause is a causal connection between the (1) and (2) the duty owed.
  27. Breach of Duty is a duty that (1) (2) owed to the individual.
  28. Comparative Negligence is a defense to negligence where the Defendant can prove (1) the injuries incurred are (2) .
  29. Attractive Nuisance Doctrine holds the property owners liable for damages if (1) they know or should know that (2) know or should know of the dangerous condition (3) the condition is likely to cause injury and (4) .
  30. Proximate Cause is a foreseeable connection to the alleged breach which doesn’t include (1) (2) or (3) criminal act.
  31. Negligence consists of (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  32. Invitee is an individual who enters the land (1) (2) .
  33. Damages consist of (1) (2) or (3) .
  34. Specialized Duty of Care is owed to (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  35. Licensee is an individual who enters the land with (1) the (2) or (3) a .
  36. Contributory Negligence is the Plaintiff is barred from recovery of the Plaintiff’s injuries if (1) (2) .
  37. Negligent Infliction of Emotional Distress is (1) Defendants negligent act is in (2) Plaintiff and (3) .
  38. Negligence Per Se is established when a (1) (2) and (3) .
  39. Res Ipsa Loquitur is an (1) (2) but (3) .
  40. Duty of Care to behave like a reasonable prudent person is owed to (1) in the (2) .
  41. Actual Cause is a causal connection between the (1) and (2) the .
  42. Breach of Duty is a duty that (1) (2) .
  43. Comparative Negligence is a defense to negligence where the Defendant can prove (1) the are (2) .
  44. Attractive Nuisance Doctrine holds the property owners liable for damages if (1) they know or should know that (2) know or should know of the (3) the and (4) .
  45. Proximate Cause is a foreseeable connection to the alleged breach which doesn’t include (1) (2) or (3) .

Strict Liability

0 Correct out of 3
  1. Strict Liability abnormally dangers activity is a (1) uncommon activity that (2) (3) which poses a severe risk.
  2. Strict Liability is an (1) absolute duty to make safe (2) and (3) damages to person or property.
  3. Strict Liability of animal conduct are animal owners are strictly liable for (1) (2) resulting from their animal’s conduct (3) on another’s property.
  4. Strict Liability abnormally dangers activity is a (1) that (2) cannot be made safe (3) which .
  5. Strict Liability is an (1) (2) and (3) damages to person or property.
  6. Strict Liability of animal conduct are animal owners are strictly liable for (1) reasonably foreseeable damages (2) (3) .
  7. Strict Liability abnormally dangers activity is a (1) that (2) (3) which .
  8. Strict Liability is an (1) (2) and (3) .
  9. Strict Liability of animal conduct are animal owners are strictly liable for (1) (2) (3) .

Products Liability

0 Correct out of 3
  1. Types of Defects consist of a (1) manufacturing defect (2) design defect or (3) .
  2. Products Strict Liability is a (1) commercial supplier (2) of a defective product (3) of the injury (4) used in a foreseeable manner.
  3. Types of Warranties include (1) (2) warranty of merchantability or (3) express warranty.
  4. Types of Defects consist of a (1) (2) or (3) inadequate warning.
  5. Products Strict Liability is a (1) commercial supplier (2) of a defective product (3) of the injury (4) .
  6. Types of Warranties include (1) (2) warranty of merchantability or (3) .
  7. Types of Defects consist of a (1) (2) or (3) .
  8. Products Strict Liability is a (1) (2) of a (3) of the injury (4) .
  9. Types of Warranties include (1) (2) or (3) .

Nuisance

0 Correct out of 3
  1. Nuisance is a (1) (2) of the right to enjoy one’s property.
  2. Public Nuisance is an (1) unreasonable interference (2) with .
  3. Private Nuisance is a (1) substantial interference (2) (3) where the interference is one where the average community member would be offended.
  4. Nuisance is a (1) (2) of the right to enjoy one’s property.
  5. Public Nuisance is an (1) unreasonable interference (2) with .
  6. Private Nuisance is a (1) (2) (3) where the interference is one where the average community member would be offended.
  7. Nuisance is a (1) (2) .
  8. Public Nuisance is an (1) (2) with .
  9. Private Nuisance is a (1) (2) (3) where the interference is one where the .

Liability

0 Correct out of 3
  1. Vicarious Liability is when the (1) Defendant commits a tort (2) and (3) the third person is held liable due in part to the relationship with the Defendant.
  2. Joint and Several Liability applies when the (1) (2) combine (3) to produce a single indivisible injury.
  3. Contribution allows a (1) Defendant who has paid more than their fair share of damages to (2) .
  4. Vicarious Liability is when the (1) (2) against the Plaintiff and (3) the third person is held liable due in part .
  5. Joint and Several Liability applies when the (1) (2) (3) to produce a single indivisible injury.
  6. Contribution allows a (1) Defendant who has paid more than their fair share of damages to (2) .
  7. Vicarious Liability is when the (1) (2) and (3) the third person is held liable due in part .
  8. Joint and Several Liability applies when the (1) (2) (3) to produce a .
  9. Contribution allows a (1) Defendant who has paid to (2) .
  • Principles
  • Incohate Crimes
  • Defenses
  • Crimes Against the Person
  • Crimes Against Property

Principles

0 Correct out of 10
  1. Transferred Intent occurs when the Defendant is held liable if the intended harm caused affects either a (1) or (2) different object.
  2. Causation is either the (1) or (2) the cause-in-fact of the criminal act.
  3. Actus Reus is a (1) voluntary (2) .
  4. Conspiracy is an (1) (2) between two or more people (3) to commit a crime or unlawful activity.
  5. Merger occurs when (1) two or more offenses merge (2) .
  6. Model Penal Code mental states are either (1) purposefully (2) (3) recklessly or (4) negligently.
  7. Mens Rea refers to the required mental state at the time the crime was committed which can be either (1) specific intent (2) general intent or (3) .
  8. Concurrence is the (1) physical act and (2) the required (3) occur simultaneously.
  9. Criminal Act requires (1) actus reus (2) mens reus (3) and (4) concurrence.
  10. Accomplice Liability arises when an individual (1) aids, abets or encourages (2) the the crime (3) with the intent that the principal commits the crime.
  11. Transferred Intent occurs when the Defendant is held liable if the intended harm caused affects either a (1) or (2) different object.
  12. Causation is either the (1) proximate cause or (2) the .
  13. Actus Reus is a (1) voluntary (2) .
  14. Conspiracy is an (1) (2) between two or more people (3) .
  15. Merger occurs when (1) two or more offenses merge (2) .
  16. Model Penal Code mental states are either (1) (2) knowingly (3) or (4) negligently.
  17. Mens Rea refers to the required mental state at the time the crime was committed which can be either (1) (2) general intent or (3) .
  18. Concurrence is the (1) physical act and (2) the required (3) .
  19. Criminal Act requires (1) actus reus (2) (3) and (4) concurrence.
  20. Accomplice Liability arises when an individual (1) (2) the principal before, during or after the crime (3) with the .
  21. Transferred Intent occurs when the Defendant is held liable if the intended harm caused affects either a (1) or (2) .
  22. Causation is either the (1) or (2) the .
  23. Actus Reus is a (1) (2) .
  24. Conspiracy is an (1) (2) (3) .
  25. Merger occurs when (1) merge (2) .
  26. Model Penal Code mental states are either (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  27. Mens Rea refers to the required mental state at the time the crime was committed which can be either (1) (2) or (3) .
  28. Concurrence is the (1) and (2) the required (3) .
  29. Criminal Act requires (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  30. Accomplice Liability arises when an individual (1) (2) the the crime (3) with the .

Incohate Crimes

0 Correct out of 4
  1. Attempt is an overt act (1) done with the specific intent to complete the crime but (2) .
  2. Co-Conspirator Liability holds each co-conspirator liable for the acts that are (1) foreseeable and (2) .
  3. Solicitation involves (1) inciting, urging, or asking (2) .
  4. Conspiracy is an (1) (2) with the intent to commit the targeted crime and (3) an overt act in furtherance of.
  5. Attempt is an overt act (1) but (2) falls short of completing the crime.
  6. Co-Conspirator Liability holds each co-conspirator liable for the acts that are (1) foreseeable and (2) .
  7. Solicitation involves (1) inciting, urging, or asking (2) .
  8. Conspiracy is an (1) intentional agreement between two or more people (2) with the and (3) .
  9. Attempt is an overt act (1) but (2) .
  10. Co-Conspirator Liability holds each co-conspirator liable for the acts that are (1) and (2) .
  11. Solicitation involves (1) (2) .
  12. Conspiracy is an (1) (2) with the and (3) .

Defenses

0 Correct out of 4
  1. Duress is a defense when the (1) (2) that the crime was necessary to prevent death or serious bodily injury.
  2. Necessity applies when the (1) (2) to avoid imminent harm to themselves, others, or society.
  3. Insanity is a defense to all crimes regardless of the intent requirement which may be established under (1) M’Naghten Rule (2) Irresistible Impulse Test (3) Model Penal Code or the (4) .
  4. Entrapment occurs when the (1) and (2) the Defendant had no prior pre-disposition to commit the crime.
  5. Duress is a defense when the (1) Defendant committed a crime under the reasonable belief (2) that the crime was .
  6. Necessity applies when the (1) (2) to avoid imminent harm to themselves, others, or society.
  7. Insanity is a defense to all crimes regardless of the intent requirement which may be established under (1) M’Naghten Rule (2) (3) Model Penal Code or the (4) .
  8. Entrapment occurs when the (1) criminal plan originated with law enforcement and (2) the .
  9. Duress is a defense when the (1) (2) that the crime was .
  10. Necessity applies when the (1) (2) to avoid imminent harm to themselves, others, or society.
  11. Insanity is a defense to all crimes regardless of the intent requirement which may be established under (1) (2) (3) or the (4) .
  12. Entrapment occurs when the (1) and (2) the .

Crimes Against the Person

0 Correct out of 11
  1. False Imprisonment is the (1) unlawful confinement of a person (2) .
  2. Rape is the (1) carnal knowledge (2) of a woman (3) (4) without her consent.
  3. The Types of Murder include (1) intent to kill (2) intent to inflict serious bodily harm (3) and (4) Depraved Heart
  4. Felony Murder occurs when a killing takes pace during the commission of an inherently dangerous felony such as (1) burglary (2) arson (3) rape (4) robbery or (5) .
  5. Voluntary Manslaughter is a (1) killing (2) .
  6. Assault is (1) an (2) reasonable apprehension of imminent bodily harm.
  7. Murder is the (1) unlawful killing (2) of another human (3) .
  8. Kidnapping is the (1) unlawful confinement of a person (2) without their consent (3) .
  9. Adequate Provocation occurs when the (1) (2) would cause an ordinary person to experience sudden and intense passion and (3) no time to cool off between and killing.
  10. Battery is the (1) (2) to a person or another (3) resulting in bodily injury or offensive touching.
  11. Involuntary Manslaughter is a (1) killing (2) (3) during an unlawful act not resulting in Felony Murder.
  12. False Imprisonment is the (1) unlawful confinement of a person (2) .
  13. Rape is the (1) (2) of a woman (3) by a man other than her husband (4) .
  14. The Types of Murder include (1) (2) intent to inflict serious bodily harm (3) and (4) Depraved Heart
  15. Felony Murder occurs when a killing takes pace during the commission of an inherently dangerous felony such as (1) (2) (3) rape (4) or (5) kidnapping.
  16. Voluntary Manslaughter is a (1) killing (2) .
  17. Assault is (1) an (2) reasonable apprehension of imminent bodily harm.
  18. Murder is the (1) (2) of another human (3) .
  19. Kidnapping is the (1) unlawful confinement of a person (2) (3) .
  20. Adequate Provocation occurs when the (1) (2) would cause an ordinary person to experience sudden and intense passion and (3) between and killing.
  21. Battery is the (1) (2) (3) resulting in bodily injury or offensive touching.
  22. Involuntary Manslaughter is a (1) (2) (3) during an unlawful act not resulting in Felony Murder.
  23. False Imprisonment is the (1) (2) .
  24. Rape is the (1) (2) (3) (4) .
  25. The Types of Murder include (1) (2) (3) and (4)
  26. Felony Murder occurs when a killing takes pace during the commission of an inherently dangerous felony such as (1) (2) (3) (4) or (5) .
  27. Voluntary Manslaughter is a (1) (2) .
  28. Assault is (1) an (2) .
  29. Murder is the (1) (2) (3) .
  30. Kidnapping is the (1) (2) (3) .
  31. Adequate Provocation occurs when the (1) (2) would cause an and (3) between and killing.
  32. Battery is the (1) (2) (3) .
  33. Involuntary Manslaughter is a (1) (2) (3) during an unlawful act .

Crimes Against Property

0 Correct out of 9
  1. Forgery is the (1) (2) of a written document (3) with purported legal significance (4) with intent to defraud.
  2. Robbery is the (1) taking and carrying away (2) of (3) with the intent to permanently deprive them of that property (4) by force or threat.
  3. Larceny is the (1) (2) of another’s personal property (3) with the intent to permanently deprive them of that property.
  4. Embezzlement is the (1) (2) of another’s personal property (3) by one in lawful possession.
  5. Receipt of Stolen Property involves (1) (2) of stolen property (3) known or should have known to be illegally obtained by another (4) with the intent to permanently deprive.
  6. Arson is the (1) malicious (2) burning (3) of .
  7. False Pretenses involve (1) obtaining title to another’s property (2) (3) of past or existing facts (4) with the intent to defraud.
  8. Larceny by Trick occurs when (1) (2) by false statements (3) of past or existing facts.
  9. Burglary is the (1) breaking and (2) entering (3) of another’s dwelling (4) at nighttime (5) with the .
  10. Forgery is the (1) creation or alteration (2) of a (3) with (4) with intent to defraud.
  11. Robbery is the (1) taking and carrying away (2) of (3) with the (4) by force or threat.
  12. Larceny is the (1) (2) of another’s personal property (3) .
  13. Embezzlement is the (1) fraudulent conversion (2) (3) .
  14. Receipt of Stolen Property involves (1) (2) of stolen property (3) to be illegally obtained by another (4) with the intent to permanently deprive.
  15. Arson is the (1) (2) burning (3) of .
  16. False Pretenses involve (1) obtaining title to another’s property (2) (3) (4) with the intent to defraud.
  17. Larceny by Trick occurs when (1) (2) (3) of past or existing facts.
  18. Burglary is the (1) and (2) entering (3) of (4) at (5) with the intent to commit a felony therein.
  19. Forgery is the (1) (2) of a (3) with (4) with .
  20. Robbery is the (1) (2) of (3) with the (4) by .
  21. Larceny is the (1) (2) (3) .
  22. Embezzlement is the (1) (2) (3) .
  23. Receipt of Stolen Property involves (1) (2) of (3) to be illegally obtained by another (4) .
  24. Arson is the (1) (2) (3) of .
  25. False Pretenses involve (1) (2) (3) (4) .
  26. Larceny by Trick occurs when (1) (2) (3) .
  27. Burglary is the (1) and (2) (3) of (4) at (5) with the .
  • Judicial Power
  • Legislative Power
  • Executive Power
  • Federalism
  • Individual Liberties
  • Due Process
  • Fundamental Rights
  • Equal Protection
  • Freedom of Speech

Judicial Power

0 Correct out of 12
  1. Eleventh Amendment bars suits against state governments in federal court unless (1) states waive sovereign immunity (2) suit involves fourteenth amendment (3) or (4) bankruptcy proceedings.
  2. Ripeness is a Plaintiff has been (1) or (2) suffers immediate threat of harm.
  3. Final Judgement occurs when the Supreme Court can only hear cases if there has been (1) or (2) judgement by the state’s highest court.
  4. Mootness is a courts ability to hear only live controversies unless (1) wrongs capable of repetition (2) or (3) class action lawsuits.
  5. Adequate and Independent Grounds Doctrine means the Supreme Court cannot review a state court decision that rested on (1) and (2) adequate state law ground.
  6. Justiciability is an ongoing controversy that includes (1) (2) ripeness or (3) mootness.
  7. Political Question Doctrine means federal courts cannot adjudicate constitutional issues such as (1) constitutional power reserved to or (2) are inherently incapable of judicial resolution.
  8. Original Jurisdiction occurs when the Supreme Court has original jurisdiction over (1) (2) cases involving foreign ambassadors and (3) other foreign ministers.
  9. Injury to all is an (1) to (2) none.
  10. Suits against state officers means a state officer can be sued in federal court when (1) a or (2) a claim for money damages paid by the state officer personally.
  11. Third Party Standing is a Plaintiff asserts the rights of a third party where the Plaintiff was injured when either (1) Plaintiff’s injury adversely affects their relationship with third parties or (2) the .
  12. Standing is a party must have a concrete interest in the outcome of the claim including (1) injury (2) and (3) redressability.
  13. Eleventh Amendment bars suits against state governments in federal court unless (1) states waive sovereign immunity (2) (3) federal government brings the suit or (4) .
  14. Ripeness is a Plaintiff has been (1) or (2) suffers immediate threat of harm.
  15. Final Judgement occurs when the Supreme Court can only hear cases if there has been (1) or (2) judgement by the state’s highest court.
  16. Mootness is a courts ability to hear only live controversies unless (1) wrongs capable of repetition (2) or (3) .
  17. Adequate and Independent Grounds Doctrine means the Supreme Court cannot review a state court decision that rested on (1) independent and (2) .
  18. Justiciability is an ongoing controversy that includes (1) standing (2) or (3) .
  19. Political Question Doctrine means federal courts cannot adjudicate constitutional issues such as (1) constitutional power reserved to another branch of government or (2) are .
  20. Original Jurisdiction occurs when the Supreme Court has original jurisdiction over (1) (2) and (3) other foreign ministers.
  21. Injury to all is an (1) injury to (2) .
  22. Suits against state officers means a state officer can be sued in federal court when (1) a or (2) a claim for money damages paid by the state officer personally.
  23. Third Party Standing is a Plaintiff asserts the rights of a third party where the Plaintiff was injured when either (1) Plaintiff’s injury adversely affects their relationship with third parties or (2) the .
  24. Standing is a party must have a concrete interest in the outcome of the claim including (1) (2) causation and (3) .
  25. Eleventh Amendment bars suits against state governments in federal court unless (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  26. Ripeness is a Plaintiff has been (1) or (2) .
  27. Final Judgement occurs when the Supreme Court can only hear cases if there has been (1) or (2) .
  28. Mootness is a courts ability to hear only live controversies unless (1) (2) or (3) .
  29. Adequate and Independent Grounds Doctrine means the Supreme Court cannot review a state court decision that rested on (1) and (2) .
  30. Justiciability is an ongoing controversy that includes (1) (2) or (3) .
  31. Political Question Doctrine means federal courts cannot adjudicate constitutional issues such as (1) constitutional power reserved to or (2) are .
  32. Original Jurisdiction occurs when the Supreme Court has original jurisdiction over (1) (2) and (3) .
  33. Injury to all is an (1) to (2) .
  34. Suits against state officers means a state officer can be sued in federal court when (1) a or (2) a .
  35. Third Party Standing is a Plaintiff asserts the rights of a third party where the Plaintiff was injured when either (1) or (2) the .
  36. Standing is a party must have a concrete interest in the outcome of the claim including (1) (2) and (3) .

Legislative Power

0 Correct out of 9
  1. Delegation of Powers is the broad authority to delegate legislative powers but can only do so when (1) the scope is clearly defined and (2) .
  2. Police Power occurs when Congress has no general police power except (1) military (2) Indian reservation (3) land and (4) .
  3. Executing a law requires 1) bicameralism (2) and (3) signed within 10 days excluding Sunday.
  4. Conditional Grants refer to Congress’s ability to induce state regulatory or legislative action through conditional grants provided that (1) condition must be clearly stated (2) and (3) condition cannot be unduly coercive.
  5. Tenth Amendment grants all powers (1) and (2) not prohibited by the States are reserved to the States.
  6. Taxing and Spending Clause grants Congress the authority to tax and spend in (1) for the (2) general welfare.
  7. Interstate Commerce grants Congress the authority to regulate (1) channels (2) or (3) economic activities that have a substantial effect on interstate commerce.
  8. Intrastate Commerce grants Congress the authority to regulate (1) or (2) economic activity if there is a rational basis to conclude that in the aggregate, it substantially affects interstate commerce.
  9. Commerce Clause grants Congress the (1) exclusive authority to (2) .
  10. Delegation of Powers is the broad authority to delegate legislative powers but can only do so when (1) and (2) not a delegation of a core power.
  11. Police Power occurs when Congress has no general police power except (1) military (2) (3) land and (4) .
  12. Executing a law requires 1) (2) and (3) signed within 10 days excluding Sunday.
  13. Conditional Grants refer to Congress’s ability to induce state regulatory or legislative action through conditional grants provided that (1) (2) and (3) condition cannot be unduly coercive.
  14. Tenth Amendment grants all powers (1) not granted to the federal government and (2) .
  15. Taxing and Spending Clause grants Congress the authority to tax and spend in (1) anyway deemed necessary for the (2) .
  16. Interstate Commerce grants Congress the authority to regulate (1) channels (2) or (3) .
  17. Intrastate Commerce grants Congress the authority to regulate (1) commercial activity or (2) .
  18. Commerce Clause grants Congress the (1) exclusive authority to (2) .
  19. Delegation of Powers is the broad authority to delegate legislative powers but can only do so when (1) and (2) .
  20. Police Power occurs when Congress has no general police power except (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  21. Executing a law requires 1) (2) and (3) .
  22. Conditional Grants refer to Congress’s ability to induce state regulatory or legislative action through conditional grants provided that (1) (2) and (3) .
  23. Tenth Amendment grants all powers (1) and (2) .
  24. Taxing and Spending Clause grants Congress the authority to tax and spend in (1) for the (2) .
  25. Interstate Commerce grants Congress the authority to regulate (1) (2) or (3) .
  26. Intrastate Commerce grants Congress the authority to regulate (1) or (2) .
  27. Commerce Clause grants Congress the (1) to (2) .

Executive Power

0 Correct out of 8
  1. Pardon Power is the power retained by the President to pardon those (1) accused or (2) .
  2. Removal Powers are the power of the Executive Branch to remove a high-level executive officer in which (1) the or (2) Congress can remove high-level executive officers through its impeachment power.
  3. Presidential Appointment Powers consist of (1) ambassadors (2) and (3) other high-level officers without the consent of the Senate.
  4. Executive Privilege protects against (1) and (2) conversations.
  5. Immunity occurs when the President has absolute immunity from (1) and (2) taken while in office.
  6. Congressional Appointment Powers vest in (1) (2) courts or (3) department or agency leadership.
  7. Impeachment is the House of Representatives can impeach the (1) President (2) Vice President (3) and (4) other Federal Officers by a majority vote whereupon a trial in the Senate takes place with a 2/3 majority vote for removal from office.
  8. Presidential Authority granted by Article II of the United States Constitution allows the President to enter (1) (2) appoint ambassadors (3) act as Commander in Chief of the military and (4) power to represent the United States in foreign affairs.
  9. Pardon Power is the power retained by the President to pardon those (1) accused or (2) .
  10. Removal Powers are the power of the Executive Branch to remove a high-level executive officer in which (1) the or (2) Congress can remove high-level executive officers through its impeachment power.
  11. Presidential Appointment Powers consist of (1) (2) federal judges and (3) .
  12. Executive Privilege protects against (1) disclosure of presidential papers and (2) .
  13. Immunity occurs when the President has absolute immunity from (1) and (2) taken while in office.
  14. Congressional Appointment Powers vest in (1) inferior officers in the presidency (2) or (3) .
  15. Impeachment is the House of Representatives can impeach the (1) (2) Vice (3) and (4) other Federal Officers by a majority vote whereupon a trial in the Senate takes place with a 2/3 majority vote for removal from office.
  16. Presidential Authority granted by Article II of the United States Constitution allows the President to enter (1) (2) appoint ambassadors (3) act as Commander in Chief of the military and (4) .
  17. Pardon Power is the power retained by the President to pardon those (1) or (2) .
  18. Removal Powers are the power of the Executive Branch to remove a high-level executive officer in which (1) the or (2) .
  19. Presidential Appointment Powers consist of (1) (2) and (3) .
  20. Executive Privilege protects against (1) and (2) .
  21. Immunity occurs when the President has absolute immunity from (1) and (2) .
  22. Congressional Appointment Powers vest in (1) (2) or (3) .
  23. Impeachment is the House of Representatives can impeach the (1) (2) Vice (3) and (4) .
  24. Presidential Authority granted by Article II of the United States Constitution allows the President to enter (1) (2) (3) and (4) .

Federalism

0 Correct out of 7
  1. Express Preemption means a federal law trumps conflicting (1) state and (2) .
  2. Supremacy Clause means a (1) federal law is (2) the .
  3. Dormant Commerce Clause Exceptions include (1) necessary to an important state interest (2) (3) traditional government function or (4) Congressional approval.
  4. State Taxation means a state tax must have a substantial connection to the state in such a way that it does not interfere with interstate commerce unless (1) substantial nexus within the state (2) tax is fairly apportioned to the activity connected to the state or (3) .
  5. Implied Preemption occurs when a federal law is silent on confliction and will control when (1) mutual exclusivity (2) state law impedes a federal objective or (3) .
  6. Dormant Commerce Clause occurs when state and local law regulate local aspects of interstate commerce when not under the commerce power if it does not (1) discriminate against out-of-state competition (2) unduly burden interstate commerce or (3) .
  7. Privileges and Immunities Clause is a state may not discriminate against non-state residents when it (1) (2) commercial activities and (3) not necessary to achieve an important governmental interest.
  8. Express Preemption means a federal law trumps conflicting (1) and (2) local laws if expressly d.
  9. Supremacy Clause means a (1) federal law is (2) the .
  10. Dormant Commerce Clause Exceptions include (1) necessary to an important state interest (2) state market participant (3) or (4) .
  11. State Taxation means a state tax must have a substantial connection to the state in such a way that it does not interfere with interstate commerce unless (1) (2) or (3) tax must be fairly related to some governmental service or benefit.
  12. Implied Preemption occurs when a federal law is silent on confliction and will control when (1) (2) or (3) Congress has a clear intent to legislate exclusivity.
  13. Dormant Commerce Clause occurs when state and local law regulate local aspects of interstate commerce when not under the commerce power if it does not (1) (2) unduly burden interstate commerce or (3) .
  14. Privileges and Immunities Clause is a state may not discriminate against non-state residents when it (1) (2) and (3) not necessary to achieve an important governmental interest.
  15. Express Preemption means a federal law trumps conflicting (1) and (2) local laws if expressly d.
  16. Supremacy Clause means a (1) is (2) the .
  17. Dormant Commerce Clause Exceptions include (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  18. State Taxation means a state tax must have a substantial connection to the state in such a way that it does not interfere with interstate commerce unless (1) (2) or (3) .
  19. Implied Preemption occurs when a federal law is silent on confliction and will control when (1) (2) or (3) .
  20. Dormant Commerce Clause occurs when state and local law regulate local aspects of interstate commerce when not under the commerce power if it does not (1) (2) or (3) .
  21. Privileges and Immunities Clause is a state may not discriminate against non-state residents when it (1) (2) and (3) .

Individual Liberties

0 Correct out of 8
  1. Rational Basis means a law is upheld if it is (1) rationally related to a (2) .
  2. Strict Scrutiny means a law will be upheld if it is (1) necessary to achieve a (2) .
  3. Fifteenth Amendment are States or Federal government cannot deny any citizen the right to vote on the basis of (1) or (2) color.
  4. Government Action Exceptions include a (1) or (2) significant state entanglement between the government and private conduct.
  5. Thirteenth Amendment expressly prohibits (1) slavery and (2) .
  6. Fourteenth Amendment are States cannot deprive any person of (1) life (2) or (3) property without due process of law.
  7. Intermediate Scrutiny means a law will be upheld if it is (2) to an (2) important governmental interest.
  8. Government Action only applies to (1) federal (2) state or (3) .
  9. Rational Basis means a law is upheld if it is (1) to a (2) legitimate government interest.
  10. Strict Scrutiny means a law will be upheld if it is (1) a (2) compelling governmental interest.
  11. Fifteenth Amendment are States or Federal government cannot deny any citizen the right to vote on the basis of (1) race or (2) .
  12. Government Action Exceptions include a (1) or (2) significant state entanglement between the government and private conduct.
  13. Thirteenth Amendment expressly prohibits (1) and (2) indentured servitude.
  14. Fourteenth Amendment are States cannot deprive any person of (1) (2) liberty or (3) .
  15. Intermediate Scrutiny means a law will be upheld if it is (2) substantially related to an (2) .
  16. Government Action only applies to (1) (2) or (3) local governments.
  17. Rational Basis means a law is upheld if it is (1) to a (2) .
  18. Strict Scrutiny means a law will be upheld if it is (1) a (2) .
  19. Fifteenth Amendment are States or Federal government cannot deny any citizen the right to vote on the basis of (1) or (2) .
  20. Government Action Exceptions include a (1) or (2) .
  21. Thirteenth Amendment expressly prohibits (1) and (2) .
  22. Fourteenth Amendment are States cannot deprive any person of (1) (2) or (3) .
  23. Intermediate Scrutiny means a law will be upheld if it is (2) to an (2) .
  24. Government Action only applies to (1) (2) or (3) .

Due Process

0 Correct out of 4
  1. Bill of Attainder prohibit State and Federal governments from passing legislation that punish (1) or (2) group members without a judicial trial.
  2. Contract Clause is a (1) state cannot interfere with (2) .
  3. Takings Clause is the government shall not take (1) (2) for public use (3) without just compensation.
  4. Ex Post Fact Clause prohibit states and federal governments from passing retroactive laws if either (1) criminally punishes conduct that was lawful when done (2) or (3) reduces the burden required to convict a person for a crime after it was committed.
  5. Bill of Attainder prohibit State and Federal governments from passing legislation that punish (1) specific individuals or (2) .
  6. Contract Clause is a (1) with (2) existing contractual duties including governmental obligations.
  7. Takings Clause is the government shall not take (1) private property (2) for (3) .
  8. Ex Post Fact Clause prohibit states and federal governments from passing retroactive laws if either (1) criminally punishes conduct that was lawful when done (2) or (3) .
  9. Bill of Attainder prohibit State and Federal governments from passing legislation that punish (1) or (2) .
  10. Contract Clause is a (1) with (2) .
  11. Takings Clause is the government shall not take (1) (2) for (3) .
  12. Ex Post Fact Clause prohibit states and federal governments from passing retroactive laws if either (1) (2) or (3) .

Fundamental Rights

0 Correct out of 1
  1. Fundamental Rights under the Right of Privacy include (1) contraception (2) abortion (3) marriage (4) procreation (5) education (6) raise your family (7) and (8) right to vote.
  2. Fundamental Rights under the Right of Privacy include (1) (2) abortion (3) marriage (4) procreation (5) (6) (7) travel and (8) .
  3. Fundamental Rights under the Right of Privacy include (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (7) and (8) .

Equal Protection

0 Correct out of 2
  1. Equal Protection Clause means the government cannot treat similarly situated people or groups of people differently when a (1) law is discriminatory on its face (2) facially neutral law applied in a discriminatory manner or (3) .
  2. Alienage means a non-United States citizen will be subject to scrutiny unless (1) or (2) a congressional law regulating immigration.
  3. Equal Protection Clause means the government cannot treat similarly situated people or groups of people differently when a (1) law is discriminatory on its face (2) or (3) .
  4. Alienage means a non-United States citizen will be subject to scrutiny unless (1) related to self-government and the democratic process or (2) a .
  5. Equal Protection Clause means the government cannot treat similarly situated people or groups of people differently when a (1) (2) or (3) .
  6. Alienage means a non-United States citizen will be subject to scrutiny unless (1) or (2) a .

Freedom of Speech

0 Correct out of 12
  1. Free Exercise Clause means the government is prohibited from punishing someone solely on the basis of that person’s (1) or (2) conduct.
  2. Freedom of Association is the right to participate with others who have similar (1) (2) religious or (3) cultural beliefs.
  3. Private Forums are private properties can restrict speech in (1) a or (2) non-public forum in which speech is reasonably related to some legitimate interest and viewpoint neutral.
  4. Symbolic Speech is speech that refers to expressive or communicative conduct will be restricted if (1) the regulation furthers an important government interest (2) that and (3) the impact on speech is no greater than necessary to further the important governmental interest.
  5. First Amendment expressly protects the freedom of expression including (1) speech (2) press (3) and (4) association.
  6. Obscenity is the Governmental regulation of lesser protected speech if (1) (2) patently offensive in its sexual portrayal and (3) taken as a whole lacks literary, artistic, or scientific merit.
  7. Public Forums means government property is constitutionally required to make speech available if it is (1) content neutral (2) narrowly tailored to serve an important governmental purpose and (3) .
  8. Overbreadth Law is unconstitutional if it regulates (1) than the (2) Constitution allows to be regulated.
  9. Vague Law is unconstitutional if a reasonable person cannot tell whether speech is (1) or (2) permitted.
  10. Establishment Clause is the governmental prohibition to (1) (2) sponsor a religion or (3) give preference to one religion over another.
  11. Incitement of Unlawful Activity occurs when fighting words or true threats are restricted if (1) there is a substantial likelihood that the speech will bring imminent illegal activity and (2) .
  12. Commercial Speech is the Governmental regulation of unprotected commercial speech if (1) (2) misleading (3) deceptive (4) illegal or (5) concerns illegal activity.
  13. Free Exercise Clause means the government is prohibited from punishing someone solely on the basis of that person’s (1) religious beliefs or (2) .
  14. Freedom of Association is the right to participate with others who have similar (1) (2) religious or (3) .
  15. Private Forums are private properties can restrict speech in (1) a or (2) non-public forum in which speech is reasonably related to some legitimate interest and viewpoint neutral.
  16. Symbolic Speech is speech that refers to expressive or communicative conduct will be restricted if (1) the (2) that and (3) the impact on speech is no greater than necessary to further the important governmental interest.
  17. First Amendment exly protects the freedom of exion including (1) speech (2) (3) assembly and (4) .
  18. Obscenity is the Governmental regulation of lesser protected speech if (1) (2) and (3) taken as a whole lacks literary, artistic, or scientific merit.
  19. Public Forums means government property is constitutionally required to make speech available if it is (1) content neutral (2) and (3) .
  20. Overbreadth Law is unconstitutional if it regulates (1) than the (2) Constitution allows to be regulated.
  21. Vague Law is unconstitutional if a reasonable person cannot tell whether speech is (1) or (2) permitted.
  22. Establishment Clause is the governmental prohibition to (1) (2) or (3) give preference to one religion over another.
  23. Incitement of Unlawful Activity occurs when fighting words or true threats are restricted if (1) there is a substantial likelihood that the speech will bring imminent illegal activity and (2) .
  24. Commercial Speech is the Governmental regulation of unprotected commercial speech if (1) (2) (3) deceptive (4) or (5) concerns activity.
  25. Free Exercise Clause means the government is prohibited from punishing someone solely on the basis of that person’s (1) or (2) .
  26. Freedom of Association is the right to participate with others who have similar (1) (2) or (3) .
  27. Private Forums are private properties can restrict speech in (1) a or (2) .
  28. Symbolic Speech is speech that refers to expressive or communicative conduct will be restricted if (1) the (2) that and (3) the .
  29. First Amendment exly protects the freedom of exion including (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  30. Obscenity is the Governmental regulation of lesser protected speech if (1) (2) and (3) .
  31. Public Forums means government property is constitutionally required to make speech available if it is (1) (2) and (3) .
  32. Overbreadth Law is unconstitutional if it regulates (1) than the (2) .
  33. Vague Law is unconstitutional if a reasonable person cannot tell whether speech is (1) or (2) permitted.
  34. Establishment Clause is the governmental prohibition to (1) (2) or (3) .
  35. Incitement of Unlawful Activity occurs when fighting words or true threats are restricted if (1) there is a and (2) .
  36. Commercial Speech is the Governmental regulation of unprotected commercial speech if (1) (2) (3) (4) or (5) concerns activity.
  • 4th Amendment
  • Warrantless Searches
  • Exclusionary Rules
  • Fifth Amendment
  • 6th Amendment
  • Trial Procedures
  • 8th Amendment

4th Amendment

0 Correct out of 8
  1. Police Checkpoints to search vehicles must be (1) neutral or an articulable standard and (2) .
  2. Validity of Search & Seizure must be viewed under reasonableness under the Fourth Amendment unless (1) governmental conduct (2) Defendant has standing (3) or (4) the presence of exigent circumstances.
  3. Reasonable Expectation of Privacy occurs when the individual has exhibited a (1) and (2) whether society is prepared to accept that activity as reasonable.
  4. Detention is a governmental seizure of the person which could be in the form of (1) stop & frisk (2) automobile stop (3) stationhouse detainment (4) or (5) detainment of occupants of a premise.
  5. Automobile Stop occurs when the police have (1) reasonable suspicion that (2) a .
  6. Probable Cause requires trustworthy facts or knowledge sufficient to a reasonable person to believe that the individual has (1) committed the crime or (2) .
  7. Search Warrant requires (1) probable cause (2) precise on its face and (3) .
  8. Arrest occurs when an individual is taken into custody for a (1) or (2) interrogation.
  9. Police Checkpoints to search vehicles must be (1) neutral or an articulable standard and (2) .
  10. Validity of Search & Seizure must be viewed under reasonableness under the Fourth Amendment unless (1) governmental conduct (2) (3) or (4) the presence of exigent circumstances.
  11. Reasonable Expectation of Privacy occurs when the individual has exhibited a (1) and (2) whether society is prepared to accept that activity as reasonable.
  12. Detention is a governmental seizure of the person which could be in the form of (1) (2) automobile stop (3) stationhouse detainment (4) or (5) .
  13. Automobile Stop occurs when the police have (1) that (2) a law was violated.
  14. Probable Cause requires trustworthy facts or knowledge sufficient to a reasonable person to believe that the individual has (1) committed the crime or (2) .
  15. Search Warrant requires (1) probable cause (2) and (3) .
  16. Arrest occurs when an individual is taken into custody for a (1) criminal investigation purpose or (2) .
  17. Police Checkpoints to search vehicles must be (1) and (2) .
  18. Validity of Search & Seizure must be viewed under reasonableness under the Fourth Amendment unless (1) (2) (3) or (4) the .
  19. Reasonable Expectation of Privacy occurs when the individual has exhibited a (1) and (2) .
  20. Detention is a governmental seizure of the person which could be in the form of (1) (2) (3) (4) or (5) .
  21. Automobile Stop occurs when the police have (1) that (2) a .
  22. Probable Cause requires trustworthy facts or knowledge sufficient to a reasonable person to believe that the individual has (1) or (2) .
  23. Search Warrant requires (1) (2) and (3) .
  24. Arrest occurs when an individual is taken into custody for a (1) or (2) .

Warrantless Searches

0 Correct out of 9
  1. Stop & Frisk occurs when the police detain a person for investigative purposes if (1) reasonable suspicion of criminally activity is a foot (2) and (3) frisk is limited to plain feel of weapons or contraband.
  2. Automobile Search occurs when the police search a vehicle if (1) probable cause exists and (2) .
  3. Electronic Surveillance requires a warrant when (1) (2) names of suspects subject to surveillance (3) describe with particularity the subject of conversations that are surveilled (4) limited to short time periods and (5) terminate when the information acquired is the information sought.
  4. Plain View Searches occurs when the police search any place where criminal activity is present when viewing if (1) legitimately on premise (2) criminal activity is immediately apparent and (3) .
  5. Search Incident to Lawful Arrest occurs when the police may search a lawfully arrested person in their immediate surrounding without a warrant if (1) arrest was lawful (2) search was contemporaneous with the arrest and (3) .
  6. Public School Searches occur when school officials have (1) (2) moderate chance at finding evidence (3) procedure for searching is reasonably related to the objective and (4) search is not overly intrusive.
  7. Consent to Search occurs when the police search anything if (1) (2) intelligibly made and (3) consenting person has authority to do so.
  8. Exigent Circumstances occurs when the police search and seize evidence without a warrant if (1) hot pursuit (2) emergency aid or (3) .
  9. Administrative Searches are conducted by Government agencies for (1) routine searches or (2) .
  10. Stop & Frisk occurs when the police detain a person for investigative purposes if (1) (2) length of detainment is no longer than necessary and (3) .
  11. Automobile Search occurs when the police search a vehicle if (1) and (2) probable cause arises prior to the search beginning.
  12. Electronic Surveillance requires a warrant when (1) probable cause that a specific crime has occurred or likely to occur (2) (3) (4) and (5) terminate when the information acquired is the information sought.
  13. Plain View Searches occurs when the police search any place where criminal activity is present when viewing if (1) (2) criminal activity is immediately apparent and (3) .
  14. Search Incident to Lawful Arrest occurs when the police may search a lawfully arrested person in their immediate surrounding without a warrant if (1) arrest was lawful (2) and (3) .
  15. Public School Searches occur when school officials have (1) reasonable suspicion (2) (3) procedure for searching is reasonably related to the objective and (4) .
  16. Consent to Search occurs when the police search anything if (1) (2) and (3) consenting person has authority to do so.
  17. Exigent Circumstances occurs when the police search and seize evidence without a warrant if (1) hot pursuit (2) or (3) .
  18. Administrative Searches are conducted by Government agencies for (1) routine searches or (2) .
  19. Stop & Frisk occurs when the police detain a person for investigative purposes if (1) (2) and (3) .
  20. Automobile Search occurs when the police search a vehicle if (1) and (2) .
  21. Electronic Surveillance requires a warrant when (1) (2) (3) (4) and (5) .
  22. Plain View Searches occurs when the police search any place where criminal activity is present when viewing if (1) (2) and (3) .
  23. Search Incident to Lawful Arrest occurs when the police may search a lawfully arrested person in their immediate surrounding without a warrant if (1) (2) and (3) .
  24. Public School Searches occur when school officials have (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  25. Consent to Search occurs when the police search anything if (1) (2) and (3) .
  26. Exigent Circumstances occurs when the police search and seize evidence without a warrant if (1) (2) or (3) .
  27. Administrative Searches are conducted by Government agencies for (1) or (2) .

Exclusionary Rules

0 Correct out of 2
  1. Exclusionary Rule is illegally obtained evidence is excluded against the defendant unless (1) government had an independent source to obtain the evidence (2) inevitable discovery or (3) .
  2. Exclusionary Rule doesn’t apply to (1) grand jury proceedings (2) parole or civil proceedings (3) or (4) evidence seized as a result of a Miranda violation.
  3. Exclusionary Rule is illegally obtained evidence is excluded against the defendant unless (1) (2) or (3) attenuation.
  4. Exclusionary Rule doesn’t apply to (1) (2) (3) violations of knock and announce rules or (4) evidence seized as a result of a Miranda violation.
  5. Exclusionary Rule is illegally obtained evidence is excluded against the defendant unless (1) (2) or (3) .
  6. Exclusionary Rule doesn’t apply to (1) (2) (3) or (4) .

Fifth Amendment

0 Correct out of 7
  1. Double Jeopardy occurs when the defendant cannot be retried for the same offense if (1) jury is sworn in (2) or (3) a court accepts a plea agreement.
  2. Waving Miranda occurs when (1) (2) voluntary and (3) intelligently made.
  3. Fifth Amendment of the United States Constitution protects (1) (2) in any proceeding (3) whom have the right to not respond to questions that might incriminate themselves.
  4. Retrial occurs when (1) (2) manifest necessity (3) successful appeal (4) breach of a plea agreement or (5) separate sovereigns.
  5. Miranda Warnings is the (1) right to remain silent as anything said can be used against them (2) and (3) if they cannot afford an attorney, one will be appointed to them.
  6. Invoking Miranda occurs when an individual (1) invokes the right to remain silent or (2) .
  7. Miranda Warnings apply to individuals when (1) and (2) interrogated.
  8. Double Jeopardy occurs when the defendant cannot be retried for the same offense if (1) jury is sworn in (2) or (3) a .
  9. Waving Miranda occurs when (1) (2) voluntary and (3) .
  10. Fifth Amendment of the United States Constitution protects (1) (2) in any proceeding (3) .
  11. Retrial occurs when (1) (2) manifest necessity (3) (4) or (5) separate sovereigns.
  12. Miranda Warnings is the (1) (2) right to an attorney and (3) .
  13. Invoking Miranda occurs when an individual (1) invokes the right to remain silent or (2) .
  14. Miranda Warnings apply to individuals when (1) in custody and (2) .
  15. Double Jeopardy occurs when the defendant cannot be retried for the same offense if (1) (2) or (3) a .
  16. Waving Miranda occurs when (1) (2) and (3) .
  17. Fifth Amendment of the United States Constitution protects (1) (2) in (3) .
  18. Retrial occurs when (1) (2) (3) (4) or (5) .
  19. Miranda Warnings is the (1) (2) and (3) .
  20. Invoking Miranda occurs when an individual (1) or (2) .
  21. Miranda Warnings apply to individuals when (1) and (2) .

6th Amendment

0 Correct out of 1
  1. Sixth Amendment Right to Counsel attaches automatically when (1) charges have been filed and (2) .
  2. Sixth Amendment Right to Counsel attaches automatically when (1) and (2) offense specific.
  3. Sixth Amendment Right to Counsel attaches automatically when (1) and (2) .

Trial Procedures

0 Correct out of 5
  1. Admissions must be made (1) voluntarily and (2) .
  2. Confrontation Clause grants every Defendant the right to confront the witnesses when (1) an out of court statement is (2) (3) in a criminal case and (4) may be excluded if the declarant is unavailable.
  3. Plea Bargain occurs when the Defendant’s plea is (1) voluntary (2) intelligently made and (3) .
  4. Grand Jury Proceedings are (1) required in federal court (2) (3) suspect has no right to confront witnesses (4) no right to Miranda warning and (5) no right to counsel.
  5. Jury Requirements consist of (1) at least 6 jurors (2) (3) jury pool must be a representative cross-section of the community (4) right to an impartial jury and (5) afforded peremptory challenges.
  6. Admissions must be made (1) and (2) based on the totality of the circumstances.
  7. Confrontation Clause grants every Defendant the right to confront the witnesses when (1) an out of court statement is (2) (3) in a criminal case and (4) .
  8. Plea Bargain occurs when the Defendant’s plea is (1) (2) intelligently made and (3) .
  9. Grand Jury Proceedings are (1) required in federal court (2) (3) (4) and (5) no right to counsel.
  10. Jury Requirements consist of (1) (2) unanimous decision (3) (4) right to an impartial jury and (5) .
  11. Admissions must be made (1) and (2) .
  12. Confrontation Clause grants every Defendant the right to confront the witnesses when (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  13. Plea Bargain occurs when the Defendant’s plea is (1) (2) and (3) .
  14. Grand Jury Proceedings are (1) (2) (3) (4) and (5) .
  15. Jury Requirements consist of (1) (2) (3) (4) and (5) .

8th Amendment

0 Correct out of 2
  1. Cruel and Unusual Punishment consists of (1) any cruel or (2) is banned that is (3) grossly disproportionate to the charged offense.
  2. Death Penalty is only imposed if the victim dies as a result of the Defendant’s crime unless (1) the Defendant was a minor when the crime was committed (2) mentally disabled (3) or (4) conviction was for felony murder when Defendant was not a participant or didn’t act with depraved heart.
  3. Cruel and Unusual Punishment consists of (1) or (2) unusual punishment is banned that is (3) .
  4. Death Penalty is only imposed if the victim dies as a result of the Defendant’s crime unless (1) the Defendant was a (2) mentally disabled (3) or (4) conviction was for felony murder when Defendant was not a participant or didn’t act with depraved heart.
  5. Cruel and Unusual Punishment consists of (1) or (2) is banned that is (3) .
  6. Death Penalty is only imposed if the victim dies as a result of the Defendant’s crime unless (1) the Defendant was a (2) (3) or (4) .
  • Personal Jurisdiction
  • Subject Matter Jurisdiction
  • Venue 
  • Service of Process
  • Interlocutory Injunctions
  • Pleadings and Motions
  • Joining Claims
  • Class Actions
  • Discovery
  • Pretrial, Trial, and Appeal 

Personal Jurisdiction

0 Correct out of 6
  1. Fairness Factors requires Due Process to be fair when (1) (2) convenience and (3) state interest.
  2. Personal Jurisdiction consists of (1) (2) in rem or (3) quasi in rem.
  3. Personal Jurisdiction is lawful if (1) service of process is done in the forum state (2) domiciled in the forum state (3) consent to jurisdiction or (4) .
  4. Minimum Contacts with the forum state must be (1) present (2) and (3) substantial justice.
  5. Personal Jurisdiction is the court’s ability to exercise authority over a (1) or (2) ’s property.
  6. Notice requires that Defendant must be sufficiently notified of a pending lawsuit in which notice must be reasonably calculated under the circumstances to apprise interested parties of the (1) action and (2) .
  7. Fairness Factors requires Due Process to be fair when (1) (2) and (3) state interest.
  8. Personal Jurisdiction consists of (1) (2) or (3) quasi .
  9. Personal Jurisdiction is lawful if (1) (2) domiciled in the forum state (3) or (4) Defendant’s actions fall within state’s long-arm statutes.
  10. Minimum Contacts with the forum state must be (1) (2) such that it doesn’t offend the traditional notions of fair play and (3) .
  11. Personal Jurisdiction is the court’s ability to exercise authority over a (1) party or (2) .
  12. Notice requires that Defendant must be sufficiently notified of a pending lawsuit in which notice must be reasonably calculated under the circumstances to apprise interested parties of the (1) and (2) afford an opportunity to be heard.
  13. Fairness Factors requires Due Process to be fair when (1) (2) and (3) .
  14. Personal Jurisdiction consists of (1) (2) or (3) quasi .
  15. Personal Jurisdiction is lawful if (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  16. Minimum Contacts with the forum state must be (1) (2) and (3) .
  17. Personal Jurisdiction is the court’s ability to exercise authority over a (1) or (2) ’s property.
  18. Notice requires that Defendant must be sufficiently notified of a pending lawsuit in which notice must be reasonably calculated under the circumstances to apprise interested parties of the (1) and (2) .

Subject Matter Jurisdiction

0 Correct out of 15
  1. Aggregation is the Plaintiff’s compiling of multiple claims against a (1) single Defendant (2) .
  2. Removal Jurisdiction is the Defendant can remove a case, other than diversity jurisdiction filed in Defendants home state, if (1) federal court would have had subject matter jurisdiction (2) all Defendants agree and (3) .
  3. Federal Question is when Federal courts have jurisdiction over proper pleaded claims arising under federal law if the (1) federal question appears on the face of the complaint and (2) .
  4. Amount in Controversy is the Plaintiff’s complaint must make a (1) and (2) exceeds $75,000 excluding interest and costs.
  5. Diversity Jurisdiction is Federal courts have subject matter jurisdiction over (1) and (2) amount in controversy exceeds $75,000.
  6. Subject Matter Jurisdiction is Federal courts must have authority over the claim in question with either (1) (2) Federal Question Jurisdiction (3) Supplemental Jurisdiction or (4) Removal Jurisdiction
  7. Natural Citizens are citizens of the state where (1) they are domiciled (2) at the .
  8. State Substantive Law will always govern (1) elements of a claim or defense (2) statute of limitations (3) conflict or choice of law rules or (4) .
  9. Erie Doctrine is the federal courts application of state substantive law and federal procedural law when (1) there is a or (2) if no federal law is on point, then apply either state law if outcome determinative or law that has a stronger interest or prevent forum shopping.
  10. Unincorporated Businesses are Citizens of all states in which (1) any partner or (2) .
  11. Domicile factors include (1) physical presence in the state and (2) .
  12. Business Corporations are citizens of every state where (1) and (2) where the corporation maintains a principal place of business.
  13. Supplemental Jurisdiction allows federal courts to hear additional claims that on their own would not meet Diversity or Federal Question Jurisdiction if (1) case is already in federal court and (2) each additional claim must .
  14. Exclusive Jurisdiction is when Federal courts have exclusive jurisdiction over certain types of claims including (1) (2) intellectual property (3) federal anti-trust claims or (4) postal matters.
  15. Citizenship for Complete Diversity is every Plaintiff must (1) be of (2) from every Defendant.
  16. Aggregation is the Plaintiff’s compiling of multiple claims against a (1) single Defendant (2) .
  17. Removal Jurisdiction is the Defendant can remove a case, other than diversity jurisdiction filed in Defendants home state, if (1) (2) and (3) remove within 30 days of service of first removable opportunity.
  18. Federal Question is when Federal courts have jurisdiction over proper pleaded claims arising under federal law if the (1) federal question appears on the face of the complaint and (2) .
  19. Amount in Controversy is the Plaintiff’s complaint must make a (1) and (2) exceeds $75,000 excluding interest and costs.
  20. Diversity Jurisdiction is Federal courts have subject matter jurisdiction over (1) and (2) amount in controversy exceeds $75,000.
  21. Subject Matter Jurisdiction is Federal courts must have authority over the claim in question with either (1) (2) Federal Question Jurisdiction (3) or (4) Removal Jurisdiction
  22. Natural Citizens are citizens of the state where (1) they are domiciled (2) at the .
  23. State Substantive Law will always govern (1) (2) statute of limitations (3) or (4) rules for tolling statute of limitations.
  24. Erie Doctrine is the federal courts application of state substantive law and federal procedural law when (1) there is a valid federal law that is on point and directly conflicts with state law or (2) if no federal law is on point, then apply either state law .
  25. Unincorporated Businesses are Citizens of all states in which (1) any partner or (2) .
  26. Domicile factors include (1) physical presence in the state and (2) .
  27. Business Corporations are citizens of every state where (1) and (2) where the corporation maintains a principal place of business.
  28. Supplemental Jurisdiction allows federal courts to hear additional claims that on their own would not meet Diversity or Federal Question Jurisdiction if (1) and (2) each additional claim must share a common nucleus of operative fact with an existing claim.
  29. Exclusive Jurisdiction is when Federal courts have exclusive jurisdiction over certain types of claims including (1) bankruptcy (2) (3) or (4) postal matters.
  30. Citizenship for Complete Diversity is every Plaintiff must (1) be of diverse citizenship (2) .
  31. Aggregation is the Plaintiff’s compiling of multiple claims against a (1) (2) .
  32. Removal Jurisdiction is the Defendant can remove a case, other than diversity jurisdiction filed in Defendants home state, if (1) (2) and (3) .
  33. Federal Question is when Federal courts have jurisdiction over proper pleaded claims arising under federal law if the (1) and (2) .
  34. Amount in Controversy is the Plaintiff’s complaint must make a (1) and (2) .
  35. Diversity Jurisdiction is Federal courts have subject matter jurisdiction over (1) and (2) .
  36. Subject Matter Jurisdiction is Federal courts must have authority over the claim in question with either (1) (2) (3) or (4)
  37. Natural Citizens are citizens of the state where (1) they are (2) at the .
  38. State Substantive Law will always govern (1) (2) (3) or (4) rules for tolling .
  39. Erie Doctrine is the federal courts application of state substantive law and federal procedural law when (1) there is a or (2) if no federal law is on point, then apply either state law .
  40. Unincorporated Businesses are Citizens of all states in which (1) or (2) .
  41. Domicile factors include (1) and (2) .
  42. Business Corporations are citizens of every state where (1) and (2) .
  43. Supplemental Jurisdiction allows federal courts to hear additional claims that on their own would not meet Diversity or Federal Question Jurisdiction if (1) and (2) each additional claim must .
  44. Exclusive Jurisdiction is when Federal courts have exclusive jurisdiction over certain types of claims including (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  45. Citizenship for Complete Diversity is every Plaintiff must (1) be of (2) .

Venue

0 Correct out of 2
  1. Venue is proper in the judicial district where the Plaintiff brings the suit when (1) any district where any Defendant resides (2) (3) location of property or (4) Defendant is subject to Personal Jurisdiction.
  2. Venue Transfer is a case may be transferred from one federal court to another federal court, unless venue is proper, if (1) the case could have been filed there or (2) .
  3. Venue is proper in the judicial district where the Plaintiff brings the suit when (1) any district where any Defendant resides (2) (3) or (4) Defendant is subject to Personal Jurisdiction.
  4. Venue Transfer is a case may be transferred from one federal court to another federal court, unless venue is proper, if (1) or (2) all parties consent to the transfer.
  5. Venue is proper in the judicial district where the Plaintiff brings the suit when (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  6. Venue Transfer is a case may be transferred from one federal court to another federal court, unless venue is proper, if (1) or (2) .

Service of Process

0 Correct out of 4
  1. Service of Process is the delivery to the Defendant of the (1) and (2) complaint.
  2. Any individual may serve (1) and (2) a non-party.
  3. Acceptable Methods of Service of Process may be completed by (1) personal service (2) substituted service (3) service upon Defendants authorized agent (4) or (5) any method permitted under state law.
  4. Waiver is when the Plaintiff requests that Defendant waive service of process by (1) mailing the Defendant the complaint and (2) a .
  5. Service of Process is the delivery to the Defendant of the (1) summons and (2) .
  6. Any individual may serve (1) and (2) a non-party.
  7. Acceptable Methods of Service of Process may be completed by (1) (2) substituted service (3) service upon (4) or (5) any method permitted under state law.
  8. Waiver is when the Plaintiff requests that Defendant waive service of process by (1) and (2) a formal request to waive service.
  9. Service of Process is the delivery to the Defendant of the (1) and (2) .
  10. Any individual may serve (1) and (2) a .
  11. Acceptable Methods of Service of Process may be completed by (1) (2) (3) service upon (4) or (5) .
  12. Waiver is when the Plaintiff requests that Defendant waive service of process by (1) and (2) a .

Interlocutory Injunctions

0 Correct out of 2
  1. Temporary Restraining Order are issued by a court when (1) (2) irreparable injury to a party (3) that will result before a hearing can be heard and (4) lasts up to 14 days from issuance.
  2. Preliminary Injunctions are a court order requiring a person to do or to cease doing something may be granted if (1) the moving the party will suffer irreparable harm that does not outweigh harm to the adverse party and (2) .
  3. Temporary Restraining Order are issued by a court when (1) necessary to prevent (2) irreparable injury to a party (3) that will result and (4) .
  4. Preliminary Injunctions are a court order requiring a person to do or to cease doing something may be granted if (1) the and (2) likely hood of success on the merits.
  5. Temporary Restraining Order are issued by a court when (1) (2) (3) that will result and (4) .
  6. Preliminary Injunctions are a court order requiring a person to do or to cease doing something may be granted if (1) the and (2) .

Pleadings and Motions

0 Correct out of 16
  1. Compulsory Counterclaim is a clam by the Defendant against the Plaintiff that arises from (1) the same transaction or (2) .
  2. Cross Claims are a claim asserted by a co-party that have (1) independent jurisdiction and (2) same transaction or (3) .
  3. Permissive Counterclaim is a claim by the Defendant against the Plaintiff that does not arise from (1) the or (2) occurrence.
  4. Relation Back Doctrine applies when a party amends a pleading to (1) add a new claim (2) add or substitute a new Defendant or (3) .
  5. Answer is a response to the complaint in which (1) Defendant states defenses to each claim asserted and (2) of Plaintiff’s complaint.
  6. Motion for a more definitive statement is the Defendant requires more information to answer the complaint if the complaint is (1) vague or (2) .
  7. Rule 11 certifications require the attorney or pro se party, to the best of their ability, certify that the (1) filing is not for an improper purpose (2) and (3) factual contentions and denials have or likely to have evidentiary support.
  8. Parties may amend their pleadings once as a matter of course if (1) or (2) if the pleading is one which requires a response within 21 days.
  9. Complaint is the initial pleading filed by the Plaintiff to begin the lawsuit which requires (1) statement of jurisdiction (2) statement of the claim and (3) .
  10. An amendment will relate back to a new claim if (1) same conduct (2) same transaction or (3) .
  11. Motion for judgement of the pleadings is a (1) judgement rendered by the court (2) prior to a verdict (3) resulting from and (4) one party is entitled to judgement as a matter of law.
  12. Rules 11 sanctions require (1) safe harbor for 21 days to allow the opposing party to remedy the issue and (2) a .
  13. An amendment will relate back to a new or substituted Defendant if (1) the amendment concerns the same conduct, transaction, or occurrence or (2) when the Defendant knew or should have known about the filing.
  14. Rule 12 Motions are a Defendant’s response to the validity of Plaintiff’s complaint consisting of (1) lack of subject matter jurisdiction (2) lack of personal jurisdiction (3) improper venue (4) insufficiency of process (5) insufficiency of service of process (6) failure to state a claim or (7) .
  15. Parties may only amend without a right when (1) written consent from the adverse party was given or (2) .
  16. Motion to strike is the Defendant request to strike any (1) redundant (2) immaterial (3) impertinent or (4) .
  17. Compulsory Counterclaim is a clam by the Defendant against the Plaintiff that arises from (1) the same transaction or (2) .
  18. Cross Claims are a claim asserted by a co-party that have (1) and (2) or (3) occurrence.
  19. Permissive Counterclaim is a claim by the Defendant against the Plaintiff that does not arise from (1) the same transaction or (2) .
  20. Relation Back Doctrine applies when a party amends a pleading to (1) (2) add or substitute a new Defendant or (3) .
  21. Answer is a response to the complaint in which (1) and (2) admit or deny each claim of Plaintiff’s complaint.
  22. Motion for a more definitive statement is the Defendant requires more information to answer the complaint if the complaint is (1) or (2) ambiguous.
  23. Rule 11 certifications require the attorney or pro se party, to the best of their ability, certify that the (1) (2) and (3) factual contentions and denials have or likely to have evidentiary support.
  24. Parties may amend their pleadings once as a matter of course if (1) within 21 days after service or (2) if the pleading is one which .
  25. Complaint is the initial pleading filed by the Plaintiff to begin the lawsuit which requires (1) (2) statement of the claim and (3) .
  26. An amendment will relate back to a new claim if (1) same conduct (2) or (3) .
  27. Motion for judgement of the pleadings is a (1) judgement rendered by the court (2) prior to a verdict (3) resulting from and (4) .
  28. Rules 11 sanctions require (1) safe harbor for 21 days to allow the opposing party to remedy the issue and (2) a .
  29. An amendment will relate back to a new or substituted Defendant if (1) the amendment concerns the same or (2) occurs within 90 days of filing of the original pleading when the Defendant knew or should have known about the filing.
  30. Rule 12 Motions are a Defendant’s response to the validity of Plaintiff’s complaint consisting of (1) (2) lack of personal jurisdiction (3) (4) (5) insufficiency of service of process (6) or (7) failure to join a necessary party.
  31. Parties may only amend without a right when (1) written consent from the adverse party was given or (2) .
  32. Motion to strike is the Defendant request to strike any (1) redundant (2) immaterial (3) or (4) .
  33. Compulsory Counterclaim is a clam by the Defendant against the Plaintiff that arises from (1) the or (2) .
  34. Cross Claims are a claim asserted by a co-party that have (1) and (2) or (3) .
  35. Permissive Counterclaim is a claim by the Defendant against the Plaintiff that does not arise from (1) the or (2) .
  36. Relation Back Doctrine applies when a party amends a pleading to (1) (2) or (3) .
  37. Answer is a response to the complaint in which (1) and (2) of Plaintiff’s complaint.
  38. Motion for a more definitive statement is the Defendant requires more information to answer the complaint if the complaint is (1) or (2) .
  39. Rule 11 certifications require the attorney or pro se party, to the best of their ability, certify that the (1) (2) and (3) .
  40. Parties may amend their pleadings once as a matter of course if (1) or (2) if the pleading is one which .
  41. Complaint is the initial pleading filed by the Plaintiff to begin the lawsuit which requires (1) (2) and (3) .
  42. An amendment will relate back to a new claim if (1) (2) or (3) .
  43. Motion for judgement of the pleadings is a (1) (2) (3) resulting from and (4) .
  44. Rules 11 sanctions require (1) to allow the opposing party to remedy the issue and (2) a .
  45. An amendment will relate back to a new or substituted Defendant if (1) the amendment concerns the same or (2) when the Defendant knew or should have known about the filing.
  46. Rule 12 Motions are a Defendant’s response to the validity of Plaintiff’s complaint consisting of (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) or (7) .
  47. Parties may only amend without a right when (1) or (2) .
  48. Motion to strike is the Defendant request to strike any (1) (2) (3) or (4) .

Joining Claims

0 Correct out of 9
  1. Rule 22 Interpleader allows a property holder to initiate a suit to compel claimants to the property to litigate a dispute if (1) Federal Question Jurisdiction or Complete Diversity Jurisdiction (2) no nationwide service required and (3) .
  2. Necessary Parties must be under (1) and (2) joining the parties will not destroy diversity jurisdiction.
  3. Permissive Joinder is when the Plaintiff seeks to join non-parties as co-plaintiffs or co-defendants if (1) the event is of the same transaction or occurrence (2) common questions of fact or law arise and (3) .
  4. Impleader allows Defendant to join a non-party who may be liable to Defendant for all, or part of the claim brought by Plaintiff against the original Defendant if (1) Defendant impleaded a third-party defendant by filing a complaint within 14 days after serving their answer (2) and (3) court must have personal jurisdiction over impleaded party.
  5. Intervention as a right is when a non-party must join an already pending suit if either (1) absent non-party’s interest will be harmed if not joined or (2) .
  6. Indispensable Party is a necessary party who cannot join in which the court could dismiss the claim after evaluating (1) (2) likelihood of prejudice (3) shape potential relief to avoid prejudice and (4) adequate remedies available for the Plaintiff if case is dismissed.
  7. Permissive Intervention is allowed at the court’s discretion if either (1) (2) absentee has a conditional statutory right or (3) absentee is a governmental officer or agency.
  8. Necessary Parties are absent parties may be forced to join the suit when either (1) without absentee court cannot grant complete relief (2) absentee’s legal interest may be impaired or (3) .
  9. Statutory Interpleader allows a property holder to initiate a suit to compel claimants to the property to litigate a dispute if (1) less than or equal to $500 (2) minimal diversity is present (3) and (4) nationwide service.
  10. Rule 22 Interpleader allows a property holder to initiate a suit to compel claimants to the property to litigate a dispute if (1) Federal Question Jurisdiction or Complete Diversity Jurisdiction (2) and (3) .
  11. Necessary Parties must be under (1) personal jurisdiction of the court and (2) .
  12. Permissive Joinder is when the Plaintiff seeks to join non-parties as co-plaintiffs or co-defendants if (1) the event is of the (2) common questions of fact or law arise and (3) .
  13. Impleader allows Defendant to join a non-party who may be liable to Defendant for all, or part of the claim brought by Plaintiff against the original Defendant if (1) Defendant impleaded a third-party defendant by filing a complaint within 14 days after serving their answer (2) and (3) .
  14. Intervention as a right is when a non-party must join an already pending suit if either (1) or (2) absent non-party has an unconditional statutory right.
  15. Indispensable Party is a necessary party who cannot join in which the court could dismiss the claim after evaluating (1) alternative forum availability (2) likelihood of prejudice (3) and (4) .
  16. Permissive Intervention is allowed at the court’s discretion if either (1) (2) or (3) absentee is a governmental officer or agency.
  17. Necessary Parties are absent parties may be forced to join the suit when either (1) (2) absentee’s legal interest may be impaired or (3) .
  18. Statutory Interpleader allows a property holder to initiate a suit to compel claimants to the property to litigate a dispute if (1) (2) minimal diversity is present (3) and (4) nationwide service.
  19. Rule 22 Interpleader allows a property holder to initiate a suit to compel claimants to the property to litigate a dispute if (1) (2) and (3) .
  20. Necessary Parties must be under (1) and (2) .
  21. Permissive Joinder is when the Plaintiff seeks to join non-parties as co-plaintiffs or co-defendants if (1) the event is of the (2) and (3) .
  22. Impleader allows Defendant to join a non-party who may be liable to Defendant for all, or part of the claim brought by Plaintiff against the original Defendant if (1) Defendant impleaded a third-party defendant by filing a complaint (2) and (3) .
  23. Intervention as a right is when a non-party must join an already pending suit if either (1) or (2) .
  24. Indispensable Party is a necessary party who cannot join in which the court could dismiss the claim after evaluating (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  25. Permissive Intervention is allowed at the court’s discretion if either (1) (2) or (3) .
  26. Necessary Parties are absent parties may be forced to join the suit when either (1) (2) or (3) .
  27. Statutory Interpleader allows a property holder to initiate a suit to compel claimants to the property to litigate a dispute if (1) (2) (3) and (4) .

Class Actions

0 Correct out of 8
  1. Rule 23 of Class Actions means an individual or small group can represent a larger class sharing a common question in a lawsuit if (1) numerosity (2) commonality (3) typicality and (4) are all present.
  2. Judgement for class action lawsuits (1) unless (2) opt out is applicable.
  3. Rule 23(b)(2) of Class Actions for Injunctive Relief means an injunctive judgement can be obtained if (1) (2) notice may be at the discretion of the court and (3) no right to opt out.
  4. Personal Jurisdiction for class actions apply to named class members and require (1) (2) opportunity to opt out if applicable and (3) adequate representation.
  5. Rule 23(b)(3) of Class Actions for Monetary Damages means a large class action can be sought if (1) common question of law or fact are predominated over individual questions (2) class action is superior to other procedures to resolve the dispute (3) class members may opt out and (4) .
  6. Diversity Jurisdiction for class actions require (1) and (2) one class representative claim that exceeds $75,000.
  7. Class Action Certification is a court’s determination whether to allow the case to proceed as a class action if (1) defined class and (2) appointed counsel must .
  8. Settlement for class action lawsuits must be (1) approved by the court (2) fair (3) and (4) adequate.
  9. Rule 23 of Class Actions means an individual or small group can represent a larger class sharing a common question in a lawsuit if (1) (2) commonality (3) and (4) adequacy are all present.
  10. Judgement for class action lawsuits (1) binds all absent class members unless (2) .
  11. Rule 23(b)(2) of Class Actions for Injunctive Relief means an injunctive judgement can be obtained if (1) (2) notice may be at the discretion of the court and (3) .
  12. Personal Jurisdiction for class actions apply to named class members and require (1) (2) opportunity to opt out if applicable and (3) .
  13. Rule 23(b)(3) of Class Actions for Monetary Damages means a large class action can be sought if (1) common question of law or fact are (2) (3) class members may opt out and (4) must receive reasonable notice.
  14. Diversity Jurisdiction for class actions require (1) and (2) one class representative claim that exceeds $75,000.
  15. Class Action Certification is a court’s determination whether to allow the case to proceed as a class action if (1) and (2) appointed counsel must fairly and adequately represent the interest of the whole class.
  16. Settlement for class action lawsuits must be (1) approved by the court (2) (3) reasonable and (4) .
  17. Rule 23 of Class Actions means an individual or small group can represent a larger class sharing a common question in a lawsuit if (1) (2) (3) and (4) are all present.
  18. Judgement for class action lawsuits (1) unless (2) .
  19. Rule 23(b)(2) of Class Actions for Injunctive Relief means an injunctive judgement can be obtained if (1) (2) and (3) .
  20. Personal Jurisdiction for class actions apply to named class members and require (1) (2) and (3) .
  21. Rule 23(b)(3) of Class Actions for Monetary Damages means a large class action can be sought if (1) common question of law or fact are (2) (3) and (4) .
  22. Diversity Jurisdiction for class actions require (1) and (2) .
  23. Class Action Certification is a court’s determination whether to allow the case to proceed as a class action if (1) and (2) appointed counsel must .
  24. Settlement for class action lawsuits must be (1) (2) (3) and (4) .

Discovery

0 Correct out of 15
  1. Undiscoverable privileged material includes (1) attorney-client (2) work product (3) physician patient (4) clergy (5) marital (6) journalist source and (7) .
  2. Protective Order is a court order limiting discovery of material sought by a party to prevent disclosure of privileged material where the moving party must (1) certify they have or (2) .
  3. Discovery is a court mandated process of (1) (2) producing information from (3) parties and non-party witnesses.
  4. Attorney Client Privilege protects information exchanged confidentially between an attorney and client when (1) made between client and counsel (2) intended to be and kept confidential and (3) was .
  5. Physical or Mental Examination of another party is available through the court when (1) the and (2) good cause is shown for the purpose of the examination.
  6. Mandatory Disclosures are required to the opposing party regardless of request including (1) (2) damages sought and (3) insurance.
  7. Pretrial disclosures require the parties of the suit to (1) give detailed information about the evidence to be used at trial (2) .
  8. Expert disclosures require the identity of experts who may be used at trial and must occur (1) at least 90 days prior to trial (2) produce a report containing experts’ opinion (3) and (4) qualifications.
  9. Requests for Production are written requests to one party to make documents or other items within the parties control available for (1) (2) copy or (3) inspection within 30 days after service.
  10. Depositions are oral proceedings in which an attorney (1) examines the party under oath (2) not exceed 7 hours and (3) .
  11. Discovery is material if (1) non-privileged (2) and (3) proportional to the needs of the case.
  12. Work Product Privilege protects material prepared in anticipation of litigation or trial are not discoverable unless the opposing party shows (1) and (2) undue hardship to obtain the materials by other means.
  13. Meet and Confer must (1) take place (2) to discuss claims, defenses, and settlement and (3) develop a plan for discovery.
  14. Request for Admission are written requests to parties to answer the truth of discoverable information with an (1) (2) denial or (3) lacks sufficient knowledge within 30 days of service.
  15. Interrogatories are written questions proposed by one party to an opposing party (1) to ask about the and (2) people who have knowledge pertinent to claims and defenses (3) limited to 25 questions per party and (4) respond within 30 days of service.
  16. Undiscoverable privileged material includes (1) (2) work product (3) (4) clergy (5) (6) journalist source and (7) .
  17. Protective Order is a court order limiting discovery of material sought by a party to prevent disclosure of privileged material where the moving party must (1) certify they have or (2) .
  18. Discovery is a court mandated process of (1) acquiring (2) (3) .
  19. Attorney Client Privilege protects information exchanged confidentially between an attorney and client when (1) made (2) intended to be and kept confidential and (3) was .
  20. Physical or Mental Examination of another party is available through the court when (1) the and (2) good cause is shown for the purpose of the examination.
  21. Mandatory Disclosures are required to the opposing party regardless of request including (1) (2) and (3) insurance.
  22. Pretrial disclosures require the parties of the suit to (1) give detailed information about the evidence to be used at trial (2) .
  23. Expert disclosures require the identity of experts who may be used at trial and must occur (1) at least (2) produce a report containing experts’ opinion (3) and (4) qualifications.
  24. Requests for Production are written requests to one party to make documents or other items within the parties control available for (1) (2) or (3) inspection within 30 days after service.
  25. Depositions are oral proceedings in which an attorney (1) (2) not exceed 7 hours and (3) .
  26. Discovery is material if (1) non-privileged (2) and (3) .
  27. Work Product Privilege protects material prepared in anticipation of litigation or trial are not discoverable unless the opposing party shows (1) substantial need for the material and (2) .
  28. Meet and Confer must (1) take place (2) to discuss claims, defenses, and settlement and (3) .
  29. Request for Admission are written requests to parties to answer the truth of discoverable information with an (1) (2) or (3) lacks sufficient knowledge within 30 days of service.
  30. Interrogatories are written questions proposed by one party to an opposing party (1) to ask about the identity of documents and (2) (3) per party and (4) respond within 30 days of service.
  31. Undiscoverable privileged material includes (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) and (7) .
  32. Protective Order is a court order limiting discovery of material sought by a party to prevent disclosure of privileged material where the moving party must (1) or (2) .
  33. Discovery is a court mandated process of (1) (2) (3) .
  34. Attorney Client Privilege protects information exchanged confidentially between an attorney and client when (1) made (2) and (3) was .
  35. Physical or Mental Examination of another party is available through the court when (1) the and (2) .
  36. Mandatory Disclosures are required to the opposing party regardless of request including (1) (2) and (3) .
  37. Pretrial disclosures require the parties of the suit to (1) give (2) .
  38. Expert disclosures require the identity of experts who may be used at trial and must occur (1) at least (2) (3) and (4) .
  39. Requests for Production are written requests to one party to make documents or other items within the parties control available for (1) (2) or (3) .
  40. Depositions are oral proceedings in which an attorney (1) (2) and (3) .
  41. Discovery is material if (1) (2) and (3) .
  42. Work Product Privilege protects material prepared in anticipation of litigation or trial are not discoverable unless the opposing party shows (1) and (2) .
  43. Meet and Confer must (1) take place (2) to and (3) .
  44. Request for Admission are written requests to parties to answer the truth of discoverable information with an (1) (2) or (3) .
  45. Interrogatories are written questions proposed by one party to an opposing party (1) to ask about the and (2) (3) per party and (4) .

Pretrial, Trial, and Appeal

0 Correct out of 11
  1. Judgement as a Matter of Law is a motion brought by either party (1) and (2) a reasonable jury would not have sufficient evidentiary basis to disagree with the result.
  2. Claim Preclusion occurs when one party had an opportunity to litigate the claim and cannot refile once final judgement has been ordered if (1) same parties (2) (3) final judgement on the merits.
  3. Renewed Judgement as a Matter of Law is a motion brought by either party (1) after the court enters judgement based in the jury verdict (2) renewed by the losing party (3) brought within 28 days after entry of judgement and (4) there is for a reasonable jury to have reached the verdict.
  4. Motion for New Trial may be filed by either party (1) within 28 days after entry of judgement and (2) judgement was .
  5. Default Judgement entered by Clerk may occur if (1) Plaintiff files for default judgement against Defendant (2) Defendant has not responded at all (3) Claim is for money damages (4) Plaintiff provides an affidavit of sum owed and (5) .
  6. Issue Preclusion prevents re-litigation of a particular issue of fact or law that have been previously litigated when (1) final judgement on the merits (2) same issue (3) issue was essential to judgement and (4) .
  7. Interlocutory Appeals can be filed prior to judgement when the appeal pertains to (1) (2) class action certification (3) collateral order (4) appointment of receivership (5) admiralty (6) bankruptcy (7) mandamus and (8) property.
  8. Motion to Set Aside Judgement or Order may be granted by a court to relieve a party from judgement or order when any of the following are present (1) a mistake was made (2) (3) fraud or misrepresentation (4) void judgement (5) judgement has been satisfied or discharged (6) any other reason that justifies relief.
  9. Voluntarily Dismissal occurs when the Plaintiff dismisses their case (1) or (2) without cause.
  10. Appellate Courts review protentional errors by lower courts when (1) (2) de novo standard of review and (3) questions of facts will not be disturbed.
  11. Summary Judgement can be filed by either party (1) where the moving party must show (2) no genuine issue of material fact and (3) moving party is entitled to judgement as a matter of law.
  12. Judgement as a Matter of Law is a motion brought by either party (1) prior to the case going to jury and (2) a reasonable jury would not have .
  13. Claim Preclusion occurs when one party had an opportunity to litigate the claim and cannot refile once final judgement has been ordered if (1) (2) (3) final judgement on the merits.
  14. Renewed Judgement as a Matter of Law is a motion brought by either party (1) (2) (3) brought within 28 days after entry of judgement and (4) there is insufficient evidence for a reasonable jury to have reached the verdict.
  15. Motion for New Trial may be filed by either party (1) within and (2) judgement was entered based upon a serious error.
  16. Default Judgement entered by Clerk may occur if (1) (2) (3) Claim is for money damages (4) Plaintiff provides an affidavit of sum owed and (5) .
  17. Issue Preclusion prevents re-litigation of a particular issue of fact or law that have been previously litigated when (1) (2) (3) issue was essential to judgement and (4) asserted against actual party in previous case.
  18. Interlocutory Appeals can be filed prior to judgement when the appeal pertains to (1) (2) (3) collateral order (4) (5) admiralty (6) bankruptcy (7) and (8) property.
  19. Motion to Set Aside Judgement or Order may be granted by a court to relieve a party from judgement or order when any of the following are present (1) a (2) new undiscoverable evidence at time of trial (3) (4) (5) judgement has been satisfied or discharged (6) any other reason that justifies relief.
  20. Voluntarily Dismissal occurs when the Plaintiff dismisses their case (1) with cause or (2) .
  21. Appellate Courts review protentional errors by lower courts when (1) appealed within 30 days of entry of final judgement (2) and (3) will not be disturbed.
  22. Summary Judgement can be filed by either party (1) where the moving party must show (2) and (3) moving party is entitled to judgement as a matter of law.
  23. Judgement as a Matter of Law is a motion brought by either party (1) and (2) a reasonable jury would not have .
  24. Claim Preclusion occurs when one party had an opportunity to litigate the claim and cannot refile once final judgement has been ordered if (1) (2) (3) .
  25. Renewed Judgement as a Matter of Law is a motion brought by either party (1) (2) (3) brought and (4) there is for a reasonable jury to have reached the verdict.
  26. Motion for New Trial may be filed by either party (1) within and (2) judgement was .
  27. Default Judgement entered by Clerk may occur if (1) (2) (3) (4) and (5) .
  28. Issue Preclusion prevents re-litigation of a particular issue of fact or law that have been previously litigated when (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  29. Interlocutory Appeals can be filed prior to judgement when the appeal pertains to (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (7) and (8) .
  30. Motion to Set Aside Judgement or Order may be granted by a court to relieve a party from judgement or order when any of the following are present (1) a (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) .
  31. Voluntarily Dismissal occurs when the Plaintiff dismisses their case (1) or (2) .
  32. Appellate Courts review protentional errors by lower courts when (1) (2) and (3) will not be disturbed.
  33. Summary Judgement can be filed by either party (1) where the moving party must show (2) and (3) .
  • Estates in Land
  • Concurrent Estates
  • Leasehold Estates
  • Servitudes
  • Adverse Possession
  • Land Sale Contracts
  • Mortgages

Estates in Land

0 Correct out of 10
  1. Ameliorative Waste is a type of waste where the Life Tenant (1) commits waste that (2) .
  2. Fee Simple Subject to an Executory Interest is a potentially infinite fee simple estate that (1) automatically transfers upon a given event or condition (2) to a that is (3) freely transferable.
  3. Life Estate is an (1) that (2) lasts only for the life of the interest holder.
  4. Fee Simple Subject to Condition Subsequent is a potentially infinite fee simple estate that (1) grantor retains the (2) not automatically forfeited and (3) freely transferable.
  5. Vested Remainder is a remainder that automatically becomes possessory upon the natural expiration of the preceding events if (1) indefeasibly vested remainders (2) vested remainders subject to total divestment or (3) (a class gift).
  6. Affirmative Waste is a type of waste that the Life Tenant cannot consume or exploit the natural resources of the land except (1) necessary for repairs (2) grant or (3) lands was exploited prior to grant.
  7. Rule Against Perpetuities is an interest in land must (1) (2) within a life in being at the time of creation (3) no later than 21 years.
  8. Contingent Remainder is a remainder that is not automatically possessory but contingent if (1) subject to a condition precedent or (2) created in favor of an .
  9. Fee Simple Determinable is a fee simple estate which is potentially infinite that occurs (1) automatically upon a given event or condition (2) grantor retains a possibility of reverter and (3) .
  10. Permissive Waste is a type of waste where the Life Tenant cannot harm the property including (1) (2) not paying taxes or (3) interest on encumbrances.
  11. Ameliorative Waste is a type of waste where the Life Tenant (1) that (2) economically benefits the land.
  12. Fee Simple Subject to an Executory Interest is a potentially infinite fee simple estate that (1) automatically transfers upon a given event or condition (2) to a that is (3) .
  13. Life Estate is an (1) that (2) lasts only for the life of the interest holder.
  14. Fee Simple Subject to Condition Subsequent is a potentially infinite fee simple estate that (1) grantor retains the (2) not automatically forfeited and (3) .
  15. Vested Remainder is a remainder that automatically becomes possessory upon the natural expiration of the preceding events if (1) (2) vested remainders subject to total divestment or (3) (a class gift).
  16. Affirmative Waste is a type of waste that the Life Tenant cannot consume or exploit the natural resources of the land except (1) (2) grant or (3) lands was exploited prior to grant.
  17. Rule Against Perpetuities is an interest in land must (1) (2) (3) no later than 21 years.
  18. Contingent Remainder is a remainder that is not automatically possessory but contingent if (1) subject to a condition precedent or (2) created in favor of an .
  19. Fee Simple Determinable is a fee simple estate which is potentially infinite that occurs (1) upon a given event or condition (2) grantor retains a and (3) freely transferable.
  20. Permissive Waste is a type of waste where the Life Tenant cannot harm the property including (1) (2) not paying taxes or (3) .
  21. Ameliorative Waste is a type of waste where the Life Tenant (1) that (2) .
  22. Fee Simple Subject to an Executory Interest is a potentially infinite fee simple estate that (1) upon a given event or condition (2) to a that is (3) .
  23. Life Estate is an (1) that (2) lasts only .
  24. Fee Simple Subject to Condition Subsequent is a potentially infinite fee simple estate that (1) grantor retains the (2) and (3) .
  25. Vested Remainder is a remainder that automatically becomes possessory upon the natural expiration of the preceding events if (1) (2) or (3) (a class gift).
  26. Affirmative Waste is a type of waste that the Life Tenant cannot consume or exploit the natural resources of the land except (1) (2) grant or (3) lands was .
  27. Rule Against Perpetuities is an interest in land must (1) (2) (3) .
  28. Contingent Remainder is a remainder that is not automatically possessory but contingent if (1) or (2) created in favor of an .
  29. Fee Simple Determinable is a fee simple estate which is potentially infinite that occurs (1) upon a given event or condition (2) grantor retains a and (3) .
  30. Permissive Waste is a type of waste where the Life Tenant cannot harm the property including (1) (2) or (3) .

Concurrent Estates

0 Correct out of 6
  1. Joint Tenancy is an estate that is created when (1) time (2) title (3) interest and (4) among the tenants when they take their interest.
  2. Severance of a Joint Tenancy creates a (1) Tenancy in Common with respect to the (2) .
  3. Possession is when (1) each co-tenant has the (2) .
  4. Tenancy in Common is an estate with multiple tenants in which each co-tenant owns a distinct undivided interest while each has a right to possess the whole estate that is (1) freely transferable and (2) .
  5. Severance of a Tenancy by the Entirety creates a Tenancy in Common when (1) (2) mutual agreement by the parties in writing (3) issuance of a divorce decree and (4) execution by a joint creditor.
  6. Tenancy by the Entirety is an estate that is created when (1) time (2) title (3) interest (4) possession and (5) among when the tenants take their interest.
  7. Joint Tenancy is an estate that is created when (1) (2) (3) interest and (4) possession concurrently exist among the tenants when they take their interest.
  8. Severance of a Joint Tenancy creates a (1) with respect to the (2) severed interest.
  9. Possession is when (1) has the (2) right to possess the whole.
  10. Tenancy in Common is an estate with multiple tenants in which each co-tenant owns a distinct undivided interest while each has a right to possess the whole estate that is (1) and (2) no survivorship rights.
  11. Severance of a Tenancy by the Entirety creates a Tenancy in Common when (1) death of one co-tenant (2) by the parties in writing (3) issuance of a divorce decree and (4) .
  12. Tenancy by the Entirety is an estate that is created when (1) time (2) (3) (4) possession and (5) among when the tenants take their .
  13. Joint Tenancy is an estate that is created when (1) (2) (3) and (4) among the tenants when they take their .
  14. Severance of a Joint Tenancy creates a (1) with respect to the (2) .
  15. Possession is when (1) has the (2) .
  16. Tenancy in Common is an estate with multiple tenants in which each co-tenant owns a distinct undivided interest while each has a right to possess the whole estate that is (1) and (2) .
  17. Severance of a Tenancy by the Entirety creates a Tenancy in Common when (1) (2) by the parties in writing (3) and (4) .
  18. Tenancy by the Entirety is an estate that is created when (1) (2) (3) (4) and (5) among when the tenants take their .

Leasehold Estates

0 Correct out of 18
  1. The four types of leasehold estates in which the tenant has a present possessory property interest, and the landlord has a future interest are (1) tenancy for years (2) periodic tenancy (3) tenancy at will and (4) .
  2. Breach of the Implied Warranty of Habitability grants the Tenants remedies against the landlord consisting of (1) (2) repair (3) reduce or withhold rent or (4) remain and seek damages.
  3. Landlord’s Duties and Warranties to tenant consist of (1) duty to deliver possession (2) (3) implied warranty of habitability and (4) tort liability.
  4. Tenancy at Will terminates upon (1) or (2) by operation of law.
  5. Tenancy at Sufferance is created when (1) the tenant wrongfully possesses the property (2) .
  6. Landlord’s Tort Liability to Tenant for injuries occurring on the leased property consist of (1) common areas (2) latent defects (3) assumption of repairs (4) public use or (5) .
  7. Tenancy at Will is a leasehold estate with (1) and (2) terminable by either party at any time without notice.
  8. Operation of law occurs when (1) death by either party (2) waste by the tenant (3) (4) transfer of title by the landlord or (5) lease by the landlord to a third party.
  9. Constructive Eviction is the Landlord’s action or inactions render the property uninhabitable whereupon there is (1) (2) notice was given to Landlord about interference and (3) tenant must vacate within a reasonable period after the landlord fails to repair the .
  10. Assignment consists of a (1) Tenant’s to (2) an assignee.
  11. Implied Warranty of Habitability means the (1) residential property is (2) .
  12. Periodic Tenancy is a leasehold estate that is created when (1) (2) Implication or (3) operation of law that is continuous for successive intervals.
  13. Implied Covenant of Quiet Enjoyment is the Tenant’s right to (1) use and (2) enjoy the land (3) with the Landlord.
  14. Sublease consists of a (1) Tenant’s partial transfer of the leasehold estate from (2) .
  15. Fixture is a (1) once movable object that is (2) such that (3) it becomes part of the real property.
  16. Actual Eviction is the Landlord (1) wrongfully evicts or (2) .
  17. Tenant’s Duty at common law for leasehold estates consist of (1) ordinary repairs (2) not commit waste (3) pay rent and (4) .
  18. Periodic Tenancy terminates when a tenant gives proper notice that is (1) sufficiently timed and (2) the .
  19. The four types of leasehold estates in which the tenant has a present possessory property interest, and the landlord has a future interest are (1) tenancy for years (2) (3) tenancy at will and (4) .
  20. Breach of the Implied Warranty of Habitability grants the Tenants remedies against the landlord consisting of (1) (2) repair (3) or (4) remain and seek damages.
  21. Landlord’s Duties and Warranties to tenant consist of (1) (2) (3) implied warranty of habitability and (4) tort liability.
  22. Tenancy at Will terminates upon (1) or (2) by operation of law.
  23. Tenancy at Sufferance is created when (1) the tenant wrongfully possesses the property (2) .
  24. Landlord’s Tort Liability to Tenant for injuries occurring on the leased property consist of (1) (2) latent defects (3) assumption of repairs (4) or (5) .
  25. Tenancy at Will is a leasehold estate with (1) and (2) terminable by either party at any time without notice.
  26. Operation of law occurs when (1) (2) (3) assignment by the tenant (4) transfer of title by the landlord or (5) .
  27. Constructive Eviction is the Landlord’s action or inactions render the property uninhabitable whereupon there is (1) (2) and (3) tenant must vacate within a reasonable period after the landlord fails to repair the .
  28. Assignment consists of a (1) Tenant’s entire transfer of the leasehold estate to (2) an .
  29. Implied Warranty of Habitability means the (1) is (2) fit for human dwelling.
  30. Periodic Tenancy is a leasehold estate that is created when (1) (2) Implication or (3) .
  31. Implied Covenant of Quiet Enjoyment is the Tenant’s right to (1) use and (2) (3) with the Landlord.
  32. Sublease consists of a (1) Tenant’s partial transfer of the leasehold estate from (2) .
  33. Fixture is a (1) that is (2) such that (3) it becomes part of the real property.
  34. Actual Eviction is the Landlord (1) wrongfully evicts or (2) .
  35. Tenant’s Duty at common law for leasehold estates consist of (1) ordinary repairs (2) not commit waste (3) and (4) .
  36. Periodic Tenancy terminates when a tenant gives proper notice that is (1) and (2) the effective termination date is at the end of the periodic tenancy.
  37. The four types of leasehold estates in which the tenant has a present possessory property interest, and the landlord has a future interest are (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  38. Breach of the Implied Warranty of Habitability grants the Tenants remedies against the landlord consisting of (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  39. Landlord’s Duties and Warranties to tenant consist of (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  40. Tenancy at Will terminates upon (1) or (2) by .
  41. Tenancy at Sufferance is created when (1) the (2) .
  42. Landlord’s Tort Liability to Tenant for injuries occurring on the leased property consist of (1) (2) (3) (4) or (5) .
  43. Tenancy at Will is a leasehold estate with (1) and (2) without notice.
  44. Operation of law occurs when (1) (2) (3) (4) or (5) .
  45. Constructive Eviction is the Landlord’s action or inactions render the property uninhabitable whereupon there is (1) (2) and (3) after the landlord fails to repair the .
  46. Assignment consists of a (1) Tenant’s to (2) an .
  47. Implied Warranty of Habitability means the (1) is (2) .
  48. Periodic Tenancy is a leasehold estate that is created when (1) (2) or (3) .
  49. Implied Covenant of Quiet Enjoyment is the Tenant’s right to (1) and (2) (3) with the Landlord.
  50. Sublease consists of a (1) Tenant’s from (2) .
  51. Fixture is a (1) that is (2) such that (3) it .
  52. Actual Eviction is the Landlord (1) or (2) .
  53. Tenant’s Duty at common law for leasehold estates consist of (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  54. Periodic Tenancy terminates when a tenant gives proper notice that is (1) and (2) the .

Servitudes

0 Correct out of 17
  1. Easement by Prescription requires the use of another’s land to be (1) (2) open and notorious (3) actual and (4) hostile.
  2. Easement may be terminated by (1) estoppel (2) necessity ends (3) destruction of servient tenement (4) release (5) abandonment (6) merger (7) or (8) expiration.
  3. Covenant terminates upon (1) (2) merger of benefited and burden estates or (3) condemnation of burdened property.
  4. Easement by Implication is an easement based upon prior use where (1) an (2) continuous and apparent use by the common Grantor (3) use is reasonably necessary for enjoyment of the dominant tenant and (4) parties intended the use after the division of land.
  5. Easement is a (1) that (2) confers a right to uses another’s land.
  6. Easement by Necessity is an easement where access to and from the property is (1) and (2) expires when the necessity ends.
  7. Reciprocal Negative Servitude are covenants where the land is subdivided into parcels with restrictions attached that are created by (1) common plan or scheme or (2) .
  8. Easement Appurtenant is a type of easement that (1) (2) entitles a dominant estate owner to use the servient estates land.
  9. Profit is a non-possessory property interest entitling the holder to (1) to (2) remove resources from the land.
  10. Easement in Gross is a type of easement which entitles an (1) individual or (2) .
  11. Benefiting covenant that runs with the land requires (1) writing (2) (3) touches and concerns the land and (4) vertical privity only.
  12. License is a (1) to use (2) another’s land.
  13. Burdening covenant that runs with the land must (1) (2) have intent (3) touches and concerns the land (4) horizontal and vertical privity and (5) notice.
  14. Defenses to Equitable Servitude include (1) change in neighborhood (2) estoppel (3) acquiescence (4) or (5) laches.
  15. Covenant is a promise (1) to do or (2) .
  16. Equitable Servitudes are covenants that are enforced through equity against successors through injunctive relief which must (1) be in writing (2) intent (3) touches and concerns the land and (4) .
  17. Negative Easement is created only by an express grant where the holder of the easement prevents the servient landowner from engaging in otherwise permissible actions such as (1) light (2) (3) support or (4) stream of water from an artificial flow.
  18. Easement by Prescription requires the use of another’s land to be (1) continuous (2) (3) and (4) hostile.
  19. Easement may be terminated by (1) estoppel (2) necessity ends (3) (4) (5) abandonment (6) (7) or (8) expiration.
  20. Covenant terminates upon (1) (2) or (3) condemnation of burdened property.
  21. Easement by Implication is an easement based upon prior use where (1) an (2) use by the common Grantor (3) use is reasonably necessary for enjoyment of the dominant tenant and (4) parties intended the use after the division of land.
  22. Easement is a (1) non-possessory interest that (2) .
  23. Easement by Necessity is an easement where access to and from the property is (1) impossible without the easement and (2) .
  24. Reciprocal Negative Servitude are covenants where the land is subdivided into parcels with restrictions attached that are created by (1) common plan or scheme or (2) .
  25. Easement Appurtenant is a type of easement that (1) passes automatically (2) to use the servient estates land.
  26. Profit is a non-possessory property interest entitling the holder to (1) to (2) remove resources from the land.
  27. Easement in Gross is a type of easement which entitles an (1) individual or (2) .
  28. Benefiting covenant that runs with the land requires (1) writing (2) intent (3) and (4) only.
  29. License is a (1) to use (2) another’s land.
  30. Burdening covenant that runs with the land must (1) (2) have intent (3) touches and concerns the land (4) and (5) .
  31. Defenses to Equitable Servitude include (1) change in neighborhood (2) estoppel (3) (4) or (5) .
  32. Covenant is a promise (1) or (2) refrain from doing something related to one’s land.
  33. Equitable Servitudes are covenants that are enforced through equity against successors through injunctive relief which must (1) be in writing (2) (3) and (4) notice.
  34. Negative Easement is created only by an express grant where the holder of the easement prevents the servient landowner from engaging in otherwise permissible actions such as (1) light (2) air (3) or (4) .
  35. Easement by Prescription requires the use of another’s land to be (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  36. Easement may be terminated by (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (7) or (8) .
  37. Covenant terminates upon (1) (2) or (3) .
  38. Easement by Implication is an easement based upon prior use where (1) an (2) use by the common Grantor (3) use is and (4) parties intended the use .
  39. Easement is a (1) that (2) .
  40. Easement by Necessity is an easement where access to and from the property is (1) and (2) .
  41. Reciprocal Negative Servitude are covenants where the land is subdivided into parcels with restrictions attached that are created by (1) or (2) .
  42. Easement Appurtenant is a type of easement that (1) (2) to use the servient estates land.
  43. Profit is a non-possessory property interest entitling the holder to (1) to (2) .
  44. Easement in Gross is a type of easement which entitles an (1) or (2) .
  45. Benefiting covenant that runs with the land requires (1) (2) (3) and (4) only.
  46. License is a (1) to use (2) .
  47. Burdening covenant that runs with the land must (1) (2) (3) (4) and (5) .
  48. Defenses to Equitable Servitude include (1) (2) (3) (4) or (5) .
  49. Covenant is a promise (1) or (2) .
  50. Equitable Servitudes are covenants that are enforced through equity against successors through injunctive relief which must (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  51. Negative Easement is created only by an express grant where the holder of the easement prevents the servient landowner from engaging in otherwise permissible actions such as (1) (2) (3) or (4) .

Adverse Possession

0 Correct out of 2
  1. Adverse Possession is when a trespasser acquires title to another’s property without compensation if the trespasser’s possession of the land is (1) (2) open and notorious (3) actual and exclusive and (4) hostile.
  2. Tacking permits an adverse possessor to add the current period of possession to that of another’s prior adverse possession to establish continuous control if (1) successive and (2) .
  3. Adverse Possession is when a trespasser acquires title to another’s property without compensation if the trespasser’s possession of the land is (1) continuous for the statutory period (2) (3) and (4) hostile.
  4. Tacking permits an adverse possessor to add the current period of possession to that of another’s prior adverse possession to establish continuous control if (1) successive and (2) .
  5. Adverse Possession is when a trespasser acquires title to another’s property without compensation if the trespasser’s possession of the land is (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  6. Tacking permits an adverse possessor to add the current period of possession to that of another’s prior adverse possession to establish continuous control if (1) and (2) .

Land Sale Contracts

0 Correct out of 11
  1. Wild Deed is a (1) that is (2) unconnected to the chain of title.
  2. Equitable Conversion is the (1) transfer of real property to the Buyer (2) during the escrow process (3) .
  3. Deed is the legal title which passes from Seller to Buyer that is (1) and (2) delivered.
  4. Bona Fide Purchaser for Value is one who purchases property for value without notice of the prior conveyance including (1) actual notice (2) or (3) record notice.
  5. Race Statute is the (1) of (2) whether the buyer was a bona fide purchaser.
  6. General Warranty Deed is a deed that must contain all covenants including (1) seisin (2) right to convey (3) against encumbrances (4) quiet enjoyment (5) and (6) further assurances.
  7. Contract for the Sale of Land must comply with the statute of frauds and be (1) in writing (2) and (3) articulate the essential terms of the land sale.
  8. Estoppel by Deed is (1) a (2) in which the Grantor does not then own (3) cannot acquire the same land.
  9. Notice Statute is (1) the (2) over a prior grantee who fails to record.
  10. Race Notice Statute is the (1) first subsequent bona fide purchaser to (2) .
  11. Land Sale Contract must contain (1) promise to provide marketable title (2) and (3) make no materially false statements.
  12. Wild Deed is a (1) that is (2) unconnected to the chain of title.
  13. Equitable Conversion is the (1) transfer of real property to the Buyer (2) (3) .
  14. Deed is the legal title which passes from Seller to Buyer that is (1) lawfully executed and (2) .
  15. Bona Fide Purchaser for Value is one who purchases property for value without notice of the prior conveyance including (1) (2) inquiry notice or (3) .
  16. Race Statute is the (1) first grantee to record prevails regardless of (2) .
  17. General Warranty Deed is a deed that must contain all covenants including (1) (2) right to convey (3) (4) quiet enjoyment (5) and (6) further assurances.
  18. Contract for the Sale of Land must comply with the statute of frauds and be (1) in writing (2) and (3) .
  19. Estoppel by Deed is (1) a (2) in which the (3) cannot acquire the same land.
  20. Notice Statute is (1) the (2) over a prior grantee who fails to record.
  21. Race Notice Statute is the (1) to (2) record prevails.
  22. Land Sale Contract must contain (1) (2) and (3) make no materially false statements.
  23. Wild Deed is a (1) that is (2) .
  24. Equitable Conversion is the (1) (2) (3) .
  25. Deed is the legal title which passes from Seller to Buyer that is (1) and (2) .
  26. Bona Fide Purchaser for Value is one who purchases property for value without notice of the prior conveyance including (1) (2) or (3) .
  27. Race Statute is the (1) of (2) .
  28. General Warranty Deed is a deed that must contain all covenants including (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) and (6) .
  29. Contract for the Sale of Land must comply with the statute of frauds and be (1) (2) and (3) .
  30. Estoppel by Deed is (1) a (2) in which the (3) .
  31. Notice Statute is (1) the (2) .
  32. Race Notice Statute is the (1) to (2) .
  33. Land Sale Contract must contain (1) (2) and (3) .

Mortgages

0 Correct out of 2
  1. Acceleration Clause is a loan agreement that requires the (1) (2) if certain conditions are not met.
  2. Purchase Money Mortgage is a (1) (2) that is used as collateral to acquire the loan for the land.
  3. Acceleration Clause is a loan agreement that requires the (1) mortgagor to pay the full loan immediately (2) if .
  4. Purchase Money Mortgage is a (1) (2) that is used as collateral to acquire the loan for the land.
  5. Acceleration Clause is a loan agreement that requires the (1) (2) if .
  6. Purchase Money Mortgage is a (1) (2) that is .
  • Agency
  • Types of Partnerships
  • Liability
  • Corporations
  • LLC

Agency

0 Correct out of 10
  1. Independent Contractors are generally not liable for committing acts (1) (2) on behalf of the Principal.
  2. Respondent Superior means the Principal will be liable when there is (1) an and (2) that conduct was within the scope of the employee’s employment.
  3. Termination of an agency relationship occurs when (1) expressed by the parties (2) or (3) purpose is fulfilled.
  4. Agency Relationship is created by a Principal and an Agent when there is the presence of (1) (2) consent or (3) acting on behalf of the Principal.
  5. Actual Authority is given by the Principal to the Agent in either (1) express authority or (2) .
  6. Agent Rights afforded to the principal are (1) loyalty (2) and (3) care.
  7. Ratification occurs when (1) the Agent acts on behalf of the Principal (2) and (3) Principal affirmed those actions.
  8. Apparent Authority occurs when (1) the Principal holds the agent out as having authority to act on the Principal’s behalf and (2) the .
  9. Liability of the Principal and Agent to the Third Party will depend if (1) the Agent had authority from the Principal in which the Principal is liable to the third party or (2) if the .
  10. Principal Rights afforded to the agent are (1) compensation (2) cooperation and (3) .
  11. Independent Contractors are generally not liable for committing acts (1) (2) on behalf of the Principal.
  12. Respondent Superior means the Principal will be liable when there is (1) an and (2) that conduct was within the scope of the employee’s employment.
  13. Termination of an agency relationship occurs when (1) (2) or (3) purpose is fulfilled.
  14. Agency Relationship is created by a Principal and an Agent when there is the presence of (1) (2) or (3) acting on behalf of the Principal.
  15. Actual Authority is given by the Principal to the Agent in either (1) express authority or (2) .
  16. Agent Rights afforded to the principal are (1) (2) obedience and (3) .
  17. Ratification occurs when (1) the (2) and (3) Principal affirmed those actions.
  18. Apparent Authority occurs when (1) the and (2) the Principal’s conduct causes a third party to reasonable rely on the Agent’s appearance of authority.
  19. Liability of the Principal and Agent to the Third Party will depend if (1) the Agent had authority from the Principal in which the Principal is liable to the third party or (2) if the .
  20. Principal Rights afforded to the agent are (1) (2) cooperation and (3) .
  21. Independent Contractors are generally not liable for committing acts (1) (2) on .
  22. Respondent Superior means the Principal will be liable when there is (1) an and (2) that .
  23. Termination of an agency relationship occurs when (1) (2) or (3) .
  24. Agency Relationship is created by a Principal and an Agent when there is the presence of (1) (2) or (3) .
  25. Actual Authority is given by the Principal to the Agent in either (1) or (2) .
  26. Agent Rights afforded to the principal are (1) (2) and (3) .
  27. Ratification occurs when (1) the (2) and (3) .
  28. Apparent Authority occurs when (1) the and (2) the .
  29. Liability of the Principal and Agent to the Third Party will depend if (1) the in which the Principal is liable to the third party or (2) if the .
  30. Principal Rights afforded to the agent are (1) (2) and (3) .

Types of Partnerships

0 Correct out of 11
  1. Limited Liability Partnership is created by (1) and (2) filing the appropriate statement with the state.
  2. Contract Liability extends to all partners for (1) and (2) any other expressly authorized contract.
  3. General Partnerships are an association of (1) (2) in a for-profit business.
  4. Limited Partnership is a partnership consisting of one or more (1) and (2) a limited partner whom (3) file the appropriate statement with the state.
  5. Proving a Partnership exists consists of (1) parties intent (2) profit sharing (3) (4) capital contributions or (5) the ownership of property.
  6. Dissolution is the (1) .
  7. Fiduciary Duty owed by the partners to the partnership consist of (1) and (2) care.
  8. Partnership Property consists of (1) capital contribution by each party (2) property titled in the partnership’s name (3) partnership purchases or (4) .
  9. Dissociation is the act of any partner ceasing to be (1) and (2) carrying out the partnership business.
  10. Profits and Losses of the partnership are (1) absent a written agreement and (2) transferable.
  11. Partnership Books are freely available for partners to (1) and (2) copy partnership information.
  12. Limited Liability Partnership is created by (1) approval by vote of each partner and (2) .
  13. Contract Liability extends to all partners for (1) and (2) any other expressly authorized contract.
  14. General Partnerships are an association of (1) (2) in a for-profit business.
  15. Limited Partnership is a partnership consisting of one or more (1) general partners and (2) a (3) .
  16. Proving a Partnership exists consists of (1) (2) (3) parties control (4) capital contributions or (5) the .
  17. Dissolution is the (1) .
  18. Fiduciary Duty owed by the partners to the partnership consist of (1) loyalty and (2) .
  19. Partnership Property consists of (1) (2) property titled in the partnership’s name (3) partnership purchases or (4) .
  20. Dissociation is the act of any partner ceasing to be (1) and (2) carrying out the partnership business.
  21. Profits and Losses of the partnership are (1) shared equally upon each partner absent a written agreement and (2) .
  22. Partnership Books are freely available for partners to (1) and (2) copy partnership information.
  23. Limited Liability Partnership is created by (1) and (2) .
  24. Contract Liability extends to all partners for (1) and (2) .
  25. General Partnerships are an association of (1) (2) in a .
  26. Limited Partnership is a partnership consisting of one or more (1) and (2) a (3) .
  27. Proving a Partnership exists consists of (1) (2) (3) (4) or (5) the .
  28. Dissolution is the (1) .
  29. Fiduciary Duty owed by the partners to the partnership consist of (1) and (2) .
  30. Partnership Property consists of (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  31. Dissociation is the act of any partner ceasing to be (1) and (2) .
  32. Profits and Losses of the partnership are (1) absent a written agreement and (2) .
  33. Partnership Books are freely available for partners to (1) and (2) .

Liability

0 Correct out of 2
  1. Liability of a Limited Partnership consists of the general partners (1) and (2) jointly and several liability for all partnership obligations.
  2. Liability of each partner in a Limited Liability Partnership is (1) and (2) each partner is still liable for their own acts.
  3. Liability of a Limited Partnership consists of the general partners (1) personal and (2) .
  4. Liability of each partner in a Limited Liability Partnership is (1) limited to the partnership itself and (2) .
  5. Liability of a Limited Partnership consists of the general partners (1) and (2) .
  6. Liability of each partner in a Limited Liability Partnership is (1) and (2) .

Corporations

0 Correct out of 23
  1. Promoter is an individual that acts on behalf of a yet to be formed corporation to (1) (2) conduct corporate planning or (3) assist in corporate formation.
  2. Bylaws are written rules for managing the corporation and shall be enacted by (1) the or (2) board of directors.
  3. Derivative suits are a (1) shareholders suit (2) to (3) the rights of the corporation (4) when a cause of action exists by the corporation, but the corporation fails to pursue it.
  4. Meetings are conducted by the shareholders and the corporation where there are two types of meetings such as (1) and (2) special meetings where notice is required.
  5. Conflict of Interest is a (1) personal interest (2) of a (3) with the corporation.
  6. Merger is when two or more company’s combine into a single company after (1) a and (2) shareholder votes favored the merger.
  7. Proxies are (1) shareholders ability to (2) (3) in writing.
  8. Piercing the Corporate Veil are acts done by a valid court which hold liable the (1) (2) directors or (3) officers for their actions or debts.
  9. Liability of the Promoter consists of (1) (2) for all contracts formed prior to corporation formation.
  10. Corporation is a (1) that is (2) separate from its owners.
  11. Stocks reflect the investment in the corporation by (1) shareholders (2) .
  12. Debt is when a corporation (1) and (2) promises to pay the loan back.
  13. Funding for corporations derive from (1) debt (2) stocks or (3) a .
  14. Duty of Loyalty of the corporation is owed by (1) directors and (2) .
  15. Direct suits are a shareholder’s pursuit of legal action towards a (1) (2) ’s officer or (3) a director.
  16. Shareholder Authority is the power of the shareholders to exert control over the corporation by (1) appointing directors (2) or (3) approve fundamental changes of the corporate structure.
  17. Business Judgement Rule is the court’s ability to ignore the business decision if the decision was made in (1) good faith (2) in the and (3) with the care a person in a similar position believed to appropriate under the circumstances.
  18. Demand on the corporation for a Derivative suit must be in (1) writing (2) demand the corporation act and (3) .
  19. Article of Incorporation form a corporation when filed within the state that consist of (1) corporation name (2) (3) number of shares and (4) the registered agent.
  20. Quorum is the (1) present (2) (3) eligible to vote.
  21. Dissolution of the corporation is the termination of the corporation when (1) winding up occurs (2) liquidate assets and (3) .
  22. De Facto Corporation is a failed corporation formation where the corporation continues and will be treated as a properly formed corporation if (1) a law exists in which the corporation could become legally incorporated (2) conducted business in corporation name and (3) .
  23. Ultra Vires are corporate acts outside the stated purpose where the consequences consist of (1) a shareholder suit (2) corporation suit or (3) .
  24. Promoter is an individual that acts on behalf of a yet to be formed corporation to (1) (2) or (3) assist in corporate formation.
  25. Bylaws are written rules for managing the corporation and shall be enacted by (1) the or (2) board of directors.
  26. Derivative suits are a (1) shareholders suit (2) to (3) the rights of the corporation (4) when a .
  27. Meetings are conducted by the shareholders and the corporation where there are two types of meetings such as (1) annual and (2) .
  28. Conflict of Interest is a (1) s_27_0_3_6ad9de77eeb4a_8" type="text" value="" size="17" class="game-standard">s_27_0_3_6ad9de77eeb4a_8" type="hidden" value="personal interest" data-pid="panel_s" class="game-standard-hidden"> (2) of a transaction (3) with the .
  29. Merger is when two or more company’s combine into a single company after (1) a and (2) shareholder votes favored the merger.
  30. Proxies are (1) shareholders ability to (2) (3) .
  31. Piercing the Corporate Veil are acts done by a valid court which hold liable the (1) (2) or (3) officers for their actions or debts.
  32. Liability of the Promoter consists of (1) personally liability (2) for .
  33. Corporation is a (1) that is (2) separate from its owners.
  34. Stocks reflect the investment in the corporation by (1) shareholders (2) .
  35. Debt is when a corporation (1) and (2) promises to pay the loan back.
  36. Funding for corporations derive from (1) (2) or (3) a combination of and .
  37. Duty of Loyalty of the corporation is owed by (1) and (2) officers.
  38. Direct suits are a shareholder’s pursuit of legal action towards a (1) (2) ’s officer or (3) a director.
  39. Shareholder Authority is the power of the shareholders to exert control over the corporation by (1) (2) or (3) approve fundamental changes of the corporate structure.
  40. Business Judgement Rule is the court’s ability to ignore the business decision if the decision was made in (1) (2) in the best interest of the corporation and (3) with the .
  41. Demand on the corporation for a Derivative suit must be in (1) writing (2) and (3) .
  42. Article of Incorporation form a corporation when filed within the state that consist of (1) corporation name (2) (3) and (4) the registered agent.
  43. Quorum is the (1) present (2) (3) .
  44. Dissolution of the corporation is the termination of the corporation when (1) (2) liquidate assets and (3) .
  45. De Facto Corporation is a failed corporation formation where the corporation continues and will be treated as a properly formed corporation if (1) a (2) conducted business in corporation name and (3) .
  46. Ultra Vires are corporate acts outside the stated purpose where the consequences consist of (1) a (2) or (3) state action.
  47. Promoter is an individual that acts on behalf of a yet to be formed corporation to (1) (2) or (3) .
  48. Bylaws are written rules for managing the corporation and shall be enacted by (1) the or (2) .
  49. Derivative suits are a (1) (2) to (3) the (4) when a .
  50. Meetings are conducted by the shareholders and the corporation where there are two types of meetings such as (1) and (2) .
  51. Conflict of Interest is a (1) s_50_0_2_6ad9de77eebc7_2" type="text" value="" size="17" class="game-standard">s_50_0_2_6ad9de77eebc7_2" type="hidden" value="personal interest" data-pid="panel_s" class="game-standard-hidden"> (2) of a s_50_1_2_6ad9de77eebc8_5" type="text" value="" size="11" class="game-standard">s_50_1_2_6ad9de77eebc8_5" type="hidden" value="transaction" data-pid="panel_s" class="game-standard-hidden"> (3) with the .
  52. Merger is when two or more company’s combine into a single company after (1) a and (2) .
  53. Proxies are (1) to (2) (3) .
  54. Piercing the Corporate Veil are acts done by a valid court which hold liable the (1) (2) or (3) .
  55. Liability of the Promoter consists of (1) (2) for .
  56. Corporation is a (1) that is (2) .
  57. Stocks reflect the investment in the corporation by (1) (2) .
  58. Debt is when a corporation (1) and (2) .
  59. Funding for corporations derive from (1) (2) or (3) a combination of and .
  60. Duty of Loyalty of the corporation is owed by (1) and (2) .
  61. Direct suits are a shareholder’s pursuit of legal action towards a (1) (2) ’s officer or (3) a .
  62. Shareholder Authority is the power of the shareholders to exert control over the corporation by (1) (2) or (3) .
  63. Business Judgement Rule is the court’s ability to ignore the business decision if the decision was made in (1) (2) in the and (3) with the .
  64. Demand on the corporation for a Derivative suit must be in (1) (2) and (3) .
  65. Article of Incorporation form a corporation when filed within the state that consist of (1) (2) (3) and (4) the .
  66. Quorum is the (1) (2) (3) .
  67. Dissolution of the corporation is the termination of the corporation when (1) (2) and (3) .
  68. De Facto Corporation is a failed corporation formation where the corporation continues and will be treated as a properly formed corporation if (1) a (2) and (3) .
  69. Ultra Vires are corporate acts outside the stated purpose where the consequences consist of (1) a (2) or (3) .

LLC

0 Correct out of 4
  1. Member Managed LLC is when all members owe a duty of (1) and (2) loyalty to each member and the LLC.
  2. Limited Liability Company is created when (1) (2) name of the LLC (3) address of the LLC and (4) name of registered agent.
  3. Good Faith and Fair Dealing is owed by all (1) and (2) managers of the LLC.
  4. Manager Managed LLC is when only the managers owe a duty of (1) care and (2) .
  5. Member Managed LLC is when all members owe a duty of (1) and (2) loyalty to each member and the LLC.
  6. Limited Liability Company is created when (1) certificate is filed within the forum state (2) name of the LLC (3) and (4) .
  7. Good Faith and Fair Dealing is owed by all (1) members and (2) .
  8. Manager Managed LLC is when only the managers owe a duty of (1) care and (2) .
  9. Member Managed LLC is when all members owe a duty of (1) and (2) .
  10. Limited Liability Company is created when (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  11. Good Faith and Fair Dealing is owed by all (1) and (2) .
  12. Manager Managed LLC is when only the managers owe a duty of (1) and (2) .
  • Jurisdiction
  • Marriage
  • Divorce
  • Property
  • Custody
  • Support
  • Adoption

Jurisdiction

0 Correct out of 1
  1. Jurisdiction in the forum state is established when one spouse has (1) domiciled in the forum state (2) for at least .
  2. Jurisdiction in the forum state is established when one spouse has (1) domiciled in the forum state (2) for at least .
  3. Jurisdiction in the forum state is established when one spouse has (1) (2) for at least .

Marriage

0 Correct out of 5
  1. Pre-Marital Agreements are legally enforceable contracts between the parties that provide distribution of the marital assets when (1) (2) voluntary and (3) full and fair disclosure.
  2. Marriage is the legal union of two individuals when (1) a and (2) solemnized.
  3. Post-Marital Agreements are legally enforceable contracts formed after the marriage to divide the marital property if (1) voluntary (2) each spouse has adequate representation and (3) .
  4. State of Mind required for marriage is (1) and (2) intent.
  5. Common Law Marriage occurs when a couple is considered legally married if (1) (2) holding themselves out to the public as married and (3) cohabitation.
  6. Pre-Marital Agreements are legally enforceable contracts between the parties that provide distribution of the marital assets when (1) in writing (2) and (3) .
  7. Marriage is the legal union of two individuals when (1) a license is obtained by the state and (2) .
  8. Post-Marital Agreements are legally enforceable contracts formed after the marriage to divide the marital property if (1) (2) and (3) time to review the disclosure.
  9. State of Mind required for marriage is (1) capacity and (2) .
  10. Common Law Marriage occurs when a couple is considered legally married if (1) consent (2) and (3) .
  11. Pre-Marital Agreements are legally enforceable contracts between the parties that provide distribution of the marital assets when (1) (2) and (3) .
  12. Marriage is the legal union of two individuals when (1) a and (2) .
  13. Post-Marital Agreements are legally enforceable contracts formed after the marriage to divide the marital property if (1) (2) and (3) .
  14. State of Mind required for marriage is (1) and (2) .
  15. Common Law Marriage occurs when a couple is considered legally married if (1) (2) and (3) .

Divorce

0 Correct out of 2
  1. Annulment is a judicial declaration that a marri was void and never valid if due to (1) bigamy or polygamy (2) incapacity (3) consanguinity or (4) .
  2. Divorce is a decree that terminates the marriage when (1) irretrievably broken (2) living separate and apart for more than 6 months or (3) .
  3. Annulment is a judicial declaration that a marri was void and never valid if due to (1) bigamy or polygamy (2) incapacity (3) or (4) .
  4. Divorce is a decree that terminates the marriage when (1) (2) living separate and apart for more than 6 months or (3) .
  5. Annulment is a judicial declaration that a marri was void and never valid if due to (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  6. Divorce is a decree that terminates the marriage when (1) (2) or (3) .

Property

0 Correct out of 4
  1. Property that is acquired during the marriage is presumed to be marital property unless (1) owned prior to the marriage and kept separate (2) or (3) passive income from separate property.
  2. Community Property is property (1) acquired during the marriage (2) .
  3. Comingled property is (1) separate property (2) that is mixed with marital property and (3) .
  4. Equitable Division of Property refers to the courts process of dividing (1) separate property and (2) the .
  5. Property that is acquired during the marriage is presumed to be marital property unless (1) (2) or (3) passive income from separate property.
  6. Community Property is property (1) acquired during the marriage (2) .
  7. Comingled property is (1) (2) that is and (3) becomes martial property.
  8. Equitable Division of Property refers to the courts process of dividing (1) separate property and (2) the .
  9. Property that is acquired during the marriage is presumed to be marital property unless (1) (2) or (3) .
  10. Community Property is property (1) (2) .
  11. Comingled property is (1) (2) that is and (3) .
  12. Equitable Division of Property refers to the courts process of dividing (1) and (2) the .

Custody

0 Correct out of 1
  1. Custody is the primary standard of care to determine to all (1) parenting (2) time sharing and (3) .
  2. Custody is the primary standard of care to determine to all (1) parenting (2) and (3) .
  3. Custody is the primary standard of care to determine to all (1) (2) and (3) .

Support

0 Correct out of 3
  1. Child Support is the duty of (1) both parents (2) to support their child (3) until at least 18 years of age (4) unless .
  2. Spousal Support is the support of one spouse by another spouse in the form of (1) (2) bridge-the-gap (3) rehabilitative (4) durational or (5) permanent alimony.
  3. Modification of support must show (1) a (2) material (3) unanticipated change of circumstances.
  4. Child Support is the duty of (1) (2) to support their child (3) until at (4) unless dependent is mentally or physically handicapped.
  5. Spousal Support is the support of one spouse by another spouse in the form of (1) pendente lite (2) (3) (4) durational or (5) .
  6. Modification of support must show (1) a substantial (2) (3) .
  7. Child Support is the duty of (1) (2) to (3) until at (4) unless .
  8. Spousal Support is the support of one spouse by another spouse in the form of (1) (2) (3) (4) or (5) .
  9. Modification of support must show (1) a (2) (3) .

Adoption

0 Correct out of 1
  1. Adoption requires the (1) consent to of both biological parents and (2) .
  2. Adoption requires the (1) and (2) terminates the legal relationship between the parent and child.
  3. Adoption requires the (1) and (2) .
  • Will Trusts and Estates

Will Trusts and Estates

0 Correct out of 28
  1. Revival is the act of (1) revoking the instrument that (2) revoked the will (3) thus .
  2. Intervivos Gift is a gift given by a living person to another with (1) intent (2) and (3) acceptance.
  3. Revocation is the act of the testator to revoke the will at any time by (1) revocation evidenced in writing (2) or (3) partial revocation.
  4. Contesting a will requires an (1) with (2) a pecuniary interest in the beneficiaries.
  5. Holographic Wills are handwritten wills that must (1) be in the (2) reflect the intent to make a will and (3) signed by the Testator.
  6. Adopted Children are treated (1) (2) for purposes of intestate succession.
  7. Abatement is when the estates value is (1) and (2) must reduce gifts to satisfy those obligations.
  8. Constructive Trust is an (1) equitable remedy (2) to .
  9. Attestation Clause is a clause (1) immediately preceding the will and (2) above the signatures (3) that .
  10. Integration is when separate documents become integrated in the will when (1) the documents were present at the time of the will’s execution and (2) .
  11. Fraud occurs when the testator was (1) intentionally deceived and (2) the .
  12. Wills are the instrument that directs the distribution of property of the decedent and shall (1) be in (2) signed by the testator and (3) signed by at least two witnesses.
  13. Capacity is required for a will to be valid at the time of execution when (1) the individual is over the age of 18 (2) they (3) the property to be disposed (4) the people who are to benefit from the estate and (5) the nature of the disposition in a common scheme.
  14. Advancements are a (1) gift made during the testator’s life or (2) decedents life (3) with the .
  15. Simultaneous Death means one spouse cannot take as heir to the beneficiary unless the spouse survives the decedent with (1) sufficient evidence one spouse died first or (2) there is .
  16. Slayer Statute is one who (1) kills their spouse (2) .
  17. Disclaimer is the act of (1) one party (2) in (3) the decedent’s estate that would have passed to the other party.
  18. Testamentary Intent is the (1) intent of the (2) .
  19. Incorporation by Reference are documents that are not part of the will may be incorporated when (1) Testator’s intent to incorporate (2) document is authenticated and (3) .
  20. Ademption is the gift of (1) specific property (2) that is .
  21. Trust requires the settlor to have (1) capacity (2) intent to create the trust (3) (4) named competent trustee (5) clear disposition of settlor’s specific property and (6) valid purpose of the trust.
  22. Trustees Duties consist of a duty to (1) administer (2) loyalty (3) (4) contain property (5) protect the trust and (6) preserve property.
  23. Pretermitted Children are (1) children born or (2) .
  24. Intestate Succession is the (1) (2) of the decedent (3) without a will.
  25. Trust is a fiduciary relationship in which (1) (2) holds legal title to property (3) for benefit of designated beneficiaries.
  26. Codicils are (1) changes (2) or (3) modifications to an already existing will that meet the will requirements.
  27. Resulting Trust is a (1) failed express trust (2) .
  28. Undue Influence occurs when (1) (2) the testator’s free will and mind were overpowered and (3) the testator’s will would not have been executed but for the undue influence.
  29. Revival is the act of (1) that (2) (3) thus reviving the prior will.
  30. Intervivos Gift is a gift given by a living person to another with (1) intent (2) and (3) .
  31. Revocation is the act of the testator to revoke the will at any time by (1) (2) or (3) partial revocation.
  32. Contesting a will requires an (1) individual with (2) a .
  33. Holographic Wills are handwritten wills that must (1) be in the (2) and (3) signed by the Testator.
  34. Adopted Children are treated (1) (2) for purposes of intestate succession.
  35. Abatement is when the estates value is (1) insufficient to pay obligations and (2) .
  36. Constructive Trust is an (1) equitable remedy (2) to .
  37. Attestation Clause is a clause (1) and (2) above the signatures (3) that .
  38. Integration is when separate documents become integrated in the will when (1) the documents were present at the time of the will’s execution and (2) .
  39. Fraud occurs when the testator was (1) and (2) the testator relied upon those misrepresentations.
  40. Wills are the instrument that directs the distribution of property of the decedent and shall (1) be in writing (2) and (3) .
  41. Capacity is required for a will to be valid at the time of execution when (1) the (2) they (3) the property to be disposed (4) the people who are to benefit from the estate and (5) the .
  42. Advancements are a (1) or (2) decedents life (3) with the .
  43. Simultaneous Death means one spouse cannot take as heir to the beneficiary unless the spouse survives the decedent with (1) sufficient evidence one spouse died first or (2) there is .
  44. Slayer Statute is one who (1) (2) forfeits the decedents estate.
  45. Disclaimer is the act of (1) one party (2) in (3) the .
  46. Testamentary Intent is the (1) intent of the (2) .
  47. Incorporation by Reference are documents that are not part of the will may be incorporated when (1) (2) document is authenticated and (3) .
  48. Ademption is the gift of (1) specific property (2) that is .
  49. Trust requires the settlor to have (1) (2) intent to create the trust (3) (4) (5) clear disposition of settlor’s specific property and (6) valid purpose of the trust.
  50. Trustees Duties consist of a duty to (1) (2) (3) report (4) (5) protect the trust and (6) preserve property.
  51. Pretermitted Children are (1) or (2) adopted after the will was executed.
  52. Intestate Succession is the (1) (2) of the (3) without a will.
  53. Trust is a fiduciary relationship in which (1) (2) (3) for benefit of designated beneficiaries.
  54. Codicils are (1) changes (2) or (3) .
  55. Resulting Trust is a (1) failed express trust (2) .
  56. Undue Influence occurs when (1) influence was placed on the testator (2) the and (3) the .
  57. Revival is the act of (1) that (2) (3) thus .
  58. Intervivos Gift is a gift given by a living person to another with (1) (2) and (3) .
  59. Revocation is the act of the testator to revoke the will at any time by (1) (2) or (3) .
  60. Contesting a will requires an (1) with (2) a .
  61. Holographic Wills are handwritten wills that must (1) be in the (2) and (3) .
  62. Adopted Children are treated (1) (2) for .
  63. Abatement is when the estates value is (1) and (2) .
  64. Constructive Trust is an (1) (2) to .
  65. Attestation Clause is a clause (1) and (2) (3) that .
  66. Integration is when separate documents become integrated in the will when (1) the and (2) .
  67. Fraud occurs when the testator was (1) and (2) the .
  68. Wills are the instrument that directs the distribution of property of the decedent and shall (1) be in (2) and (3) .
  69. Capacity is required for a will to be valid at the time of execution when (1) the (2) they (3) the (4) the and (5) the .
  70. Advancements are a (1) or (2) (3) with the .
  71. Simultaneous Death means one spouse cannot take as heir to the beneficiary unless the spouse survives the decedent with (1) or (2) there is .
  72. Slayer Statute is one who (1) (2) .
  73. Disclaimer is the act of (1) (2) in (3) the .
  74. Testamentary Intent is the (1) of the (2) .
  75. Incorporation by Reference are documents that are not part of the will may be incorporated when (1) (2) and (3) .
  76. Ademption is the gift of (1) (2) that is .
  77. Trust requires the settlor to have (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) and (6) .
  78. Trustees Duties consist of a duty to (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) and (6) .
  79. Pretermitted Children are (1) or (2) .
  80. Intestate Succession is the (1) (2) of the (3) .
  81. Trust is a fiduciary relationship in which (1) (2) (3) for .
  82. Codicils are (1) (2) or (3) .
  83. Resulting Trust is a (1) (2) .
  84. Undue Influence occurs when (1) (2) the and (3) the .
  • Secured Transactions

Secured Transactions

0 Correct out of 15
  1. Purchase-Money Security Interest is a (1) security interest in (2) the that (3) was purchased in part by the debtor with funds given to create the security interest.
  2. Collateral is property that is subject to (1) a security interest or (2) .
  3. Priority is where the (1) creditor stands against other (2) in (3) the collateral.
  4. Fixture is when personal property has become so affixed into (1) the real estate that (2) .
  5. Fixture Filing is a financing statement filed (1) in the (2) which the fixture was attached to the real property.
  6. Rights on Default arises when the debtor fails to fulfill their obligations to the creditor causing (1) collections (2) repossession (3) sale of the collateral (4) of (5) strict foreclosure.
  7. Perfection is (1) of (2) the secured party’s interest in the collateral.
  8. Secured Transaction is governed by UCC Article 9 when intended to create a security interest in (1) personal property or (2) .
  9. Security Agreement shall contain (1) value of the collateral (2) and (3) rights in the described collateral.
  10. Certificate of Title is a notation on the title document that applies to (1) or (2) goods that are subject to title.
  11. Attachment allows the (1) creditor to enforce the security interest (2) against the debtor when (3) the .
  12. Accessions are goods that are (1) physically united with (2) .
  13. UCC Financing Statement is a (1) written authenticated record of the debtor (2) with the correct spelling of the debtor’s name (3) the creditor’s name and (4) .
  14. After Acquired Property is property to be owned by the debtor in the future which allows the secured party to have an interest in (1) existing property and (2) .
  15. Security Interests can be created by (1) possession (2) or (3) a security agreement.
  16. Purchase-Money Security Interest is a (1) in (2) the purchase-money collateral that (3) was purchased in part by the debtor with funds given to create the .
  17. Collateral is property that is subject to (1) a or (2) agricultural lien.
  18. Priority is where the (1) creditor stands against other (2) in (3) the .
  19. Fixture is when personal property has become so affixed into (1) the real estate that (2) .
  20. Fixture Filing is a financing statement filed (1) in the (2) which the fixture was attached to the real property.
  21. Rights on Default arises when the debtor fails to fulfill their obligations to the creditor causing (1) (2) repossession (3) sale of the collateral (4) of (5) .
  22. Perfection is (1) of (2) the secured party’s interest in the collateral.
  23. Secured Transaction is governed by UCC Article 9 when intended to create a security interest in (1) personal property or (2) .
  24. Security Agreement shall contain (1) (2) and (3) rights in the described collateral.
  25. Certificate of Title is a notation on the title document that applies to (1) cars excluding inventory or (2) .
  26. Attachment allows the (1) (2) when (3) the security agreement is properly executed.
  27. Accessions are goods that are (1) (2) other goods.
  28. UCC Financing Statement is a (1) written authenticated record of the debtor (2) (3) the creditor’s name and (4) .
  29. After Acquired Property is property to be owned by the debtor in the future which allows the secured party to have an interest in (1) and (2) future property.
  30. Security Interests can be created by (1) (2) or (3) a security agreement.
  31. Purchase-Money Security Interest is a (1) in (2) the that (3) was purchased in part by the debtor with funds given to create the .
  32. Collateral is property that is subject to (1) a or (2) .
  33. Priority is where the (1) (2) in (3) the .
  34. Fixture is when personal property has become so affixed into (1) the that (2) it becomes part of the .
  35. Fixture Filing is a financing statement filed (1) in the (2) which the .
  36. Rights on Default arises when the debtor fails to fulfill their obligations to the creditor causing (1) (2) (3) (4) of (5) .
  37. Perfection is (1) of (2) the .
  38. Secured Transaction is governed by UCC Article 9 when intended to create a security interest in (1) or (2) .
  39. Security Agreement shall contain (1) (2) and (3) .
  40. Certificate of Title is a notation on the title document that applies to (1) or (2) .
  41. Attachment allows the (1) (2) when (3) the .
  42. Accessions are goods that are (1) (2) .
  43. UCC Financing Statement is a (1) (2) (3) the and (4) .
  44. After Acquired Property is property to be owned by the debtor in the future which allows the secured party to have an interest in (1) and (2) .
  45. Security Interests can be created by (1) (2) or (3) a .

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