ELEMENTAL

Elemental is understanding the rule elements. Arrange the elements into a correct rule statement.

Elemental requires an understanding of the elements of each rule statement. Drag and drop the correct elements into the blank spaces of the provided rule statement.

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  • Contract Basics
  • Contract Formation
  • Defenses
  • Terms
  • UCC
  • Common Law Performance
  • Nonperformance Excuses
  • Changes to Contract Terms
  • Third Party
  • Damages

Contract Basics

0 Correct out of 7
  1. Contract is an (1) offer (2) acceptance (3) and (4) no defenses.
  2. Consideration is a (1) (2) legal value (3) between the parties.
  3. Incapacity applies to (1) and (2) mentally incompetent individuals who lack the capacity to contract.
  4. Acceptance is a (1) (2) to the contract terms.
  5. Offer is a (1) clear (2) of (3) present intent to contract.
  6. Statute of Frauds requires certain contracts to be in writing which include (1) (2) performance longer than a year (3) land (4) executorship (5) goods over $500 and (6) suretyship.
  7. Applicable law for all contracts is governed by either (1) or (2) UCC Article 2.
  8. Contract is an (1) (2) acceptance (3) consideration and (4) .
  9. Consideration is a (1) (2) legal value (3) .
  10. Incapacity applies to (1) infants and (2) who lack the capacity to contract.
  11. Acceptance is a (1) (2) to the contract terms.
  12. Offer is a (1) clear (2) of (3) .
  13. Statute of Frauds requires certain contracts to be in writing which include (1) marriage (2) (3) (4) executorship (5) goods over $500 and (6) .
  14. Applicable law for all contracts is governed by either (1) Common Law or (2) .
  15. Contract is an (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  16. Consideration is a (1) (2) (3) .
  17. Incapacity applies to (1) and (2) who lack the capacity to contract.
  18. Acceptance is a (1) (2) .
  19. Offer is a (1) (2) of (3) .
  20. Statute of Frauds requires certain contracts to be in writing which include (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) and (6) .
  21. Applicable law for all contracts is governed by either (1) or (2) .

Contract Formation

0 Correct out of 7
  1. Irrevocable Offer is (1) (2) a UCC firm offer or (3) detrimental reliance.
  2. Offer Terminates upon (1) revocation by offeror (2) rejection by offeree or (3) .
  3. Acceptance by Shipment occurs when the individual (1) promises to ship goods or (2) .
  4. Rejection occurs when there is (1) an express rejection (2) a counteroffer (3) a or (4) acceptance with additional terms.
  5. Acceptance by Performance occurs when the (1) offeree begins performance or (2) .
  6. Mailbox Rule is (1) acceptance of the contract terms (2) and (3) don’t apply to options contract.
  7. Revocation consists of (1) or (2) offeree becomes aware of the offeror’s unambiguous conduct.
  8. Irrevocable Offer is (1) (2) a UCC firm offer or (3) .
  9. Offer Terminates upon (1) revocation by offeror (2) or (3) .
  10. Acceptance by Shipment occurs when the individual (1) or (2) promptly ship goods.
  11. Rejection occurs when there is (1) (2) a counteroffer (3) a or (4) acceptance with additional terms.
  12. Acceptance by Performance occurs when the (1) or (2) offeror has knowledge that offeree has begun performance.
  13. Mailbox Rule is (1) (2) and (3) don’t apply to options contract.
  14. Revocation consists of (1) an unambiguous statement by the offeror to the offeree or (2) .
  15. Irrevocable Offer is (1) (2) a or (3) .
  16. Offer Terminates upon (1) (2) or (3) .
  17. Acceptance by Shipment occurs when the individual (1) or (2) .
  18. Rejection occurs when there is (1) (2) a (3) a or (4) .
  19. Acceptance by Performance occurs when the (1) or (2) .
  20. Mailbox Rule is (1) (2) and (3) .
  21. Revocation consists of (1) or (2) .

Defenses

0 Correct out of 7
  1. Promissory Estoppel occurs when (1) a promisor expects reliance (2) and (3) injustice will occur without the enforcement of the promise.
  2. Duress is a (1) wrongful act (2) .
  3. Fraud is a (1) false assertion of (2) a material fact (3) .
  4. A Mistake occurs when (1) (2) mistaken to (3) a factual assumption of the contract (4) at time of contract formation.
  5. Undue Influence is a (1) (2) under excessive pressure (3) by an individual susceptible to pressure.
  6. Illusory Promise is a (1) promise and (2) .
  7. Satisfying Statute of Frauds occurs when either (1) a signed writing by the party to be charged or (2) .
  8. Promissory Estoppel occurs when (1) a (2) detrimental reliance occurs and (3) .
  9. Duress is a (1) wrongful act (2) .
  10. Fraud is a (1) (2) a (3) prior to contract formation or performance.
  11. A Mistake occurs when (1) (2) mistaken to (3) a factual assumption of the contract (4) .
  12. Undue Influence is a (1) (2) (3) by an individual susceptible to pressure.
  13. Illusory Promise is a (1) promise and (2) .
  14. Satisfying Statute of Frauds occurs when either (1) a signed writing by the party to be charged or (2) .
  15. Promissory Estoppel occurs when (1) a (2) and (3) .
  16. Duress is a (1) (2) .
  17. Fraud is a (1) (2) a (3) .
  18. A Mistake occurs when (1) (2) (3) a (4) .
  19. Undue Influence is a (1) (2) (3) .
  20. Illusory Promise is a (1) and (2) .
  21. Satisfying Statute of Frauds occurs when either (1) a or (2) .

Terms

0 Correct out of 3
  1. Risk of Loss occurs when (1) shipment by common carrier upon dispatch (2) a non-carrier merchant sells to buyer and takes physical possession or (3) a .
  2. The Parole Evidence Rule is extrinsic evidence to a written contract is inadmissible to (1) or (2) contradict the written contract.
  3. Warranties consists of (1) (2) implied warranty of merchantability and (3) implied warranty for a particular purpose.
  4. Risk of Loss occurs when (1) (2) a non-carrier merchant sells to buyer and takes physical possession or (3) a .
  5. The Parole Evidence Rule is extrinsic evidence to a written contract is inadmissible to (1) supplement or (2) .
  6. Warranties consists of (1) express warranty (2) and (3) .
  7. Risk of Loss occurs when (1) (2) a or (3) a .
  8. The Parole Evidence Rule is extrinsic evidence to a written contract is inadmissible to (1) or (2) .
  9. Warranties consists of (1) (2) and (3) .

UCC

0 Correct out of 4
  1. Right to Cure delivery occurs when (1) buyer has notified seller of imperfect tender (2) seller gives buyer notice of intent to cure and (3) .
  2. Perfect Tender are (1) (2) in perfect tender (3) with respect to their manner of delivery.
  3. Buyers Options regarding delivery consist of (1) accept in part (2) reject in part (3) or (4) reject in whole.
  4. Installment Contract is (1) (2) in separate lots.
  5. Right to Cure delivery occurs when (1) (2) seller gives buyer notice of intent to cure and (3) .
  6. Perfect Tender are (1) goods must be delivered (2) (3) .
  7. Buyers Options regarding delivery consist of (1) (2) (3) accept in whole or (4) reject in whole.
  8. Installment Contract is (1) (2) in separate lots.
  9. Right to Cure delivery occurs when (1) (2) and (3) .
  10. Perfect Tender are (1) (2) (3) .
  11. Buyers Options regarding delivery consist of (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  12. Installment Contract is (1) (2) .

Common Law Performance

0 Correct out of 2
  1. Substantial Performance occurs when (1) one party has substantially performed (2) .
  2. Material Breach is a (1) substantial benefit incurred to one party (2) .
  3. Substantial Performance occurs when (1) (2) where the other party is obligated to perform or complete their performance.
  4. Material Breach is a (1) (2) where the other party is deprived of the benefit of the contract.
  5. Substantial Performance occurs when (1) (2) .
  6. Material Breach is a (1) (2) .

Nonperformance Excuses

0 Correct out of 6
  1. Anticipatory Repudiation is a (1) (2) unambiguous act (3) the party will not perform the contract.
  2. At-will-employment is an (1) agreement (2) that can be terminated by either party (3) .
  3. Frustration of Purpose is an (1) unexpected event which (2) where (3) the event is not the fault of the parties.
  4. Impracticability is (1) performance is (2) only possible (3) .
  5. Conditions are either (1) precedent or (2) .
  6. Impossibility is (1) performance is (2) .
  7. Anticipatory Repudiation is a (1) (2) unambiguous act (3) .
  8. At-will-employment is an (1) agreement (2) (3) .
  9. Frustration of Purpose is an (1) unexpected event which (2) where (3) the .
  10. Impracticability is (1) performance is (2) (3) .
  11. Conditions are either (1) precedent or (2) .
  12. Impossibility is (1) performance is (2) .
  13. Anticipatory Repudiation is a (1) (2) (3) .
  14. At-will-employment is an (1) (2) (3) .
  15. Frustration of Purpose is an (1) which (2) where (3) the .
  16. Impracticability is (1) is (2) (3) .
  17. Conditions are either (1) or (2) .
  18. Impossibility is (1) (2) .

Changes to Contract Terms

0 Correct out of 2
  1. Modification occurs when (1) (2) alter the original contract terms where (3) mutual assent and (4) consideration is now required.
  2. Novation is when (1) existing parties to a contract (2) (3) to perform the contract.
  3. Modification occurs when (1) existing parties (2) alter the original contract terms where (3) and (4) .
  4. Novation is when (1) existing parties to a contract (2) (3) .
  5. Modification occurs when (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  6. Novation is when (1) (2) (3) .

Third Party

0 Correct out of 3
  1. Third Party Rights Vest when the third party (1) learns of and assents (2) learns of and or (3) learns of and relies upon the contract.
  2. Incidental Beneficiaries are (1) parties of the contract (2) did not intend (3) .
  3. Intended Beneficiaries are (1) (2) intended the third party (3) to benefit from the contract.
  4. Third Party Rights Vest when the third party (1) learns of and (2) learns of and or (3) learns of and relies upon the contract.
  5. Incidental Beneficiaries are (1) parties of the contract (2) (3) .
  6. Intended Beneficiaries are (1) (2) (3) to benefit from the contract.
  7. Third Party Rights Vest when the third party (1) learns of and (2) learns of and or (3) learns of and .
  8. Incidental Beneficiaries are (1) (2) (3) .
  9. Intended Beneficiaries are (1) (2) (3) .

Damages

0 Correct out of 5
  1. Consequential Damages are (1) (2) indirectly resulting from the breach of contract.
  2. Specific Performance are (1) in which involve (2) land or (3) unique goods that money cannot compensate for.
  3. Liquidated Damages are an agreed upon amount of damages which (1) occur prior to contract formation and (2) .
  4. Incidental damages are (1) (2) commercially reasonable expenses (3) which flow from the breach of the contract.
  5. Expectation Damages are the standard measure of money damages that (1) put the non-breaching party in a (2) .
  6. Consequential Damages are (1) (2) indirectly resulting from the breach of contract.
  7. Specific Performance are (1) in which involve (2) or (3) unique goods that money cannot compensate for.
  8. Liquidated Damages are an agreed upon amount of damages which (1) and (2) reasonable.
  9. Incidental damages are (1) unforeseeable (2) (3) .
  10. Expectation Damages are the standard measure of money damages that (1) in a (2) economic position had the party completed the contract.
  11. Consequential Damages are (1) (2) .
  12. Specific Performance are (1) in which involve (2) or (3) that money cannot compensate for.
  13. Liquidated Damages are an agreed upon amount of damages which (1) and (2) .
  14. Incidental damages are (1) (2) (3) .
  15. Expectation Damages are the standard measure of money damages that (1) in a (2) .
  • Relevance
  • Character Evidence
  • Impeachment
  • Testimonial Evidence
  • Testimonial Privilege
  • Evidence
  • Hearsay
  • Confrontation Clause

Relevance

0 Correct out of 8
  1. Relevant evidence (401) is evidence that (1) makes a fact (2) more or less probable (3) .
  2. Subsequent Remedial Measures taken after an injury or event are inadmissible to prove (1) fault (2) defect or (3) .
  3. Liability Insurance is generally not admissible to (1) or (2) a party’s ability to pay damages unless (3) it is used to prove ownership.
  4. Relevant evidence based on public policy grounds may be excluded if it involves (1) liability insurance (2) subsequent remedial measures (3) or (4) payments or offers to pay medical expenses.
  5. Excluded evidence (402) is evidence that is excluded if it is barred by (1) the United States Constitution (2) a federal statute (3) the or (4) any other rule established by the Supreme Court of the United States.
  6. Unfair Prejudice consist of (1) confusion of issues (2) misleading the jury (3) undue delay or waste of time or (4) .
  7. Probative value (403) is the exclusion of relevant evidence if (1) the probative value is (2) substantially outweighed by (3) .
  8. Evidentiary Hearings are (1) a court-ordered hearing on admissibility of evidence (2) .
  9. Relevant evidence (401) is evidence that (1) makes a fact (2) (3) .
  10. Subsequent Remedial Measures taken after an injury or event are inadmissible to prove (1) fault (2) or (3) .
  11. Liability Insurance is generally not admissible to (1) or (2) a party’s ability to pay damages unless (3) .
  12. Relevant evidence based on public policy grounds may be excluded if it involves (1) liability insurance (2) subsequent remedial measures (3) or (4) .
  13. Excluded evidence (402) is evidence that is excluded if it is barred by (1) the United States Constitution (2) a federal statute (3) the or (4) .
  14. Unfair Prejudice consist of (1) confusion of issues (2) misleading the jury (3) or (4) .
  15. Probative value (403) is the exclusion of relevant evidence if (1) the probative value is (2) (3) .
  16. Evidentiary Hearings are (1) a (2) conducted outside the presence of the jury.
  17. Relevant evidence (401) is evidence that (1) (2) (3) .
  18. Subsequent Remedial Measures taken after an injury or event are inadmissible to prove (1) (2) or (3) .
  19. Liability Insurance is generally not admissible to (1) or (2) a unless (3) .
  20. Relevant evidence based on public policy grounds may be excluded if it involves (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  21. Excluded evidence (402) is evidence that is excluded if it is barred by (1) the (2) a (3) the or (4) .
  22. Unfair Prejudice consist of (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  23. Probative value (403) is the exclusion of relevant evidence if (1) the is (2) (3) .
  24. Evidentiary Hearings are (1) a (2) .

Character Evidence

0 Correct out of 7
  1. In Homicide Cases Defendant may raise self-defense and offer evidence showing (1) (2) the victim attacked first.
  2. Victim’s character evidence can only be introduced by (1) the (2) rebutted by the prosecution.
  3. Use of Sexual Assault Evidence must (1) be disclosed with their intent to offer the evidence (2) and (3) notify the victim 14 days prior to trial.
  4. In Criminal Sexual Assault cases reputation or opinion evidence is inadmissible unless (1) or (2) a third party is the source of the DNA or injury.
  5. In Civil Sexual Assault Cases Victim’s character evidence is admissible by reputation, opinion, and specific instances of conduct if (1) the probative value is substantially outweighed by the danger of unfair prejudice or (2) the .
  6. Character Evidence is generally inadmissible; however, is admissible to prove (1) motive (2) intent (3) mistake or lack of mistake (4) identity or (5) .
  7. Prosecution may not initiate character evidence of the Defendant unless (1) or (2) if the Defendant first offers evidence of the victim’s character.
  8. In Homicide Cases Defendant may raise self-defense and offer evidence showing (1) victim’s violent character reflects (2) the .
  9. Victim’s character evidence can only be introduced by (1) the (2) rebutted by the prosecution.
  10. Use of Sexual Assault Evidence must (1) (2) and (3) notify the victim 14 days prior to trial.
  11. In Criminal Sexual Assault cases reputation or opinion evidence is inadmissible unless (1) or (2) a third party is the source of the DNA or injury.
  12. In Civil Sexual Assault Cases Victim’s character evidence is admissible by reputation, opinion, and specific instances of conduct if (1) the probative value is substantially outweighed by the danger of unfair prejudice or (2) the .
  13. Character Evidence is generally inadmissible; however, is admissible to prove (1) (2) (3) mistake or lack of mistake (4) or (5) common plan or scheme.
  14. Prosecution may not initiate character evidence of the Defendant unless (1) or (2) if the Defendant first offers evidence of the victim’s character.
  15. In Homicide Cases Defendant may raise self-defense and offer evidence showing (1) (2) the .
  16. Victim’s character evidence can only be introduced by (1) the (2) .
  17. Use of Sexual Assault Evidence must (1) (2) and (3) .
  18. In Criminal Sexual Assault cases reputation or opinion evidence is inadmissible unless (1) or (2) a .
  19. In Civil Sexual Assault Cases Victim’s character evidence is admissible by reputation, opinion, and specific instances of conduct if (1) the or (2) the .
  20. Character Evidence is generally inadmissible; however, is admissible to prove (1) (2) (3) (4) or (5) .
  21. Prosecution may not initiate character evidence of the Defendant unless (1) or (2) .

Impeachment

0 Correct out of 3
  1. Extrinsic Evidence is evidence that challenges the (1) (2) impeach the witness.
  2. Impeachment is an adverse reflection on the veracity of the witnesses testimony shown by (1) contradiction (2) (3) bias (4) interest (5) reputation or (6) prior acts of misconduct.
  3. Collateral Issues are a (1) (2) the issues in the case.
  4. Extrinsic Evidence is evidence that challenges the (1) (2) impeach the witness.
  5. Impeachment is an adverse reflection on the veracity of the witnesses testimony shown by (1) (2) prior inconsistent statements (3) (4) interest (5) or (6) prior acts of misconduct.
  6. Collateral Issues are a (1) (2) the issues in the case.
  7. Extrinsic Evidence is evidence that challenges the (1) (2) .
  8. Impeachment is an adverse reflection on the veracity of the witnesses testimony shown by (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) or (6) .
  9. Collateral Issues are a (1) (2) .

Testimonial Evidence

0 Correct out of 7
  1. Past Recorded Recollection are contents of a record or document that was previously adopted or read into evidence in which (1) witness had knowledge of the subject matter at issue (2) (3) the record was made or adopted by the witness when it was fresh in their memory and (4) the record accurately reflects witness’s knowledge.
  2. Competency of a witness requires the witness has (1) personal knowledge (2) memory (3) and (4) sincerity.
  3. Expert Opinion testimony may be given if (1) helpful (2) (3) provided with reasonable certainty (4) a proper factual basis formed and (4) reliable principles relied upon.
  4. Objection to questions occurs when the question (1) calls for narrative (2) (3) augmentative or (4) are or beyond the scope of direct.
  5. Daubert Test are scientific evidence based upon (1) (2) rate of error (3) acceptance of others in the field and (4) published.
  6. Present Recollection Refreshed involves using documents to refresh the witness’s memory which requires (1) the witness to not read aloud from the document (2) inspection of the document by the opposing party (3) not read into evidence and (4) .
  7. Lay Opinion testimony is admissible if it is based upon (1) perception (2) rationally based (3) and (4) not an expert.
  8. Past Recorded Recollection are contents of a record or document that was previously adopted or read into evidence in which (1) (2) (3) the record was made or adopted by the witness when it was fresh in their memory and (4) the record accurately reflects witness’s knowledge.
  9. Competency of a witness requires the witness has (1) (2) memory (3) communication and (4) .
  10. Expert Opinion testimony may be given if (1) (2) (3) (4) a proper factual basis formed and (4) reliable principles relied upon.
  11. Objection to questions occurs when the question (1) calls for narrative (2) (3) augmentative or (4) .
  12. Daubert Test are scientific evidence based upon (1) testing (2) (3) and (4) published.
  13. Present Recollection Refreshed involves using documents to refresh the witness’s memory which requires (1) the witness to not read aloud from the document (2) inspection of the document by the opposing party (3) and (4) .
  14. Lay Opinion testimony is admissible if it is based upon (1) (2) rationally based (3) helpful to understand or determining a fact and (4) .
  15. Past Recorded Recollection are contents of a record or document that was previously adopted or read into evidence in which (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  16. Competency of a witness requires the witness has (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  17. Expert Opinion testimony may be given if (1) (2) (3) (4) a and (4) .
  18. Objection to questions occurs when the question (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  19. Daubert Test are scientific evidence based upon (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  20. Present Recollection Refreshed involves using documents to refresh the witness’s memory which requires (1) the (2) (3) and (4) .
  21. Lay Opinion testimony is admissible if it is based upon (1) (2) (3) and (4) .

Testimonial Privilege

0 Correct out of 4
  1. Testimonial Privilege is a privilege that is protected by the Federal Rules of Evidence which include (1) attorney client (2) spousal privilege or marital communications (3) psychotherapist or (4) .
  2. Spousal Communication privilege applies to communication between spouses who were (1) married at the time of the trial (2) is limited to criminal cases (3) terminates upon divorce and (4) .
  3. Marital Communication privilege pertains to communication between spouses (1) made during the marriage (2) (3) applies to both criminal and civil proceedings and (4) survives divorce.
  4. Attorney-Client Privilege protects communications between an attorney and a client if (1) and (2) made to facilitate the provision of legal services.
  5. Testimonial Privilege is a privilege that is protected by the Federal Rules of Evidence which include (1) (2) spousal privilege or marital communications (3) psychotherapist or (4) .
  6. Spousal Communication privilege applies to communication between spouses who were (1) (2) is limited to criminal cases (3) terminates upon divorce and (4) .
  7. Marital Communication privilege pertains to communication between spouses (1) made during the marriage (2) (3) applies to both criminal and civil proceedings and (4) .
  8. Attorney-Client Privilege protects communications between an attorney and a client if (1) they are intended to be confidential and (2) .
  9. Testimonial Privilege is a privilege that is protected by the Federal Rules of Evidence which include (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  10. Spousal Communication privilege applies to communication between spouses who were (1) (2) is (3) and (4) .
  11. Marital Communication privilege pertains to communication between spouses (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  12. Attorney-Client Privilege protects communications between an attorney and a client if (1) and (2) .

Evidence

0 Correct out of 3
  1. Authenticated Evidence is evidence that is (1) physical that (2) the proponent produces (3) .
  2. Best Evidence Rule is evidence that is offered when the original is unavailable to (1) or (2) an original document.
  3. Judicial Notice is a court notice that can recognize (1) any fact as true (2) (3) either on its own initiative or (4) by formal request of a party.
  4. Authenticated Evidence is evidence that is (1) physical that (2) (3) .
  5. Best Evidence Rule is evidence that is offered when the original is unavailable to (1) or (2) an original document.
  6. Judicial Notice is a court notice that can recognize (1) (2) (3) either on its own initiative or (4) by formal request of a party.
  7. Authenticated Evidence is evidence that is (1) (2) (3) .
  8. Best Evidence Rule is evidence that is offered when the original is unavailable to (1) or (2) .
  9. Judicial Notice is a court notice that can recognize (1) (2) (3) or (4) .

Hearsay

0 Correct out of 15
  1. Excited Utterance are admissible if (1) and (2) was made while under the excitement or stress of the event.
  2. Former Testimony Under Oath is testimony given by a person in an earlier proceeding or deposition is admissible if (1) declarant is currently unavailable (2) prior testimony was given under oath and either (3) the party in the previous action had the or (4) a predecessor in interest of a party in the previous action had the opportunity to cross examine and a similar motive in doing so.
  3. Declarant Unavailability is admissible if (1) former testimony under oath (2) (3) dying declaration or (4) statements offered against the party procuring declarants unavailability.
  4. Dying Declarations are admissible if (1) declarant is unavailable (2) declarant was under the belief of impending death (3) and (4) only applies to homicide or all civil cases.
  5. Business Records are admissible if (1) a record or transaction recorded by the business (2) (3) by someone with knowledge at or near the time the matters described and (4) authenticated or certified in writing.
  6. Unavailability means the declarant’s testimony is (1) privileged (2) (3) refusal or (4) lack of memory.
  7. Present Sense Impression are admissible if (1) and (2) is made during or immediately after the event in question.
  8. Non-Hearsay Exemptions are hearsay statements made by a party opponent that is in the form of (1) judicial statements (2) or (3) a vicarious statement.
  9. Admissible Hearsay is an out of court statement consisting of (1) (2) words to proport the effect of the listener (3) speaker’s knowledge or (4) state of mind.
  10. Statement Against Interest are admissible if (1) pecuniary gain (2) (3) statement was contrary to declarant’s pecuniary gain or (4) a reasonable person would not have made the statement unless believed to be true.
  11. Present State of Mind statements are admissible if (1) concern the declarant’s state of mind (2) emotion (3) or (4) physical condition at the time the statement was made.
  12. Learned Treatises are accepted authority pertaining to a certain field by the expert and can be accepted by (1) (2) admission or (3) by judicial notice.
  13. Public Records are admissible if (1) describe the activities of a public office or agency (2) under a duty of law (3) by a public employee within their scope of duty and (4) .
  14. Hearsay is a (1) out of court statement (2) offered to prove (3) .
  15. Physical Condition statements are admissible if (1) and (2) pertaining to the diagnosis of that treatment of condition.
  16. Excited Utterance are admissible if (1) relate to the startling event in question and (2) was made while under the of the event.
  17. Former Testimony Under Oath is testimony given by a person in an earlier proceeding or deposition is admissible if (1) declarant is currently unavailable (2) and either (3) the party in the previous action had the opportunity to cross examine the declarant or (4) a predecessor in interest of a party in the previous action had the .
  18. Declarant Unavailability is admissible if (1) (2) (3) dying declaration or (4) statements offered against the party procuring declarants unavailability.
  19. Dying Declarations are admissible if (1) (2) (3) the statement was made in regard to the cause of circumstances surround the impending death and (4) only applies to homicide or all civil cases.
  20. Business Records are admissible if (1) a record or transaction recorded by the business (2) is made during the regular course of business (3) and (4) .
  21. Unavailability means the declarant’s testimony is (1) (2) death (3) refusal or (4) .
  22. Present Sense Impression are admissible if (1) and (2) is made during or immediately after the event in question.
  23. Non-Hearsay Exemptions are hearsay statements made by a party opponent that is in the form of (1) (2) adoptive statements or (3) a .
  24. Admissible Hearsay is an out of court statement consisting of (1) (2) (3) speaker’s knowledge or (4) state of mind.
  25. Statement Against Interest are admissible if (1) (2) (3) statement was contrary to declarant’s or (4) a reasonable person would not have made the statement unless believed to be true.
  26. Present State of Mind statements are admissible if (1) concern the declarant’s state of mind (2) (3) sensation or (4) .
  27. Learned Treatises are accepted authority pertaining to a certain field by the expert and can be accepted by (1) (2) admission or (3) .
  28. Public Records are admissible if (1) (2) (3) by a public employee within their scope of duty and (4) occurred at or near the time of the event.
  29. Hearsay is a (1) out of court statement (2) (3) .
  30. Physical Condition statements are admissible if (1) and (2) pertaining to the diagnosis of that treatment of condition.
  31. Excited Utterance are admissible if (1) and (2) was made while under the of the event.
  32. Former Testimony Under Oath is testimony given by a person in an earlier proceeding or deposition is admissible if (1) (2) and either (3) the party in the previous action had the or (4) a predecessor in interest of a party in the previous action had the .
  33. Declarant Unavailability is admissible if (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  34. Dying Declarations are admissible if (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  35. Business Records are admissible if (1) a (2) (3) and (4) .
  36. Unavailability means the declarant’s testimony is (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  37. Present Sense Impression are admissible if (1) and (2) the event in question.
  38. Non-Hearsay Exemptions are hearsay statements made by a party opponent that is in the form of (1) (2) or (3) a .
  39. Admissible Hearsay is an out of court statement consisting of (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  40. Statement Against Interest are admissible if (1) (2) (3) statement was contrary to declarant’s or (4) a .
  41. Present State of Mind statements are admissible if (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  42. Learned Treatises are accepted authority pertaining to a certain field by the expert and can be accepted by (1) (2) or (3) .
  43. Public Records are admissible if (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  44. Hearsay is a (1) (2) (3) .
  45. Physical Condition statements are admissible if (1) and (2) .

Confrontation Clause

0 Correct out of 1
  1. The Confrontation Clause ensures that every defendant has the right to confront witnesses when (1) is (2) offered against the defendant (3) in a criminal case and (4) may be excluded if the declarant is unavailable.
  2. The Confrontation Clause ensures that every defendant has the right to confront witnesses when (1) an out-of-court statement is (2) (3) and (4) may be excluded if the declarant is unavailable.
  3. The Confrontation Clause ensures that every defendant has the right to confront witnesses when (1) is (2) (3) and (4) .
  • Intentional Torts
  • Defenses
  • Defamation
  • Other Torts
  • Negligence
  • Strict Liability
  • Products Liability
  • Nuisance
  • Liability

Intentional Torts

0 Correct out of 9
  1. False Imprisonment is an (1) (2) voluntary act (3) where the Plaintiff is confined to a bounded area.
  2. Conversion is the (1) (2) intermeddling of another’s personal property (3) where Plaintiff can recover the fair market value at the time of conversion.
  3. Assault is an (1) intentional (2) (3) where there is reasonable apprehension of harmful or immediate contact.
  4. Bystander Intentional Infliction of Emotional Distress is the bystander is closely related to the injured person where the (1) Defendant’s conduct seriously injured a third person (2) Plaintiff is closely related to the injured third person (3) Plaintiff was present when the injury occurred (4) and (5) Plaintiff suffers emotional distress.
  5. Battery is an (1) intentional (2) (3) where there is harmful or immediate contact.
  6. Tort is an (1) (2) voluntary act by the defendant (3) causing such harm.
  7. Trespass to Land is an (1) (2) physical invasion of one’s real property.
  8. Intentional Infliction of Emotional Distress is (1) an extreme or outrageous act (2) by the (3) where the Plaintiff suffers severe emotional distress.
  9. Trespass to chattel is an (1) (2) intermeddling of another’s personal property.
  10. False Imprisonment is an (1) (2) (3) where the Plaintiff is confined to a bounded area.
  11. Conversion is the (1) (2) intermeddling of another’s personal property (3) where Plaintiff can recover the .
  12. Assault is an (1) (2) voluntary act by the defendant (3) where there is .
  13. Bystander Intentional Infliction of Emotional Distress is the bystander is closely related to the injured person where the (1) (2) Plaintiff is closely related to the injured third person (3) (4) and (5) Plaintiff suffers emotional distress.
  14. Battery is an (1) (2) (3) where there is harmful or immediate contact.
  15. Tort is an (1) intentional (2) (3) .
  16. Trespass to Land is an (1) (2) physical invasion of one’s real property.
  17. Intentional Infliction of Emotional Distress is (1) an (2) by the Defendant (3) where the .
  18. Trespass to chattel is an (1) (2) intermeddling of another’s personal property.
  19. False Imprisonment is an (1) (2) (3) where the .
  20. Conversion is the (1) (2) (3) where Plaintiff can recover the .
  21. Assault is an (1) (2) (3) where there is .
  22. Bystander Intentional Infliction of Emotional Distress is the bystander is closely related to the injured person where the (1) (2) (3) (4) and (5) .
  23. Battery is an (1) (2) (3) where there is .
  24. Tort is an (1) (2) (3) .
  25. Trespass to Land is an (1) (2) .
  26. Intentional Infliction of Emotional Distress is (1) an (2) by the (3) where the .
  27. Trespass to chattel is an (1) (2) .

Defenses

0 Correct out of 6
  1. Self Defense is the (1) reasonable belief (2) of (3) applied reasonable force.
  2. Recapture of chattels is a defense to trespass claims when (1) the (2) to recover unlawfully taken property.
  3. Defense of Property is the (1) (2) non-deadly force.
  4. Necessity is a defense to all property damage claims of the Plaintiff’s property which are outweighed in an effort to avoid greater danger when (1) and (2) the threatened injury was more serious than the property interference.
  5. Defense of Others is the Defendant’s (1) reasonable belief (2) that the person they are aiding would have the .
  6. Consent is a defense to all intentional torts where the Plaintiff has given (1) express consent or (2) .
  7. Self Defense is the (1) reasonable belief (2) of (3) .
  8. Recapture of chattels is a defense to trespass claims when (1) the Defendant may use peaceful means (2) .
  9. Defense of Property is the (1) (2) non-deadly force.
  10. Necessity is a defense to all property damage claims of the Plaintiff’s property which are outweighed in an effort to avoid greater danger when (1) reasonably necessary and (2) the .
  11. Defense of Others is the Defendant’s (1) (2) that the person they are aiding would have the right to self-defense.
  12. Consent is a defense to all intentional torts where the Plaintiff has given (1) or (2) scope of consent was not exceeded.
  13. Self Defense is the (1) (2) of (3) .
  14. Recapture of chattels is a defense to trespass claims when (1) the (2) .
  15. Defense of Property is the (1) (2) .
  16. Necessity is a defense to all property damage claims of the Plaintiff’s property which are outweighed in an effort to avoid greater danger when (1) and (2) the .
  17. Defense of Others is the Defendant’s (1) (2) that the person they are aiding would have the .
  18. Consent is a defense to all intentional torts where the Plaintiff has given (1) or (2) .

Defamation

0 Correct out of 4
  1. Defamation of a Private Citizen is (1) a defamatory statement (2) regarding the Plaintiff (3) that was published and (4) .
  2. Defamation of a public citizen is a (1) (2) regarding the Plaintiff (3) that was published (4) harmful to the Plaintiff’s reputation and (5) falsity and fault.
  3. Slander Per Se is spoken conduct of (1) crimes of moral turpitude (2) loathsome disease (3) impute women’s chastity or (4) .
  4. Slander is (1) (2) pecuniary damages.
  5. Defamation of a Private Citizen is (1) a (2) (3) that was published and (4) harmful to Plaintiff’s reputation.
  6. Defamation of a public citizen is a (1) defamatory statement (2) (3) (4) harmful to the Plaintiff’s reputation and (5) .
  7. Slander Per Se is spoken conduct of (1) crimes of moral turpitude (2) (3) impute women’s chastity or (4) .
  8. Slander is (1) spoken conduct where (2) .
  9. Defamation of a Private Citizen is (1) a (2) (3) and (4) .
  10. Defamation of a public citizen is a (1) (2) (3) (4) and (5) .
  11. Slander Per Se is spoken conduct of (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  12. Slander is (1) (2) .

Other Torts

0 Correct out of 6
  1. Intentional Interference with Business Relations is the (1) Plaintiff has a valid contractual relationship (2) where the Defendant has knowledge of such relationship (3) intentionally interferes with that relationship and (4) (5) resulting in damages.
  2. Intrusion Upon Seclusion is a (1) (2) where the intrusion would be highly offensive to a reasonable prudent person.
  3. Intentional Misrepresentation is the (1) Defendant’s misrepresentation of a material fact (2) (3) intended to induce reliance (4) actual reliance by the Plaintiff and (5) damages in the form of pecuniary loss.
  4. Negligent Misrepresentation is the Defendant (1) misrepresents a material fact in a professional setting (2) where a breach of duty was owed (3) justifiable reliance by the Plaintiff and (4) .
  5. False Light is the (1) (2) of a falsehood or material misrepresentation (3) that would be offensive to a reasonable person.
  6. Appropriation is the (1) unauthorized use (2) of Plaintiff’s (3) name, image or likeness (4) .
  7. Intentional Interference with Business Relations is the (1) (2) where the Defendant has knowledge of such relationship (3) and (4) this interreference causes breach (5) .
  8. Intrusion Upon Seclusion is a (1) Plaintiffs’ reasonable expectation of privacy (2) where the intrusion would be .
  9. Intentional Misrepresentation is the (1) Defendant’s misrepresentation of a material fact (2) (3) intended to induce reliance (4) and (5) .
  10. Negligent Misrepresentation is the Defendant (1) (2) where a (3) justifiable reliance by the Plaintiff and (4) resulted in monetary loss.
  11. False Light is the (1) (2) of a falsehood or material misrepresentation (3) that would be .
  12. Appropriation is the (1) (2) of Plaintiff’s (3) name, image or likeness (4) .
  13. Intentional Interference with Business Relations is the (1) (2) (3) and (4) (5) .
  14. Intrusion Upon Seclusion is a (1) (2) where the intrusion would be .
  15. Intentional Misrepresentation is the (1) (2) (3) (4) and (5) .
  16. Negligent Misrepresentation is the Defendant (1) (2) where a (3) and (4) .
  17. False Light is the (1) (2) of a (3) that would be .
  18. Appropriation is the (1) (2) (3) (4) .

Negligence

0 Correct out of 15
  1. Licensee is an individual who enters the land with (1) the Owner’s permission for (2) or (3) a business purpose.
  2. Proximate Cause is a foreseeable connection to the alleged breach which doesn’t include (1) an act of God (2) or (3) criminal act.
  3. Breach of Duty is a duty that (1) (2) owed to the individual.
  4. Negligence consists of (1) (2) breach (3) causation and (4) damages.
  5. Damages consist of (1) personal injury (2) property damage or (3) .
  6. Specialized Duty of Care is owed to (1) (2) children (3) professionals or (4) by custom or trade usage.
  7. Contributory Negligence is the Plaintiff is barred from recovery of the Plaintiff’s injuries if (1) Defendant establishes that Plaintiff’s conduct (2) .
  8. Duty of Care to behave like a reasonable prudent person is owed to (1) foreseeable Plaintiffs in the (2) .
  9. Negligent Infliction of Emotional Distress is (1) Defendants negligent act is in close proximity to the Plaintiff (2) Plaintiff and (3) Plaintiff suffers from some physical manifestation.
  10. Attractive Nuisance Doctrine holds the property owners liable for damages if (1) they know or should know that children are in the area (2) know or should know of the (3) the condition is likely to cause injury and (4) the potential lost outweighs the risk of remedying the defect.
  11. Comparative Negligence is a defense to negligence where the Defendant can prove (1) the injuries incurred are (2) .
  12. Actual Cause is a causal connection between the (1) and (2) the duty owed.
  13. Invitee is an individual who enters the land (1) (2) to confer a commercial benefit.
  14. Negligence Per Se is established when a (1) valid ordinance is in place (2) the Plaintiff is in the class the ordinance was designed to protect and (3) .
  15. Res Ipsa Loquitur is an (1) inference of negligence (2) not attributable to the plaintiff but (3) .
  16. Licensee is an individual who enters the land with (1) the (2) Licensee’s own personal or (3) a .
  17. Proximate Cause is a foreseeable connection to the alleged breach which doesn’t include (1) (2) intentional tort or (3) .
  18. Breach of Duty is a duty that (1) (2) owed to the individual.
  19. Negligence consists of (1) (2) breach (3) and (4) damages.
  20. Damages consist of (1) (2) or (3) punitive damages.
  21. Specialized Duty of Care is owed to (1) (2) children (3) professionals or (4) .
  22. Contributory Negligence is the Plaintiff is barred from recovery of the Plaintiff’s injuries if (1) (2) contributed to Plaintiff’s injuries.
  23. Duty of Care to behave like a reasonable prudent person is owed to (1) foreseeable Plaintiffs in the (2) .
  24. Negligent Infliction of Emotional Distress is (1) Defendants negligent act is in close proximity to the Plaintiff (2) Plaintiff and (3) .
  25. Attractive Nuisance Doctrine holds the property owners liable for damages if (1) they know or should know that (2) know or should know of the dangerous condition (3) the condition is likely to cause injury and (4) .
  26. Comparative Negligence is a defense to negligence where the Defendant can prove (1) the injuries incurred are (2) .
  27. Actual Cause is a causal connection between the (1) alleged breach and (2) the .
  28. Invitee is an individual who enters the land (1) open to the public (2) .
  29. Negligence Per Se is established when a (1) (2) and (3) the ordinance is designed to protect against that type of harm that occurred.
  30. Res Ipsa Loquitur is an (1) (2) not attributable to the plaintiff but (3) .
  31. Licensee is an individual who enters the land with (1) the (2) or (3) a .
  32. Proximate Cause is a foreseeable connection to the alleged breach which doesn’t include (1) (2) or (3) .
  33. Breach of Duty is a duty that (1) (2) .
  34. Negligence consists of (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  35. Damages consist of (1) (2) or (3) .
  36. Specialized Duty of Care is owed to (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  37. Contributory Negligence is the Plaintiff is barred from recovery of the Plaintiff’s injuries if (1) (2) .
  38. Duty of Care to behave like a reasonable prudent person is owed to (1) in the (2) .
  39. Negligent Infliction of Emotional Distress is (1) Defendants negligent act is in (2) Plaintiff and (3) .
  40. Attractive Nuisance Doctrine holds the property owners liable for damages if (1) they know or should know that (2) know or should know of the (3) the and (4) .
  41. Comparative Negligence is a defense to negligence where the Defendant can prove (1) the are (2) .
  42. Actual Cause is a causal connection between the (1) and (2) the .
  43. Invitee is an individual who enters the land (1) (2) .
  44. Negligence Per Se is established when a (1) (2) and (3) .
  45. Res Ipsa Loquitur is an (1) (2) but (3) .

Strict Liability

0 Correct out of 3
  1. Strict Liability of animal conduct are animal owners are strictly liable for (1) reasonably foreseeable damages (2) (3) on another’s property.
  2. Strict Liability abnormally dangers activity is a (1) that (2) cannot be made safe (3) which poses a severe risk.
  3. Strict Liability is an (1) absolute duty to make safe (2) and (3) damages to person or property.
  4. Strict Liability of animal conduct are animal owners are strictly liable for (1) reasonably foreseeable damages (2) (3) .
  5. Strict Liability abnormally dangers activity is a (1) uncommon activity that (2) (3) which .
  6. Strict Liability is an (1) (2) causation and (3) .
  7. Strict Liability of animal conduct are animal owners are strictly liable for (1) (2) (3) .
  8. Strict Liability abnormally dangers activity is a (1) that (2) (3) which .
  9. Strict Liability is an (1) (2) and (3) .

Products Liability

0 Correct out of 3
  1. Types of Defects consist of a (1) manufacturing defect (2) design defect or (3) .
  2. Products Strict Liability is a (1) commercial supplier (2) of a defective product (3) of the injury (4) used in a foreseeable manner.
  3. Types of Warranties include (1) (2) warranty of merchantability or (3) express warranty.
  4. Types of Defects consist of a (1) manufacturing defect (2) or (3) .
  5. Products Strict Liability is a (1) (2) of a (3) that was the actual or proximate cause of the injury (4) used in a foreseeable manner.
  6. Types of Warranties include (1) (2) warranty of merchantability or (3) .
  7. Types of Defects consist of a (1) (2) or (3) .
  8. Products Strict Liability is a (1) (2) of a (3) of the injury (4) .
  9. Types of Warranties include (1) (2) or (3) .

Nuisance

0 Correct out of 3
  1. Private Nuisance is a (1) substantial interference (2) with ones right to enjoy one’s property (3) where the interference is one where the .
  2. Public Nuisance is an (1) (2) with health, safety, or property rights of the public.
  3. Nuisance is a (1) tortious invasion (2) .
  4. Private Nuisance is a (1) (2) with ones right to enjoy one’s property (3) where the interference is one where the .
  5. Public Nuisance is an (1) (2) with health, safety, or property rights of the public.
  6. Nuisance is a (1) (2) of the right to enjoy one’s property.
  7. Private Nuisance is a (1) (2) (3) where the interference is one where the .
  8. Public Nuisance is an (1) (2) with .
  9. Nuisance is a (1) (2) .

Liability

0 Correct out of 3
  1. Contribution allows a (1) Defendant who has paid more than their fair share of damages to (2) .
  2. Joint and Several Liability applies when the (1) (2) combine (3) to produce a single indivisible injury.
  3. Vicarious Liability is when the (1) (2) against the Plaintiff and (3) the third person is held liable due in part to the relationship with the Defendant.
  4. Contribution allows a (1) Defendant who has paid more than their fair share of damages to (2) .
  5. Joint and Several Liability applies when the (1) acts of two or more Defendants (2) (3) to produce a .
  6. Vicarious Liability is when the (1) (2) and (3) the third person is held liable due in part to the relationship with the Defendant.
  7. Contribution allows a (1) Defendant who has paid to (2) .
  8. Joint and Several Liability applies when the (1) (2) (3) to produce a .
  9. Vicarious Liability is when the (1) (2) and (3) the third person is held liable due in part .
  • Principles
  • Incohate Crimes
  • Defenses
  • Crimes Against the Person
  • Crimes Against Property

Principles

0 Correct out of 10
  1. Model Penal Code mental states are either (1) purposefully (2) knowingly (3) recklessly or (4) .
  2. Mens Rea refers to the required mental state at the time the crime was committed which can be either (1) specific intent (2) or (3) malice.
  3. Actus Reus is a (1) voluntary (2) .
  4. Accomplice Liability arises when an individual (1) aids, abets or encourages (2) the the crime (3) with the intent that the principal commits the crime.
  5. Causation is either the (1) proximate cause or (2) the .
  6. Merger occurs when (1) two or more offenses merge (2) .
  7. Transferred Intent occurs when the Defendant is held liable if the intended harm caused affects either a (1) or (2) different object.
  8. Criminal Act requires (1) actus reus (2) (3) causation and (4) concurrence.
  9. Concurrence is the (1) and (2) the required mental state (3) occur simultaneously.
  10. Conspiracy is an (1) agreement (2) (3) to commit a crime or unlawful activity.
  11. Model Penal Code mental states are either (1) (2) knowingly (3) or (4) negligently.
  12. Mens Rea refers to the required mental state at the time the crime was committed which can be either (1) specific intent (2) or (3) .
  13. Actus Reus is a (1) voluntary (2) .
  14. Accomplice Liability arises when an individual (1) (2) the principal before, during or after the crime (3) with the .
  15. Causation is either the (1) proximate cause or (2) the .
  16. Merger occurs when (1) two or more offenses merge (2) .
  17. Transferred Intent occurs when the Defendant is held liable if the intended harm caused affects either a (1) different victim or (2) .
  18. Criminal Act requires (1) actus reus (2) (3) causation and (4) .
  19. Concurrence is the (1) and (2) the required (3) occur simultaneously.
  20. Conspiracy is an (1) agreement (2) (3) .
  21. Model Penal Code mental states are either (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  22. Mens Rea refers to the required mental state at the time the crime was committed which can be either (1) (2) or (3) .
  23. Actus Reus is a (1) (2) .
  24. Accomplice Liability arises when an individual (1) (2) the the crime (3) with the .
  25. Causation is either the (1) or (2) the .
  26. Merger occurs when (1) merge (2) .
  27. Transferred Intent occurs when the Defendant is held liable if the intended harm caused affects either a (1) or (2) .
  28. Criminal Act requires (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  29. Concurrence is the (1) and (2) the required (3) .
  30. Conspiracy is an (1) (2) (3) .

Incohate Crimes

0 Correct out of 4
  1. Attempt is an overt act (1) done with the specific intent to complete the crime but (2) .
  2. Co-Conspirator Liability holds each co-conspirator liable for the acts that are (1) and (2) committed in furtherance of the conspiracy.
  3. Conspiracy is an (1) intentional agreement between two or more people (2) with the intent to commit the targeted crime and (3) .
  4. Solicitation involves (1) (2) another individual to commit a crime with the intent they commit the crime.
  5. Attempt is an overt act (1) done with the specific intent to complete the crime but (2) .
  6. Co-Conspirator Liability holds each co-conspirator liable for the acts that are (1) and (2) committed in furtherance of the conspiracy.
  7. Conspiracy is an (1) intentional agreement between two or more people (2) with the and (3) .
  8. Solicitation involves (1) (2) another individual to commit a crime with the intent they commit the crime.
  9. Attempt is an overt act (1) but (2) .
  10. Co-Conspirator Liability holds each co-conspirator liable for the acts that are (1) and (2) .
  11. Conspiracy is an (1) (2) with the and (3) .
  12. Solicitation involves (1) (2) .

Defenses

0 Correct out of 4
  1. Entrapment occurs when the (1) criminal plan originated with law enforcement and (2) the .
  2. Duress is a defense when the (1) Defendant committed a crime under the reasonable belief (2) that the crime was .
  3. Necessity applies when the (1) (2) to avoid imminent harm to themselves, others, or society.
  4. Insanity is a defense to all crimes regardless of the intent requirement which may be established under (1) M’Naghten Rule (2) Irresistible Impulse Test (3) or the (4) Durham Rule.
  5. Entrapment occurs when the (1) criminal plan originated with law enforcement and (2) the .
  6. Duress is a defense when the (1) Defendant committed a crime under the reasonable belief (2) that the crime was .
  7. Necessity applies when the (1) (2) to avoid imminent harm to themselves, others, or society.
  8. Insanity is a defense to all crimes regardless of the intent requirement which may be established under (1) M’Naghten Rule (2) Irresistible Impulse Test (3) or the (4) .
  9. Entrapment occurs when the (1) and (2) the .
  10. Duress is a defense when the (1) (2) that the crime was .
  11. Necessity applies when the (1) (2) to avoid imminent harm to themselves, others, or society.
  12. Insanity is a defense to all crimes regardless of the intent requirement which may be established under (1) (2) (3) or the (4) .

Crimes Against the Person

0 Correct out of 11
  1. Involuntary Manslaughter is a (1) killing (2) committed with criminal negligence (3) during an unlawful act .
  2. False Imprisonment is the (1) (2) without their consent.
  3. Voluntary Manslaughter is a (1) killing (2) .
  4. Rape is the (1) carnal knowledge (2) (3) by a man other than her husband (4) without her consent.
  5. Felony Murder occurs when a killing takes pace during the commission of an inherently dangerous felony such as (1) burglary (2) arson (3) (4) robbery or (5) kidnapping.
  6. Assault is (1) an intentional (2) .
  7. The Types of Murder include (1) intent to kill (2) intent to inflict serious bodily harm (3) and (4) Depraved Heart
  8. Murder is the (1) (2) of another human (3) with malice aforethought.
  9. Adequate Provocation occurs when the (1) provocation (2) would cause an ordinary person to experience sudden and intense passion and (3) between provocation and killing.
  10. Kidnapping is the (1) unlawful confinement of a person (2) (3) with either movement or concealment of the victim.
  11. Battery is the (1) unlawful application of force (2) to a person or another (3) .
  12. Involuntary Manslaughter is a (1) killing (2) (3) during an unlawful act .
  13. False Imprisonment is the (1) (2) without their consent.
  14. Voluntary Manslaughter is a (1) (2) resulting from adequate provocation.
  15. Rape is the (1) carnal knowledge (2) (3) by a man other than her husband (4) .
  16. Felony Murder occurs when a killing takes pace during the commission of an inherently dangerous felony such as (1) burglary (2) (3) rape (4) or (5) .
  17. Assault is (1) an (2) reasonable apprehension of imminent bodily harm.
  18. The Types of Murder include (1) (2) intent to inflict serious bodily harm (3) Felony Murder and (4)
  19. Murder is the (1) unlawful killing (2) (3) .
  20. Adequate Provocation occurs when the (1) provocation (2) would cause an and (3) between provocation and killing.
  21. Kidnapping is the (1) (2) (3) with either movement or concealment of the victim.
  22. Battery is the (1) unlawful application of force (2) (3) .
  23. Involuntary Manslaughter is a (1) (2) (3) during an unlawful act .
  24. False Imprisonment is the (1) (2) .
  25. Voluntary Manslaughter is a (1) (2) .
  26. Rape is the (1) (2) (3) (4) .
  27. Felony Murder occurs when a killing takes pace during the commission of an inherently dangerous felony such as (1) (2) (3) (4) or (5) .
  28. Assault is (1) an (2) .
  29. The Types of Murder include (1) (2) (3) and (4)
  30. Murder is the (1) (2) (3) .
  31. Adequate Provocation occurs when the (1) (2) would cause an and (3) between and killing.
  32. Kidnapping is the (1) (2) (3) .
  33. Battery is the (1) (2) (3) .

Crimes Against Property

0 Correct out of 9
  1. False Pretenses involve (1) obtaining title to another’s property (2) by false statements (3) of past or existing facts (4) .
  2. Embezzlement is the (1) fraudulent conversion (2) of another’s personal property (3) .
  3. Robbery is the (1) taking and carrying away (2) of another’s personal property (3) with the intent to permanently deprive them of that property (4) by .
  4. Forgery is the (1) creation or alteration (2) of a (3) with purported legal significance (4) with intent to defraud.
  5. Larceny by Trick occurs when (1) (2) by false statements (3) of past or existing facts.
  6. Larceny is the (1) taking and carrying away (2) of another’s personal property (3) .
  7. Receipt of Stolen Property involves (1) (2) of stolen property (3) known or should have known to be illegally obtained by another (4) with the intent to permanently deprive.
  8. Burglary is the (1) breaking and (2) (3) of another’s dwelling (4) at nighttime (5) with the intent to commit a felony therein.
  9. Arson is the (1) (2) burning (3) of another’s dwelling.
  10. False Pretenses involve (1) (2) (3) of past or existing facts (4) with the intent to defraud.
  11. Embezzlement is the (1) (2) (3) by one in lawful possession.
  12. Robbery is the (1) taking and carrying away (2) of (3) with the (4) by force or threat.
  13. Forgery is the (1) (2) of a written document (3) with (4) with intent to defraud.
  14. Larceny by Trick occurs when (1) obtaining title to another’s property (2) (3) .
  15. Larceny is the (1) (2) of another’s personal property (3) .
  16. Receipt of Stolen Property involves (1) receiving possession and control (2) of stolen property (3) to be illegally obtained by another (4) .
  17. Burglary is the (1) breaking and (2) (3) of (4) at nighttime (5) with the .
  18. Arson is the (1) malicious (2) (3) of .
  19. False Pretenses involve (1) (2) (3) (4) .
  20. Embezzlement is the (1) (2) (3) .
  21. Robbery is the (1) (2) of (3) with the (4) by .
  22. Forgery is the (1) (2) of a (3) with (4) with .
  23. Larceny by Trick occurs when (1) (2) (3) .
  24. Larceny is the (1) (2) (3) .
  25. Receipt of Stolen Property involves (1) (2) of (3) to be illegally obtained by another (4) .
  26. Burglary is the (1) and (2) (3) of (4) at (5) with the .
  27. Arson is the (1) (2) (3) of .
  • Judicial Power
  • Legislative Power
  • Executive Power
  • Federalism
  • Individual Liberties
  • Due Process
  • Fundamental Rights
  • Equal Protection
  • Freedom of Speech

Judicial Power

0 Correct out of 12
  1. Political Question Doctrine means federal courts cannot adjudicate constitutional issues such as (1) constitutional power reserved to or (2) are inherently incapable of judicial resolution.
  2. Original Jurisdiction occurs when the Supreme Court has original jurisdiction over (1) suits between states (2) and (3) other foreign ministers.
  3. Ripeness is a Plaintiff has been (1) harmed or (2) .
  4. Injury to all is an (1) to (2) none.
  5. Third Party Standing is a Plaintiff asserts the rights of a third party where the Plaintiff was injured when either (1) Plaintiff’s injury adversely affects their relationship with third parties or (2) the .
  6. Mootness is a courts ability to hear only live controversies unless (1) wrongs capable of repetition (2) voluntary cessation or (3) .
  7. Final Judgement occurs when the Supreme Court can only hear cases if there has been (1) final judgement of a lower court or (2) .
  8. Adequate and Independent Grounds Doctrine means the Supreme Court cannot review a state court decision that rested on (1) and (2) adequate state law ground.
  9. Standing is a party must have a concrete interest in the outcome of the claim including (1) (2) causation and (3) redressability.
  10. Justiciability is an ongoing controversy that includes (1) standing (2) or (3) mootness.
  11. Eleventh Amendment bars suits against state governments in federal court unless (1) states waive sovereign immunity (2) (3) federal government brings the suit or (4) bankruptcy proceedings.
  12. Suits against state officers means a state officer can be sued in federal court when (1) a or (2) a claim for money damages paid by the state officer personally.
  13. Political Question Doctrine means federal courts cannot adjudicate constitutional issues such as (1) constitutional power reserved to another branch of government or (2) are .
  14. Original Jurisdiction occurs when the Supreme Court has original jurisdiction over (1) (2) cases involving foreign ambassadors and (3) .
  15. Ripeness is a Plaintiff has been (1) harmed or (2) .
  16. Injury to all is an (1) to (2) none.
  17. Third Party Standing is a Plaintiff asserts the rights of a third party where the Plaintiff was injured when either (1) Plaintiff’s injury adversely affects their relationship with third parties or (2) the .
  18. Mootness is a courts ability to hear only live controversies unless (1) (2) voluntary cessation or (3) .
  19. Final Judgement occurs when the Supreme Court can only hear cases if there has been (1) final judgement of a lower court or (2) .
  20. Adequate and Independent Grounds Doctrine means the Supreme Court cannot review a state court decision that rested on (1) independent and (2) .
  21. Standing is a party must have a concrete interest in the outcome of the claim including (1) injury (2) and (3) .
  22. Justiciability is an ongoing controversy that includes (1) (2) or (3) mootness.
  23. Eleventh Amendment bars suits against state governments in federal court unless (1) (2) suit involves fourteenth amendment (3) federal government brings the suit or (4) .
  24. Suits against state officers means a state officer can be sued in federal court when (1) a or (2) a claim for money damages paid by the state officer personally.
  25. Political Question Doctrine means federal courts cannot adjudicate constitutional issues such as (1) constitutional power reserved to or (2) are .
  26. Original Jurisdiction occurs when the Supreme Court has original jurisdiction over (1) (2) and (3) .
  27. Ripeness is a Plaintiff has been (1) or (2) .
  28. Injury to all is an (1) to (2) .
  29. Third Party Standing is a Plaintiff asserts the rights of a third party where the Plaintiff was injured when either (1) or (2) the .
  30. Mootness is a courts ability to hear only live controversies unless (1) (2) or (3) .
  31. Final Judgement occurs when the Supreme Court can only hear cases if there has been (1) or (2) .
  32. Adequate and Independent Grounds Doctrine means the Supreme Court cannot review a state court decision that rested on (1) and (2) .
  33. Standing is a party must have a concrete interest in the outcome of the claim including (1) (2) and (3) .
  34. Justiciability is an ongoing controversy that includes (1) (2) or (3) .
  35. Eleventh Amendment bars suits against state governments in federal court unless (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  36. Suits against state officers means a state officer can be sued in federal court when (1) a or (2) a .

Legislative Power

0 Correct out of 9
  1. Executing a law requires 1) (2) approval by the President and (3) signed within 10 days excluding Sunday.
  2. Police Power occurs when Congress has no general police power except (1) military (2) (3) land and (4) District of Columbia.
  3. Commerce Clause grants Congress the (1) to (2) regulate interstate commerce.
  4. Intrastate Commerce grants Congress the authority to regulate (1) or (2) economic activity if there is a rational basis to conclude that in the aggregate, it substantially affects interstate commerce.
  5. Taxing and Spending Clause grants Congress the authority to tax and spend in (1) for the (2) general welfare.
  6. Conditional Grants refer to Congress’s ability to induce state regulatory or legislative action through conditional grants provided that (1) condition must be clearly stated (2) and (3) condition cannot be unduly coercive.
  7. Delegation of Powers is the broad authority to delegate legislative powers but can only do so when (1) and (2) not a delegation of a core power.
  8. Tenth Amendment grants all powers (1) and (2) not prohibited by the States are reserved to the States.
  9. Interstate Commerce grants Congress the authority to regulate (1) (2) instrumentalities or (3) economic activities that have a substantial effect on interstate commerce.
  10. Executing a law requires 1) (2) and (3) signed within 10 days excluding Sunday.
  11. Police Power occurs when Congress has no general police power except (1) military (2) (3) land and (4) .
  12. Commerce Clause grants Congress the (1) exclusive authority to (2) .
  13. Intrastate Commerce grants Congress the authority to regulate (1) commercial activity or (2) .
  14. Taxing and Spending Clause grants Congress the authority to tax and spend in (1) anyway deemed necessary for the (2) .
  15. Conditional Grants refer to Congress’s ability to induce state regulatory or legislative action through conditional grants provided that (1) condition must be clearly stated (2) and (3) .
  16. Delegation of Powers is the broad authority to delegate legislative powers but can only do so when (1) and (2) not a delegation of a core power.
  17. Tenth Amendment grants all powers (1) and (2) not prohibited by the States are reserved to the States.
  18. Interstate Commerce grants Congress the authority to regulate (1) (2) or (3) economic activities that have a substantial effect on interstate commerce.
  19. Executing a law requires 1) (2) and (3) .
  20. Police Power occurs when Congress has no general police power except (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  21. Commerce Clause grants Congress the (1) to (2) .
  22. Intrastate Commerce grants Congress the authority to regulate (1) or (2) .
  23. Taxing and Spending Clause grants Congress the authority to tax and spend in (1) for the (2) .
  24. Conditional Grants refer to Congress’s ability to induce state regulatory or legislative action through conditional grants provided that (1) (2) and (3) .
  25. Delegation of Powers is the broad authority to delegate legislative powers but can only do so when (1) and (2) .
  26. Tenth Amendment grants all powers (1) and (2) .
  27. Interstate Commerce grants Congress the authority to regulate (1) (2) or (3) .

Executive Power

0 Correct out of 8
  1. Immunity occurs when the President has absolute immunity from (1) civil suits arising from official actions and (2) .
  2. Presidential Appointment Powers consist of (1) ambassadors (2) and (3) other high-level officers without the consent of the Senate.
  3. Presidential Authority granted by Article II of the United States Constitution allows the President to enter (1) treaties (2) (3) act as Commander in Chief of the military and (4) power to represent the United States in foreign affairs.
  4. Impeachment is the House of Representatives can impeach the (1) President (2) Vice President (3) and (4) other Federal Officers by a majority vote whereupon a trial in the Senate takes place with a 2/3 majority vote for removal from office.
  5. Removal Powers are the power of the Executive Branch to remove a high-level executive officer in which (1) the or (2) Congress can remove high-level executive officers through its impeachment power.
  6. Executive Privilege protects against (1) disclosure of presidential papers and (2) .
  7. Pardon Power is the power retained by the President to pardon those (1) or (2) convicted of federal crimes.
  8. Congressional Appointment Powers vest in (1) inferior officers in the presidency (2) or (3) department or agency leadership.
  9. Immunity occurs when the President has absolute immunity from (1) and (2) taken while in office.
  10. Presidential Appointment Powers consist of (1) (2) and (3) other high-level officers without the consent of the Senate.
  11. Presidential Authority granted by Article II of the United States Constitution allows the President to enter (1) treaties (2) (3) and (4) power to represent the United States in foreign affairs.
  12. Impeachment is the House of Representatives can impeach the (1) President (2) (3) and (4) other Federal Officers by a majority vote whereupon a trial in the Senate takes place with a 2/3 majority vote for removal from office.
  13. Removal Powers are the power of the Executive Branch to remove a high-level executive officer in which (1) the President can remove them freely unless limited by Congress or (2) .
  14. Executive Privilege protects against (1) disclosure of presidential papers and (2) .
  15. Pardon Power is the power retained by the President to pardon those (1) or (2) convicted of federal crimes.
  16. Congressional Appointment Powers vest in (1) inferior officers in the presidency (2) or (3) .
  17. Immunity occurs when the President has absolute immunity from (1) and (2) .
  18. Presidential Appointment Powers consist of (1) (2) and (3) .
  19. Presidential Authority granted by Article II of the United States Constitution allows the President to enter (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  20. Impeachment is the House of Representatives can impeach the (1) (2) Vice (3) and (4) .
  21. Removal Powers are the power of the Executive Branch to remove a high-level executive officer in which (1) the or (2) .
  22. Executive Privilege protects against (1) and (2) .
  23. Pardon Power is the power retained by the President to pardon those (1) or (2) .
  24. Congressional Appointment Powers vest in (1) (2) or (3) .

Federalism

0 Correct out of 7
  1. State Taxation means a state tax must have a substantial connection to the state in such a way that it does not interfere with interstate commerce unless (1) substantial nexus within the state (2) tax is fairly apportioned to the activity connected to the state or (3) .
  2. Privileges and Immunities Clause is a state may not discriminate against non-state residents when it (1) relates to civil liberties (2) commercial activities and (3) .
  3. Dormant Commerce Clause occurs when state and local law regulate local aspects of interstate commerce when not under the commerce power if it does not (1) discriminate against out-of-state competition (2) or (3) regulate wholly out-of-state activity.
  4. Dormant Commerce Clause Exceptions include (1) necessary to an important state interest (2) (3) traditional government function or (4) Congressional approval.
  5. Implied Preemption occurs when a federal law is silent on confliction and will control when (1) mutual exclusivity (2) state law impedes a federal objective or (3) .
  6. Supremacy Clause means a (1) is (2) the supreme law of the land.
  7. Express Preemption means a federal law trumps conflicting (1) state and (2) .
  8. State Taxation means a state tax must have a substantial connection to the state in such a way that it does not interfere with interstate commerce unless (1) (2) or (3) tax must be fairly related to some governmental service or benefit.
  9. Privileges and Immunities Clause is a state may not discriminate against non-state residents when it (1) relates to civil liberties (2) and (3) .
  10. Dormant Commerce Clause occurs when state and local law regulate local aspects of interstate commerce when not under the commerce power if it does not (1) (2) or (3) regulate wholly out-of-state activity.
  11. Dormant Commerce Clause Exceptions include (1) (2) state market participant (3) or (4) Congressional approval.
  12. Implied Preemption occurs when a federal law is silent on confliction and will control when (1) (2) or (3) Congress has a clear intent to legislate exclusivity.
  13. Supremacy Clause means a (1) federal law is (2) the .
  14. Express Preemption means a federal law trumps conflicting (1) and (2) local laws if expressly d.
  15. State Taxation means a state tax must have a substantial connection to the state in such a way that it does not interfere with interstate commerce unless (1) (2) or (3) .
  16. Privileges and Immunities Clause is a state may not discriminate against non-state residents when it (1) (2) and (3) .
  17. Dormant Commerce Clause occurs when state and local law regulate local aspects of interstate commerce when not under the commerce power if it does not (1) (2) or (3) .
  18. Dormant Commerce Clause Exceptions include (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  19. Implied Preemption occurs when a federal law is silent on confliction and will control when (1) (2) or (3) .
  20. Supremacy Clause means a (1) is (2) the .
  21. Express Preemption means a federal law trumps conflicting (1) and (2) local laws if expressly d.

Individual Liberties

0 Correct out of 8
  1. Strict Scrutiny means a law will be upheld if it is (1) a (2) compelling governmental interest.
  2. Government Action Exceptions include a (1) or (2) significant state entanglement between the government and private conduct.
  3. Rational Basis means a law is upheld if it is (1) to a (2) legitimate government interest.
  4. Intermediate Scrutiny means a law will be upheld if it is (2) to an (2) important governmental interest.
  5. Thirteenth Amendment expressly prohibits (1) slavery and (2) .
  6. Fifteenth Amendment are States or Federal government cannot deny any citizen the right to vote on the basis of (1) or (2) color.
  7. Government Action only applies to (1) federal (2) state or (3) .
  8. Fourteenth Amendment are States cannot deprive any person of (1) life (2) liberty or (3) .
  9. Strict Scrutiny means a law will be upheld if it is (1) necessary to achieve a (2) .
  10. Government Action Exceptions include a (1) or (2) significant state entanglement between the government and private conduct.
  11. Rational Basis means a law is upheld if it is (1) to a (2) legitimate government interest.
  12. Intermediate Scrutiny means a law will be upheld if it is (2) substantially related to an (2) .
  13. Thirteenth Amendment expressly prohibits (1) slavery and (2) .
  14. Fifteenth Amendment are States or Federal government cannot deny any citizen the right to vote on the basis of (1) race or (2) .
  15. Government Action only applies to (1) (2) state or (3) .
  16. Fourteenth Amendment are States cannot deprive any person of (1) life (2) or (3) .
  17. Strict Scrutiny means a law will be upheld if it is (1) a (2) .
  18. Government Action Exceptions include a (1) or (2) .
  19. Rational Basis means a law is upheld if it is (1) to a (2) .
  20. Intermediate Scrutiny means a law will be upheld if it is (2) to an (2) .
  21. Thirteenth Amendment expressly prohibits (1) and (2) .
  22. Fifteenth Amendment are States or Federal government cannot deny any citizen the right to vote on the basis of (1) or (2) .
  23. Government Action only applies to (1) (2) or (3) .
  24. Fourteenth Amendment are States cannot deprive any person of (1) (2) or (3) .

Due Process

0 Correct out of 4
  1. Takings Clause is the government shall not take (1) private property (2) for public use (3) .
  2. Ex Post Fact Clause prohibit states and federal governments from passing retroactive laws if either (1) (2) increases punishment for a crime that has been committed or (3) reduces the burden required to convict a person for a crime after it was committed.
  3. Contract Clause is a (1) with (2) existing contractual duties including governmental obligations.
  4. Bill of Attainder prohibit State and Federal governments from passing legislation that punish (1) or (2) group members without a judicial trial.
  5. Takings Clause is the government shall not take (1) (2) for public use (3) .
  6. Ex Post Fact Clause prohibit states and federal governments from passing retroactive laws if either (1) criminally punishes conduct that was lawful when done (2) or (3) .
  7. Contract Clause is a (1) with (2) existing contractual duties including governmental obligations.
  8. Bill of Attainder prohibit State and Federal governments from passing legislation that punish (1) specific individuals or (2) .
  9. Takings Clause is the government shall not take (1) (2) for (3) .
  10. Ex Post Fact Clause prohibit states and federal governments from passing retroactive laws if either (1) (2) or (3) .
  11. Contract Clause is a (1) with (2) .
  12. Bill of Attainder prohibit State and Federal governments from passing legislation that punish (1) or (2) .

Fundamental Rights

0 Correct out of 1
  1. Fundamental Rights under the Right of Privacy include (1) contraception (2) abortion (3) marriage (4) procreation (5) (6) raise your family (7) travel and (8) right to vote.
  2. Fundamental Rights under the Right of Privacy include (1) contraception (2) (3) marriage (4) procreation (5) (6) (7) and (8) right to vote.
  3. Fundamental Rights under the Right of Privacy include (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (7) and (8) .

Equal Protection

0 Correct out of 2
  1. Equal Protection Clause means the government cannot treat similarly situated people or groups of people differently when a (1) law is discriminatory on its face (2) or (3) discriminatory motive is present.
  2. Alienage means a non-United States citizen will be subject to scrutiny unless (1) related to self-government and the democratic process or (2) a .
  3. Equal Protection Clause means the government cannot treat similarly situated people or groups of people differently when a (1) law is discriminatory on its face (2) or (3) .
  4. Alienage means a non-United States citizen will be subject to scrutiny unless (1) related to self-government and the democratic process or (2) a .
  5. Equal Protection Clause means the government cannot treat similarly situated people or groups of people differently when a (1) (2) or (3) .
  6. Alienage means a non-United States citizen will be subject to scrutiny unless (1) or (2) a .

Freedom of Speech

0 Correct out of 12
  1. Free Exercise Clause means the government is prohibited from punishing someone solely on the basis of that person’s (1) religious beliefs or (2) .
  2. Incitement of Unlawful Activity occurs when fighting words or true threats are restricted if (1) there is a substantial likelihood that the speech will bring imminent illegal activity and (2) .
  3. Freedom of Association is the right to participate with others who have similar (1) political (2) or (3) cultural beliefs.
  4. Private Forums are private properties can restrict speech in (1) a or (2) non-public forum in which speech is reasonably related to some legitimate interest and viewpoint neutral.
  5. Commercial Speech is the Governmental regulation of unprotected commercial speech if (1) false (2) misleading (3) (4) illegal or (5) concerns illegal activity.
  6. Symbolic Speech is speech that refers to expressive or communicative conduct will be restricted if (1) the regulation furthers an important government interest (2) that and (3) the impact on speech is no greater than necessary to further the important governmental interest.
  7. Overbreadth Law is unconstitutional if it regulates (1) substantially more speech than the (2) .
  8. Public Forums means government property is constitutionally required to make speech available if it is (1) (2) narrowly tailored to serve an important governmental purpose and (3) leave open adequate, alternative channels of communication.
  9. First Amendment expressly protects the freedom of expression including (1) speech (2) press (3) and (4) association.
  10. Vague Law is unconstitutional if a reasonable person cannot tell whether speech is (1) or (2) permitted.
  11. Obscenity is the Governmental regulation of lesser protected speech if (1) (2) patently offensive in its sexual portrayal and (3) taken as a whole lacks literary, artistic, or scientific merit.
  12. Establishment Clause is the governmental prohibition to (1) establish (2) or (3) give preference to one religion over another.
  13. Free Exercise Clause means the government is prohibited from punishing someone solely on the basis of that person’s (1) religious beliefs or (2) .
  14. Incitement of Unlawful Activity occurs when fighting words or true threats are restricted if (1) there is a and (2) speech is aimed at causing imminent illegal activity.
  15. Freedom of Association is the right to participate with others who have similar (1) (2) religious or (3) .
  16. Private Forums are private properties can restrict speech in (1) a or (2) non-public forum in which speech is reasonably related to some legitimate interest and viewpoint neutral.
  17. Commercial Speech is the Governmental regulation of unprotected commercial speech if (1) (2) misleading (3) deceptive (4) or (5) concerns activity.
  18. Symbolic Speech is speech that refers to expressive or communicative conduct will be restricted if (1) the regulation furthers an important government interest (2) that and (3) the .
  19. Overbreadth Law is unconstitutional if it regulates (1) substantially more speech than the (2) .
  20. Public Forums means government property is constitutionally required to make speech available if it is (1) (2) narrowly tailored to serve an important governmental purpose and (3) .
  21. First Amendment expressly protects the freedom of expression including (1) (2) press (3) assembly and (4) .
  22. Vague Law is unconstitutional if a reasonable person cannot tell whether speech is (1) or (2) permitted.
  23. Obscenity is the Governmental regulation of lesser protected speech if (1) (2) patently offensive in its sexual portrayal and (3) .
  24. Establishment Clause is the governmental prohibition to (1) (2) sponsor a religion or (3) .
  25. Free Exercise Clause means the government is prohibited from punishing someone solely on the basis of that person’s (1) or (2) .
  26. Incitement of Unlawful Activity occurs when fighting words or true threats are restricted if (1) there is a and (2) .
  27. Freedom of Association is the right to participate with others who have similar (1) (2) or (3) .
  28. Private Forums are private properties can restrict speech in (1) a or (2) .
  29. Commercial Speech is the Governmental regulation of unprotected commercial speech if (1) (2) (3) (4) or (5) concerns activity.
  30. Symbolic Speech is speech that refers to expressive or communicative conduct will be restricted if (1) the (2) that and (3) the .
  31. Overbreadth Law is unconstitutional if it regulates (1) than the (2) .
  32. Public Forums means government property is constitutionally required to make speech available if it is (1) (2) and (3) .
  33. First Amendment exly protects the freedom of exion including (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  34. Vague Law is unconstitutional if a reasonable person cannot tell whether speech is (1) or (2) permitted.
  35. Obscenity is the Governmental regulation of lesser protected speech if (1) (2) and (3) .
  36. Establishment Clause is the governmental prohibition to (1) (2) or (3) .
  • 4th Amendment
  • Warrantless Searches
  • Exclusionary Rules
  • Fifth Amendment
  • 6th Amendment
  • Trial Procedures
  • 8th Amendment

4th Amendment

0 Correct out of 8
  1. Search Warrant requires (1) (2) precise on its face and (3) signed by a neutral detached magistrate.
  2. Detention is a governmental seizure of the person which could be in the form of (1) stop & frisk (2) automobile stop (3) stationhouse detainment (4) or (5) detainment of occupants of a premise.
  3. Automobile Stop occurs when the police have (1) that (2) a law was violated.
  4. Probable Cause requires trustworthy facts or knowledge sufficient to a reasonable person to believe that the individual has (1) committed the crime or (2) .
  5. Validity of Search & Seizure must be viewed under reasonableness under the Fourth Amendment unless (1) governmental conduct (2) Defendant has standing (3) or (4) the presence of exigent circumstances.
  6. Police Checkpoints to search vehicles must be (1) and (2) serve a purpose related to automobiles.
  7. Arrest occurs when an individual is taken into custody for a (1) or (2) interrogation.
  8. Reasonable Expectation of Privacy occurs when the individual has exhibited a (1) subjective expectation of privacy and (2) .
  9. Search Warrant requires (1) (2) and (3) signed by a neutral detached magistrate.
  10. Detention is a governmental seizure of the person which could be in the form of (1) stop & frisk (2) (3) stationhouse detainment (4) or (5) .
  11. Automobile Stop occurs when the police have (1) that (2) a law was violated.
  12. Probable Cause requires trustworthy facts or knowledge sufficient to a reasonable person to believe that the individual has (1) or (2) planning to commit the crime.
  13. Validity of Search & Seizure must be viewed under reasonableness under the Fourth Amendment unless (1) (2) Defendant has standing (3) or (4) the presence of exigent circumstances.
  14. Police Checkpoints to search vehicles must be (1) and (2) serve a purpose related to automobiles.
  15. Arrest occurs when an individual is taken into custody for a (1) or (2) interrogation.
  16. Reasonable Expectation of Privacy occurs when the individual has exhibited a (1) subjective expectation of privacy and (2) .
  17. Search Warrant requires (1) (2) and (3) .
  18. Detention is a governmental seizure of the person which could be in the form of (1) (2) (3) (4) or (5) .
  19. Automobile Stop occurs when the police have (1) that (2) a .
  20. Probable Cause requires trustworthy facts or knowledge sufficient to a reasonable person to believe that the individual has (1) or (2) .
  21. Validity of Search & Seizure must be viewed under reasonableness under the Fourth Amendment unless (1) (2) (3) or (4) the .
  22. Police Checkpoints to search vehicles must be (1) and (2) .
  23. Arrest occurs when an individual is taken into custody for a (1) or (2) .
  24. Reasonable Expectation of Privacy occurs when the individual has exhibited a (1) and (2) .

Warrantless Searches

0 Correct out of 9
  1. Plain View Searches occurs when the police search any place where criminal activity is present when viewing if (1) legitimately on premise (2) criminal activity is immediately apparent and (3) .
  2. Administrative Searches are conducted by Government agencies for (1) or (2) inspections of highly regulated business or industries.
  3. Consent to Search occurs when the police search anything if (1) consent was voluntary (2) and (3) consenting person has authority to do so.
  4. Stop & Frisk occurs when the police detain a person for investigative purposes if (1) reasonable suspicion of criminally activity is a foot (2) and (3) frisk is limited to plain feel of weapons or contraband.
  5. Automobile Search occurs when the police search a vehicle if (1) probable cause exists and (2) .
  6. Search Incident to Lawful Arrest occurs when the police may search a lawfully arrested person in their immediate surrounding without a warrant if (1) (2) search was contemporaneous with the arrest and (3) search was limited to area within suspects reach or movement.
  7. Public School Searches occur when school officials have (1) reasonable suspicion (2) moderate chance at finding evidence (3) and (4) search is not overly intrusive.
  8. Exigent Circumstances occurs when the police search and seize evidence without a warrant if (1) hot pursuit (2) or (3) evanescent evidence.
  9. Electronic Surveillance requires a warrant when (1) probable cause that a specific crime has occurred or likely to occur (2) names of suspects subject to surveillance (3) describe with particularity the subject of conversations that are surveilled (4) limited to short time periods and (5) .
  10. Plain View Searches occurs when the police search any place where criminal activity is present when viewing if (1) (2) and (3) access to the items were lawful.
  11. Administrative Searches are conducted by Government agencies for (1) routine searches or (2) .
  12. Consent to Search occurs when the police search anything if (1) (2) and (3) consenting person has authority to do so.
  13. Stop & Frisk occurs when the police detain a person for investigative purposes if (1) (2) length of detainment is no longer than necessary and (3) .
  14. Automobile Search occurs when the police search a vehicle if (1) probable cause exists and (2) .
  15. Search Incident to Lawful Arrest occurs when the police may search a lawfully arrested person in their immediate surrounding without a warrant if (1) (2) and (3) search was limited to area within suspects reach or movement.
  16. Public School Searches occur when school officials have (1) (2) moderate chance at finding evidence (3) procedure for searching is reasonably related to the objective and (4) .
  17. Exigent Circumstances occurs when the police search and seize evidence without a warrant if (1) (2) emergency aid or (3) .
  18. Electronic Surveillance requires a warrant when (1) probable cause that a specific crime has occurred or likely to occur (2) (3) describe with particularity the subject of conversations that are surveilled (4) and (5) .
  19. Plain View Searches occurs when the police search any place where criminal activity is present when viewing if (1) (2) and (3) .
  20. Administrative Searches are conducted by Government agencies for (1) or (2) .
  21. Consent to Search occurs when the police search anything if (1) (2) and (3) .
  22. Stop & Frisk occurs when the police detain a person for investigative purposes if (1) (2) and (3) .
  23. Automobile Search occurs when the police search a vehicle if (1) and (2) .
  24. Search Incident to Lawful Arrest occurs when the police may search a lawfully arrested person in their immediate surrounding without a warrant if (1) (2) and (3) .
  25. Public School Searches occur when school officials have (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  26. Exigent Circumstances occurs when the police search and seize evidence without a warrant if (1) (2) or (3) .
  27. Electronic Surveillance requires a warrant when (1) (2) (3) (4) and (5) .

Exclusionary Rules

0 Correct out of 2
  1. Exclusionary Rule is illegally obtained evidence is excluded against the defendant unless (1) government had an independent source to obtain the evidence (2) or (3) attenuation.
  2. Exclusionary Rule doesn’t apply to (1) (2) parole or civil proceedings (3) violations of knock and announce rules or (4) evidence seized as a result of a Miranda violation.
  3. Exclusionary Rule is illegally obtained evidence is excluded against the defendant unless (1) (2) or (3) attenuation.
  4. Exclusionary Rule doesn’t apply to (1) grand jury proceedings (2) parole or civil proceedings (3) or (4) .
  5. Exclusionary Rule is illegally obtained evidence is excluded against the defendant unless (1) (2) or (3) .
  6. Exclusionary Rule doesn’t apply to (1) (2) (3) or (4) .

Fifth Amendment

0 Correct out of 7
  1. Retrial occurs when (1) hung jury (2) manifest necessity (3) successful appeal (4) or (5) separate sovereigns.
  2. Waving Miranda occurs when (1) (2) voluntary and (3) intelligently made.
  3. Double Jeopardy occurs when the defendant cannot be retried for the same offense if (1) jury is sworn in (2) or (3) a court accepts a plea agreement.
  4. Fifth Amendment of the United States Constitution protects (1) (2) in any proceeding (3) whom have the right to not respond to questions that might incriminate themselves.
  5. Invoking Miranda occurs when an individual (1) invokes the right to remain silent or (2) .
  6. Miranda Warnings apply to individuals when (1) in custody and (2) .
  7. Miranda Warnings is the (1) (2) right to an attorney and (3) if they cannot afford an attorney, one will be appointed to them.
  8. Retrial occurs when (1) (2) manifest necessity (3) (4) breach of a plea agreement or (5) .
  9. Waving Miranda occurs when (1) (2) voluntary and (3) .
  10. Double Jeopardy occurs when the defendant cannot be retried for the same offense if (1) (2) first witness is sworn in or (3) a .
  11. Fifth Amendment of the United States Constitution protects (1) any person (2) in (3) .
  12. Invoking Miranda occurs when an individual (1) or (2) right to their fifth amendment right to counsel.
  13. Miranda Warnings apply to individuals when (1) and (2) interrogated.
  14. Miranda Warnings is the (1) (2) right to an attorney and (3) .
  15. Retrial occurs when (1) (2) (3) (4) or (5) .
  16. Waving Miranda occurs when (1) (2) and (3) .
  17. Double Jeopardy occurs when the defendant cannot be retried for the same offense if (1) (2) or (3) a .
  18. Fifth Amendment of the United States Constitution protects (1) (2) in (3) .
  19. Invoking Miranda occurs when an individual (1) or (2) .
  20. Miranda Warnings apply to individuals when (1) and (2) .
  21. Miranda Warnings is the (1) (2) and (3) .

6th Amendment

0 Correct out of 1
  1. Sixth Amendment Right to Counsel attaches automatically when (1) charges have been filed and (2) .
  2. Sixth Amendment Right to Counsel attaches automatically when (1) charges have been filed and (2) .
  3. Sixth Amendment Right to Counsel attaches automatically when (1) and (2) .

Trial Procedures

0 Correct out of 5
  1. Plea Bargain occurs when the Defendant’s plea is (1) (2) intelligently made and (3) understands the nature of their charge including critical elements, maximum penalty, right to plead not guilty, and right to a jury trial.
  2. Grand Jury Proceedings are (1) required in federal court (2) held in secret where (3) (4) no right to Miranda warning and (5) no right to counsel.
  3. Jury Requirements consist of (1) at least 6 jurors (2) unanimous decision (3) (4) right to an impartial jury and (5) afforded peremptory challenges.
  4. Admissions must be made (1) voluntarily and (2) .
  5. Confrontation Clause grants every Defendant the right to confront the witnesses when (1) an out of court statement is (2) offered against the Defendant (3) in a criminal case and (4) .
  6. Plea Bargain occurs when the Defendant’s plea is (1) (2) intelligently made and (3) .
  7. Grand Jury Proceedings are (1) (2) held in secret where (3) (4) no right to Miranda warning and (5) .
  8. Jury Requirements consist of (1) at least 6 jurors (2) (3) jury pool must be a representative cross-section of the community (4) and (5) .
  9. Admissions must be made (1) and (2) based on the totality of the circumstances.
  10. Confrontation Clause grants every Defendant the right to confront the witnesses when (1) an out of court statement is (2) offered against the Defendant (3) and (4) .
  11. Plea Bargain occurs when the Defendant’s plea is (1) (2) and (3) .
  12. Grand Jury Proceedings are (1) (2) (3) (4) and (5) .
  13. Jury Requirements consist of (1) (2) (3) (4) and (5) .
  14. Admissions must be made (1) and (2) .
  15. Confrontation Clause grants every Defendant the right to confront the witnesses when (1) (2) (3) and (4) .

8th Amendment

0 Correct out of 2
  1. Death Penalty is only imposed if the victim dies as a result of the Defendant’s crime unless (1) the Defendant was a minor when the crime was committed (2) (3) insane at the time of the criminal execution or (4) conviction was for felony murder when Defendant was not a participant or didn’t act with depraved heart.
  2. Cruel and Unusual Punishment consists of (1) any cruel or (2) unusual punishment is banned that is (3) .
  3. Death Penalty is only imposed if the victim dies as a result of the Defendant’s crime unless (1) the Defendant was a minor when the crime was committed (2) (3) or (4) conviction was for felony murder when Defendant was not a participant or didn’t act with depraved heart.
  4. Cruel and Unusual Punishment consists of (1) or (2) unusual punishment is banned that is (3) .
  5. Death Penalty is only imposed if the victim dies as a result of the Defendant’s crime unless (1) the Defendant was a (2) (3) or (4) .
  6. Cruel and Unusual Punishment consists of (1) or (2) is banned that is (3) .
  • Personal Jurisdiction
  • Subject Matter Jurisdiction
  • Venue 
  • Service of Process
  • Interlocutory Injunctions
  • Pleadings and Motions
  • Joining Claims
  • Class Actions
  • Discovery
  • Pretrial, Trial, and Appeal 

Personal Jurisdiction

0 Correct out of 6
  1. Fairness Factors requires Due Process to be fair when (1) relatedness of contacts and claims (2) and (3) state interest.
  2. Personal Jurisdiction is the court’s ability to exercise authority over a (1) or (2) ’s property.
  3. Personal Jurisdiction is lawful if (1) service of process is done in the forum state (2) domiciled in the forum state (3) or (4) Defendant’s actions fall within state’s long-arm statutes.
  4. Personal Jurisdiction consists of (1) in persona (2) or (3) quasi .
  5. Notice requires that Defendant must be sufficiently notified of a pending lawsuit in which notice must be reasonably calculated under the circumstances to apprise interested parties of the (1) and (2) afford an opportunity to be heard.
  6. Minimum Contacts with the forum state must be (1) present (2) such that it doesn’t offend the traditional notions of fair play and (3) .
  7. Fairness Factors requires Due Process to be fair when (1) relatedness of contacts and claims (2) and (3) .
  8. Personal Jurisdiction is the court’s ability to exercise authority over a (1) party or (2) .
  9. Personal Jurisdiction is lawful if (1) (2) domiciled in the forum state (3) consent to jurisdiction or (4) .
  10. Personal Jurisdiction consists of (1) in persona (2) or (3) quasi .
  11. Notice requires that Defendant must be sufficiently notified of a pending lawsuit in which notice must be reasonably calculated under the circumstances to apprise interested parties of the (1) action and (2) .
  12. Minimum Contacts with the forum state must be (1) present (2) and (3) .
  13. Fairness Factors requires Due Process to be fair when (1) (2) and (3) .
  14. Personal Jurisdiction is the court’s ability to exercise authority over a (1) or (2) ’s property.
  15. Personal Jurisdiction is lawful if (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  16. Personal Jurisdiction consists of (1) (2) or (3) quasi .
  17. Notice requires that Defendant must be sufficiently notified of a pending lawsuit in which notice must be reasonably calculated under the circumstances to apprise interested parties of the (1) and (2) .
  18. Minimum Contacts with the forum state must be (1) (2) and (3) .

Subject Matter Jurisdiction

0 Correct out of 15
  1. Diversity Jurisdiction is Federal courts have subject matter jurisdiction over (1) and (2) amount in controversy exceeds $75,000.
  2. Domicile factors include (1) and (2) intent to remain in that state.
  3. Subject Matter Jurisdiction is Federal courts must have authority over the claim in question with either (1) Diversity Jurisdiction (2) (3) Supplemental Jurisdiction or (4) Removal Jurisdiction
  4. Aggregation is the Plaintiff’s compiling of multiple claims against a (1) single Defendant (2) .
  5. Business Corporations are citizens of every state where (1) and (2) where the corporation maintains a principal place of business.
  6. Citizenship for Complete Diversity is every Plaintiff must (1) be of diverse citizenship (2) .
  7. Removal Jurisdiction is the Defendant can remove a case, other than diversity jurisdiction filed in Defendants home state, if (1) federal court would have had subject matter jurisdiction (2) all Defendants agree and (3) .
  8. Amount in Controversy is the Plaintiff’s complaint must make a (1) and (2) exceeds $75,000 excluding interest and costs.
  9. Erie Doctrine is the federal courts application of state substantive law and federal procedural law when (1) there is a valid federal law that is on point and directly conflicts with state law or (2) if no federal law is on point, then apply either state law .
  10. Exclusive Jurisdiction is when Federal courts have exclusive jurisdiction over certain types of claims including (1) bankruptcy (2) (3) federal anti-trust claims or (4) postal matters.
  11. Federal Question is when Federal courts have jurisdiction over proper pleaded claims arising under federal law if the (1) federal question appears on the face of the complaint and (2) .
  12. Natural Citizens are citizens of the state where (1) they are (2) at the time of the lawsuit.
  13. State Substantive Law will always govern (1) elements of a claim or defense (2) statute of limitations (3) or (4) rules for tolling statute of limitations.
  14. Unincorporated Businesses are Citizens of all states in which (1) or (2) member is a citizen.
  15. Supplemental Jurisdiction allows federal courts to hear additional claims that on their own would not meet Diversity or Federal Question Jurisdiction if (1) and (2) each additional claim must share a common nucleus of operative fact with an existing claim.
  16. Diversity Jurisdiction is Federal courts have subject matter jurisdiction over (1) controversies between citizens of different states and (2) .
  17. Domicile factors include (1) physical presence in the state and (2) .
  18. Subject Matter Jurisdiction is Federal courts must have authority over the claim in question with either (1) Diversity Jurisdiction (2) (3) Supplemental Jurisdiction or (4)
  19. Aggregation is the Plaintiff’s compiling of multiple claims against a (1) single Defendant (2) .
  20. Business Corporations are citizens of every state where (1) and (2) where the corporation maintains a principal place of business.
  21. Citizenship for Complete Diversity is every Plaintiff must (1) be of diverse citizenship (2) .
  22. Removal Jurisdiction is the Defendant can remove a case, other than diversity jurisdiction filed in Defendants home state, if (1) (2) all Defendants agree and (3) .
  23. Amount in Controversy is the Plaintiff’s complaint must make a (1) and (2) exceeds $75,000 excluding interest and costs.
  24. Erie Doctrine is the federal courts application of state substantive law and federal procedural law when (1) there is a valid federal law that is on point and directly conflicts with state law or (2) if no federal law is on point, then apply either state law .
  25. Exclusive Jurisdiction is when Federal courts have exclusive jurisdiction over certain types of claims including (1) (2) intellectual property (3) or (4) postal matters.
  26. Federal Question is when Federal courts have jurisdiction over proper pleaded claims arising under federal law if the (1) and (2) not based on allegations or potential defenses.
  27. Natural Citizens are citizens of the state where (1) they are (2) at the time of the lawsuit.
  28. State Substantive Law will always govern (1) (2) statute of limitations (3) conflict or choice of law rules or (4) .
  29. Unincorporated Businesses are Citizens of all states in which (1) or (2) member is a citizen.
  30. Supplemental Jurisdiction allows federal courts to hear additional claims that on their own would not meet Diversity or Federal Question Jurisdiction if (1) case is already in federal court and (2) each additional claim must .
  31. Diversity Jurisdiction is Federal courts have subject matter jurisdiction over (1) and (2) .
  32. Domicile factors include (1) and (2) .
  33. Subject Matter Jurisdiction is Federal courts must have authority over the claim in question with either (1) (2) (3) or (4)
  34. Aggregation is the Plaintiff’s compiling of multiple claims against a (1) (2) .
  35. Business Corporations are citizens of every state where (1) and (2) .
  36. Citizenship for Complete Diversity is every Plaintiff must (1) be of (2) .
  37. Removal Jurisdiction is the Defendant can remove a case, other than diversity jurisdiction filed in Defendants home state, if (1) (2) and (3) .
  38. Amount in Controversy is the Plaintiff’s complaint must make a (1) and (2) .
  39. Erie Doctrine is the federal courts application of state substantive law and federal procedural law when (1) there is a or (2) if no federal law is on point, then apply either state law .
  40. Exclusive Jurisdiction is when Federal courts have exclusive jurisdiction over certain types of claims including (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  41. Federal Question is when Federal courts have jurisdiction over proper pleaded claims arising under federal law if the (1) and (2) .
  42. Natural Citizens are citizens of the state where (1) they are (2) at the .
  43. State Substantive Law will always govern (1) (2) (3) or (4) rules for tolling .
  44. Unincorporated Businesses are Citizens of all states in which (1) or (2) .
  45. Supplemental Jurisdiction allows federal courts to hear additional claims that on their own would not meet Diversity or Federal Question Jurisdiction if (1) and (2) each additional claim must .

Venue

0 Correct out of 2
  1. Venue is proper in the judicial district where the Plaintiff brings the suit when (1) (2) location of claim (3) location of property or (4) Defendant is subject to Personal Jurisdiction.
  2. Venue Transfer is a case may be transferred from one federal court to another federal court, unless venue is proper, if (1) or (2) all parties consent to the transfer.
  3. Venue is proper in the judicial district where the Plaintiff brings the suit when (1) (2) location of claim (3) or (4) Defendant is subject to Personal Jurisdiction.
  4. Venue Transfer is a case may be transferred from one federal court to another federal court, unless venue is proper, if (1) the case could have been filed there or (2) .
  5. Venue is proper in the judicial district where the Plaintiff brings the suit when (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  6. Venue Transfer is a case may be transferred from one federal court to another federal court, unless venue is proper, if (1) or (2) .

Service of Process

0 Correct out of 4
  1. Any individual may serve (1) who are 18 or older and (2) a .
  2. Waiver is when the Plaintiff requests that Defendant waive service of process by (1) and (2) a formal request to waive service.
  3. Acceptable Methods of Service of Process may be completed by (1) personal service (2) (3) service upon Defendants authorized agent (4) mail or (5) any method permitted under state law.
  4. Service of Process is the delivery to the Defendant of the (1) summons and (2) .
  5. Any individual may serve (1) who are 18 or older and (2) a .
  6. Waiver is when the Plaintiff requests that Defendant waive service of process by (1) and (2) a formal request to waive service.
  7. Acceptable Methods of Service of Process may be completed by (1) personal service (2) (3) service upon (4) mail or (5) .
  8. Service of Process is the delivery to the Defendant of the (1) summons and (2) .
  9. Any individual may serve (1) and (2) a .
  10. Waiver is when the Plaintiff requests that Defendant waive service of process by (1) and (2) a .
  11. Acceptable Methods of Service of Process may be completed by (1) (2) (3) service upon (4) or (5) .
  12. Service of Process is the delivery to the Defendant of the (1) and (2) .

Interlocutory Injunctions

0 Correct out of 2
  1. Temporary Restraining Order are issued by a court when (1) (2) irreparable injury to a party (3) that will result before a hearing can be heard and (4) lasts up to 14 days from issuance.
  2. Preliminary Injunctions are a court order requiring a person to do or to cease doing something may be granted if (1) the and (2) likely hood of success on the merits.
  3. Temporary Restraining Order are issued by a court when (1) (2) irreparable injury to a party (3) that will result before a hearing can be heard and (4) .
  4. Preliminary Injunctions are a court order requiring a person to do or to cease doing something may be granted if (1) the moving the party will suffer irreparable harm that does not outweigh harm to the adverse party and (2) .
  5. Temporary Restraining Order are issued by a court when (1) (2) (3) that will result and (4) .
  6. Preliminary Injunctions are a court order requiring a person to do or to cease doing something may be granted if (1) the and (2) .

Pleadings and Motions

0 Correct out of 16
  1. Motion for a more definitive statement is the Defendant requires more information to answer the complaint if the complaint is (1) vague or (2) .
  2. Relation Back Doctrine applies when a party amends a pleading to (1) add a new claim (2) add or substitute a new Defendant or (3) .
  3. Parties may amend their pleadings once as a matter of course if (1) within 21 days after service or (2) if the pleading is one which .
  4. Complaint is the initial pleading filed by the Plaintiff to begin the lawsuit which requires (1) (2) statement of the claim and (3) demand for judgement.
  5. Cross Claims are a claim asserted by a co-party that have (1) independent jurisdiction and (2) same transaction or (3) .
  6. Motion to strike is the Defendant request to strike any (1) redundant (2) (3) impertinent or (4) scandalous material in the complaint.
  7. An amendment will relate back to a new or substituted Defendant if (1) the amendment concerns the same or (2) occurs within 90 days of filing of the original pleading when the Defendant knew or should have known about the filing.
  8. Rule 12 Motions are a Defendant’s response to the validity of Plaintiff’s complaint consisting of (1) lack of subject matter jurisdiction (2) lack of personal jurisdiction (3) improper venue (4) insufficiency of process (5) insufficiency of service of process (6) or (7) failure to join a necessary party.
  9. Answer is a response to the complaint in which (1) Defendant states defenses to each claim asserted and (2) of Plaintiff’s complaint.
  10. An amendment will relate back to a new claim if (1) same conduct (2) or (3) occurrence as the original pleading.
  11. Motion for judgement of the pleadings is a (1) (2) prior to a verdict (3) resulting from no material issue of facts exists and (4) one party is entitled to judgement as a matter of law.
  12. Parties may only amend without a right when (1) or (2) leave of court.
  13. Compulsory Counterclaim is a clam by the Defendant against the Plaintiff that arises from (1) the or (2) occurrence as any of the Plaintiffs claims.
  14. Rule 11 certifications require the attorney or pro se party, to the best of their ability, certify that the (1) filing is not for an improper purpose (2) non-frivolous legal contentions made are warranted by law and (3) .
  15. Permissive Counterclaim is a claim by the Defendant against the Plaintiff that does not arise from (1) the same transaction or (2) .
  16. Rules 11 sanctions require (1) safe harbor for 21 days to allow the opposing party to remedy the issue and (2) a .
  17. Motion for a more definitive statement is the Defendant requires more information to answer the complaint if the complaint is (1) vague or (2) .
  18. Relation Back Doctrine applies when a party amends a pleading to (1) (2) add or substitute a new Defendant or (3) .
  19. Parties may amend their pleadings once as a matter of course if (1) or (2) if the pleading is one which requires a response within 21 days.
  20. Complaint is the initial pleading filed by the Plaintiff to begin the lawsuit which requires (1) statement of jurisdiction (2) and (3) .
  21. Cross Claims are a claim asserted by a co-party that have (1) and (2) or (3) occurrence.
  22. Motion to strike is the Defendant request to strike any (1) redundant (2) immaterial (3) or (4) .
  23. An amendment will relate back to a new or substituted Defendant if (1) the amendment concerns the same conduct, transaction, or occurrence or (2) when the Defendant knew or should have known about the filing.
  24. Rule 12 Motions are a Defendant’s response to the validity of Plaintiff’s complaint consisting of (1) (2) (3) (4) insufficiency of process (5) insufficiency of service of process (6) failure to state a claim or (7) .
  25. Answer is a response to the complaint in which (1) Defendant states defenses to each claim asserted and (2) of Plaintiff’s complaint.
  26. An amendment will relate back to a new claim if (1) (2) same transaction or (3) .
  27. Motion for judgement of the pleadings is a (1) judgement rendered by the court (2) prior to a verdict (3) resulting from and (4) .
  28. Parties may only amend without a right when (1) or (2) leave of court.
  29. Compulsory Counterclaim is a clam by the Defendant against the Plaintiff that arises from (1) the or (2) occurrence as any of the Plaintiffs claims.
  30. Rule 11 certifications require the attorney or pro se party, to the best of their ability, certify that the (1) (2) non-frivolous legal contentions made are warranted by law and (3) .
  31. Permissive Counterclaim is a claim by the Defendant against the Plaintiff that does not arise from (1) the or (2) occurrence.
  32. Rules 11 sanctions require (1) safe harbor for 21 days to allow the opposing party to remedy the issue and (2) a .
  33. Motion for a more definitive statement is the Defendant requires more information to answer the complaint if the complaint is (1) or (2) .
  34. Relation Back Doctrine applies when a party amends a pleading to (1) (2) or (3) .
  35. Parties may amend their pleadings once as a matter of course if (1) or (2) if the pleading is one which .
  36. Complaint is the initial pleading filed by the Plaintiff to begin the lawsuit which requires (1) (2) and (3) .
  37. Cross Claims are a claim asserted by a co-party that have (1) and (2) or (3) .
  38. Motion to strike is the Defendant request to strike any (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  39. An amendment will relate back to a new or substituted Defendant if (1) the amendment concerns the same or (2) when the Defendant knew or should have known about the filing.
  40. Rule 12 Motions are a Defendant’s response to the validity of Plaintiff’s complaint consisting of (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) or (7) .
  41. Answer is a response to the complaint in which (1) and (2) of Plaintiff’s complaint.
  42. An amendment will relate back to a new claim if (1) (2) or (3) .
  43. Motion for judgement of the pleadings is a (1) (2) (3) resulting from and (4) .
  44. Parties may only amend without a right when (1) or (2) .
  45. Compulsory Counterclaim is a clam by the Defendant against the Plaintiff that arises from (1) the or (2) .
  46. Rule 11 certifications require the attorney or pro se party, to the best of their ability, certify that the (1) (2) and (3) .
  47. Permissive Counterclaim is a claim by the Defendant against the Plaintiff that does not arise from (1) the or (2) .
  48. Rules 11 sanctions require (1) to allow the opposing party to remedy the issue and (2) a .

Joining Claims

0 Correct out of 9
  1. Rule 22 Interpleader allows a property holder to initiate a suit to compel claimants to the property to litigate a dispute if (1) Federal Question Jurisdiction or Complete Diversity Jurisdiction (2) and (3) no deposit with the court required.
  2. Permissive Intervention is allowed at the court’s discretion if either (1) absentee has a claim or defense that shares a common question of law with the underlying action (2) or (3) absentee is a governmental officer or agency.
  3. Permissive Joinder is when the Plaintiff seeks to join non-parties as co-plaintiffs or co-defendants if (1) the event is of the same transaction or occurrence (2) and (3) court has jurisdiction over parties and claims.
  4. Intervention as a right is when a non-party must join an already pending suit if either (1) or (2) absent non-party has an unconditional statutory right.
  5. Necessary Parties are absent parties may be forced to join the suit when either (1) without absentee court cannot grant complete relief (2) absentee’s legal interest may be impaired or (3) .
  6. Indispensable Party is a necessary party who cannot join in which the court could dismiss the claim after evaluating (1) alternative forum availability (2) likelihood of prejudice (3) shape potential relief to avoid prejudice and (4) .
  7. Impleader allows Defendant to join a non-party who may be liable to Defendant for all, or part of the claim brought by Plaintiff against the original Defendant if (1) Defendant impleaded a third-party defendant by filing a complaint within 14 days after serving their answer (2) and (3) court must have personal jurisdiction over impleaded party.
  8. Statutory Interpleader allows a property holder to initiate a suit to compel claimants to the property to litigate a dispute if (1) less than or equal to $500 (2) minimal diversity is present (3) and (4) nationwide service.
  9. Necessary Parties must be under (1) and (2) joining the parties will not destroy diversity jurisdiction.
  10. Rule 22 Interpleader allows a property holder to initiate a suit to compel claimants to the property to litigate a dispute if (1) (2) and (3) no deposit with the court required.
  11. Permissive Intervention is allowed at the court’s discretion if either (1) (2) or (3) absentee is a governmental officer or agency.
  12. Permissive Joinder is when the Plaintiff seeks to join non-parties as co-plaintiffs or co-defendants if (1) the event is of the same transaction or occurrence (2) and (3) .
  13. Intervention as a right is when a non-party must join an already pending suit if either (1) absent non-party’s interest will be harmed if not joined or (2) .
  14. Necessary Parties are absent parties may be forced to join the suit when either (1) (2) or (3) absentee has an interest that creates a risk of multiple or inconsistent rulings.
  15. Indispensable Party is a necessary party who cannot join in which the court could dismiss the claim after evaluating (1) alternative forum availability (2) likelihood of prejudice (3) and (4) .
  16. Impleader allows Defendant to join a non-party who may be liable to Defendant for all, or part of the claim brought by Plaintiff against the original Defendant if (1) Defendant impleaded a third-party defendant by filing a complaint (2) and (3) court must have personal jurisdiction over impleaded party.
  17. Statutory Interpleader allows a property holder to initiate a suit to compel claimants to the property to litigate a dispute if (1) (2) (3) deposit property with the court and (4) nationwide service.
  18. Necessary Parties must be under (1) and (2) joining the parties will not destroy diversity jurisdiction.
  19. Rule 22 Interpleader allows a property holder to initiate a suit to compel claimants to the property to litigate a dispute if (1) (2) and (3) .
  20. Permissive Intervention is allowed at the court’s discretion if either (1) (2) or (3) .
  21. Permissive Joinder is when the Plaintiff seeks to join non-parties as co-plaintiffs or co-defendants if (1) the event is of the (2) and (3) .
  22. Intervention as a right is when a non-party must join an already pending suit if either (1) or (2) .
  23. Necessary Parties are absent parties may be forced to join the suit when either (1) (2) or (3) .
  24. Indispensable Party is a necessary party who cannot join in which the court could dismiss the claim after evaluating (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  25. Impleader allows Defendant to join a non-party who may be liable to Defendant for all, or part of the claim brought by Plaintiff against the original Defendant if (1) Defendant impleaded a third-party defendant by filing a complaint (2) and (3) .
  26. Statutory Interpleader allows a property holder to initiate a suit to compel claimants to the property to litigate a dispute if (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  27. Necessary Parties must be under (1) and (2) .

Class Actions

0 Correct out of 8
  1. Diversity Jurisdiction for class actions require (1) diverse class representatives from all opposing parties and (2) .
  2. Class Action Certification is a court’s determination whether to allow the case to proceed as a class action if (1) defined class and (2) appointed counsel must .
  3. Settlement for class action lawsuits must be (1) (2) fair (3) reasonable and (4) adequate.
  4. Personal Jurisdiction for class actions apply to named class members and require (1) due process satisfied by reasonably adequate notice to class members (2) opportunity to opt out if applicable and (3) .
  5. Rule 23(b)(2) of Class Actions for Injunctive Relief means an injunctive judgement can be obtained if (1) (2) notice may be at the discretion of the court and (3) no right to opt out.
  6. Rule 23(b)(3) of Class Actions for Monetary Damages means a large class action can be sought if (1) common question of law or fact are (2) class action is superior to other procedures to resolve the dispute (3) class members may opt out and (4) must receive reasonable notice.
  7. Rule 23 of Class Actions means an individual or small group can represent a larger class sharing a common question in a lawsuit if (1) numerosity (2) commonality (3) and (4) adequacy are all present.
  8. Judgement for class action lawsuits (1) unless (2) opt out is applicable.
  9. Diversity Jurisdiction for class actions require (1) diverse class representatives from all opposing parties and (2) .
  10. Class Action Certification is a court’s determination whether to allow the case to proceed as a class action if (1) and (2) appointed counsel must fairly and adequately represent the interest of the whole class.
  11. Settlement for class action lawsuits must be (1) (2) fair (3) reasonable and (4) .
  12. Personal Jurisdiction for class actions apply to named class members and require (1) (2) opportunity to opt out if applicable and (3) .
  13. Rule 23(b)(2) of Class Actions for Injunctive Relief means an injunctive judgement can be obtained if (1) damages cannot be sought (2) and (3) .
  14. Rule 23(b)(3) of Class Actions for Monetary Damages means a large class action can be sought if (1) common question of law or fact are predominated over individual questions (2) (3) and (4) must receive reasonable notice.
  15. Rule 23 of Class Actions means an individual or small group can represent a larger class sharing a common question in a lawsuit if (1) (2) commonality (3) and (4) adequacy are all present.
  16. Judgement for class action lawsuits (1) unless (2) opt out is applicable.
  17. Diversity Jurisdiction for class actions require (1) and (2) .
  18. Class Action Certification is a court’s determination whether to allow the case to proceed as a class action if (1) and (2) appointed counsel must .
  19. Settlement for class action lawsuits must be (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  20. Personal Jurisdiction for class actions apply to named class members and require (1) (2) and (3) .
  21. Rule 23(b)(2) of Class Actions for Injunctive Relief means an injunctive judgement can be obtained if (1) (2) and (3) .
  22. Rule 23(b)(3) of Class Actions for Monetary Damages means a large class action can be sought if (1) common question of law or fact are (2) (3) and (4) .
  23. Rule 23 of Class Actions means an individual or small group can represent a larger class sharing a common question in a lawsuit if (1) (2) (3) and (4) are all present.
  24. Judgement for class action lawsuits (1) unless (2) .

Discovery

0 Correct out of 15
  1. Request for Admission are written requests to parties to answer the truth of discoverable information with an (1) admit (2) denial or (3) .
  2. Requests for Production are written requests to one party to make documents or other items within the parties control available for (1) (2) copy or (3) inspection within 30 days after service.
  3. Undiscoverable privileged material includes (1) attorney-client (2) work product (3) physician patient (4) (5) marital (6) journalist source and (7) Fifth Amendment right of self-incrimination.
  4. Protective Order is a court order limiting discovery of material sought by a party to prevent disclosure of privileged material where the moving party must (1) or (2) attempted to meet and confer to resolve the dispute.
  5. Attorney Client Privilege protects information exchanged confidentially between an attorney and client when (1) made between client and counsel (2) and (3) was made for the purpose of obtaining or providing legal advice.
  6. Work Product Privilege protects material prepared in anticipation of litigation or trial are not discoverable unless the opposing party shows (1) and (2) undue hardship to obtain the materials by other means.
  7. Depositions are oral proceedings in which an attorney (1) (2) not exceed 7 hours and (3) no more than 10 total depositions.
  8. Pretrial disclosures require the parties of the suit to (1) give (2) 30 days prior to trial.
  9. Mandatory Disclosures are required to the opposing party regardless of request including (1) sources of discoverable information (2) and (3) insurance.
  10. Discovery is a court mandated process of (1) acquiring (2) producing information from (3) .
  11. Meet and Confer must (1) take place 21 days before scheduling conference (2) to discuss claims, defenses, and settlement and (3) .
  12. Physical or Mental Examination of another party is available through the court when (1) the party’s health is at issue and (2) .
  13. Interrogatories are written questions proposed by one party to an opposing party (1) to ask about the and (2) people who have knowledge pertinent to claims and defenses (3) limited to 25 questions per party and (4) respond within 30 days of service.
  14. Discovery is material if (1) (2) relevant to a claim or defense and (3) proportional to the needs of the case.
  15. Expert disclosures require the identity of experts who may be used at trial and must occur (1) at least 90 days prior to trial (2) produce a report containing experts’ opinion (3) data used and (4) .
  16. Request for Admission are written requests to parties to answer the truth of discoverable information with an (1) (2) or (3) lacks sufficient knowledge within 30 days of service.
  17. Requests for Production are written requests to one party to make documents or other items within the parties control available for (1) (2) or (3) inspection within 30 days after service.
  18. Undiscoverable privileged material includes (1) (2) (3) physician patient (4) (5) marital (6) and (7) Fifth Amendment right of self-incrimination.
  19. Protective Order is a court order limiting discovery of material sought by a party to prevent disclosure of privileged material where the moving party must (1) or (2) attempted to meet and confer to resolve the dispute.
  20. Attorney Client Privilege protects information exchanged confidentially between an attorney and client when (1) made (2) intended to be and kept confidential and (3) was .
  21. Work Product Privilege protects material prepared in anticipation of litigation or trial are not discoverable unless the opposing party shows (1) and (2) undue hardship to obtain the materials by other means.
  22. Depositions are oral proceedings in which an attorney (1) (2) not exceed 7 hours and (3) .
  23. Pretrial disclosures require the parties of the suit to (1) give detailed information about the evidence to be used at trial (2) .
  24. Mandatory Disclosures are required to the opposing party regardless of request including (1) (2) damages sought and (3) .
  25. Discovery is a court mandated process of (1) (2) producing information from (3) .
  26. Meet and Confer must (1) take place (2) to and (3) develop a plan for discovery.
  27. Physical or Mental Examination of another party is available through the court when (1) the party’s health is at issue and (2) .
  28. Interrogatories are written questions proposed by one party to an opposing party (1) to ask about the and (2) people who have knowledge pertinent to claims and defenses (3) per party and (4) respond within 30 days of service.
  29. Discovery is material if (1) (2) and (3) proportional to the needs of the case.
  30. Expert disclosures require the identity of experts who may be used at trial and must occur (1) at least (2) produce a report containing experts’ opinion (3) and (4) qualifications.
  31. Request for Admission are written requests to parties to answer the truth of discoverable information with an (1) (2) or (3) .
  32. Requests for Production are written requests to one party to make documents or other items within the parties control available for (1) (2) or (3) .
  33. Undiscoverable privileged material includes (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) and (7) .
  34. Protective Order is a court order limiting discovery of material sought by a party to prevent disclosure of privileged material where the moving party must (1) or (2) .
  35. Attorney Client Privilege protects information exchanged confidentially between an attorney and client when (1) made (2) and (3) was .
  36. Work Product Privilege protects material prepared in anticipation of litigation or trial are not discoverable unless the opposing party shows (1) and (2) .
  37. Depositions are oral proceedings in which an attorney (1) (2) and (3) .
  38. Pretrial disclosures require the parties of the suit to (1) give (2) .
  39. Mandatory Disclosures are required to the opposing party regardless of request including (1) (2) and (3) .
  40. Discovery is a court mandated process of (1) (2) (3) .
  41. Meet and Confer must (1) take place (2) to and (3) .
  42. Physical or Mental Examination of another party is available through the court when (1) the and (2) .
  43. Interrogatories are written questions proposed by one party to an opposing party (1) to ask about the and (2) (3) per party and (4) .
  44. Discovery is material if (1) (2) and (3) .
  45. Expert disclosures require the identity of experts who may be used at trial and must occur (1) at least (2) (3) and (4) .

Pretrial, Trial, and Appeal

0 Correct out of 11
  1. Renewed Judgement as a Matter of Law is a motion brought by either party (1) (2) renewed by the losing party (3) brought within 28 days after entry of judgement and (4) there is insufficient evidence for a reasonable jury to have reached the verdict.
  2. Interlocutory Appeals can be filed prior to judgement when the appeal pertains to (1) injunction (2) class action certification (3) collateral order (4) appointment of receivership (5) admiralty (6) bankruptcy (7) mandamus and (8) .
  3. Motion for New Trial may be filed by either party (1) within 28 days after entry of judgement and (2) judgement was .
  4. Voluntarily Dismissal occurs when the Plaintiff dismisses their case (1) or (2) without cause.
  5. Summary Judgement can be filed by either party (1) where the moving party must show (2) no genuine issue of material fact and (3) moving party is entitled to judgement as a matter of law.
  6. Default Judgement entered by Clerk may occur if (1) Plaintiff files for default judgement against Defendant (2) Defendant has not responded at all (3) (4) Plaintiff provides an affidavit of sum owed and (5) Defendant is not a minor or incompetent.
  7. Appellate Courts review protentional errors by lower courts when (1) (2) de novo standard of review and (3) questions of facts will not be disturbed.
  8. Issue Preclusion prevents re-litigation of a particular issue of fact or law that have been previously litigated when (1) final judgement on the merits (2) same issue (3) issue was essential to judgement and (4) .
  9. Claim Preclusion occurs when one party had an opportunity to litigate the claim and cannot refile once final judgement has been ordered if (1) (2) same claim (3) final judgement on the merits.
  10. Motion to Set Aside Judgement or Order may be granted by a court to relieve a party from judgement or order when any of the following are present (1) a mistake was made (2) (3) fraud or misrepresentation (4) void judgement (5) judgement has been satisfied or discharged (6) any other reason that justifies relief.
  11. Judgement as a Matter of Law is a motion brought by either party (1) and (2) a reasonable jury would not have sufficient evidentiary basis to disagree with the result.
  12. Renewed Judgement as a Matter of Law is a motion brought by either party (1) after the court enters judgement based in the jury verdict (2) renewed by the losing party (3) brought and (4) there is for a reasonable jury to have reached the verdict.
  13. Interlocutory Appeals can be filed prior to judgement when the appeal pertains to (1) (2) class action certification (3) (4) (5) admiralty (6) bankruptcy (7) and (8) property.
  14. Motion for New Trial may be filed by either party (1) within 28 days after entry of judgement and (2) judgement was .
  15. Voluntarily Dismissal occurs when the Plaintiff dismisses their case (1) or (2) without cause.
  16. Summary Judgement can be filed by either party (1) no less than 30 days after the close of discovery where the moving party must show (2) and (3) .
  17. Default Judgement entered by Clerk may occur if (1) Plaintiff files for default judgement against Defendant (2) (3) Claim is for money damages (4) and (5) .
  18. Appellate Courts review protentional errors by lower courts when (1) (2) and (3) questions of facts will not be disturbed.
  19. Issue Preclusion prevents re-litigation of a particular issue of fact or law that have been previously litigated when (1) (2) same issue (3) issue was essential to judgement and (4) .
  20. Claim Preclusion occurs when one party had an opportunity to litigate the claim and cannot refile once final judgement has been ordered if (1) (2) same claim (3) .
  21. Motion to Set Aside Judgement or Order may be granted by a court to relieve a party from judgement or order when any of the following are present (1) a mistake was made (2) new undiscoverable evidence at time of trial (3) (4) void judgement (5) (6) .
  22. Judgement as a Matter of Law is a motion brought by either party (1) prior to the case going to jury and (2) a reasonable jury would not have .
  23. Renewed Judgement as a Matter of Law is a motion brought by either party (1) (2) (3) brought and (4) there is for a reasonable jury to have reached the verdict.
  24. Interlocutory Appeals can be filed prior to judgement when the appeal pertains to (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (7) and (8) .
  25. Motion for New Trial may be filed by either party (1) within and (2) judgement was .
  26. Voluntarily Dismissal occurs when the Plaintiff dismisses their case (1) or (2) .
  27. Summary Judgement can be filed by either party (1) where the moving party must show (2) and (3) .
  28. Default Judgement entered by Clerk may occur if (1) (2) (3) (4) and (5) .
  29. Appellate Courts review protentional errors by lower courts when (1) (2) and (3) will not be disturbed.
  30. Issue Preclusion prevents re-litigation of a particular issue of fact or law that have been previously litigated when (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  31. Claim Preclusion occurs when one party had an opportunity to litigate the claim and cannot refile once final judgement has been ordered if (1) (2) (3) .
  32. Motion to Set Aside Judgement or Order may be granted by a court to relieve a party from judgement or order when any of the following are present (1) a (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) .
  33. Judgement as a Matter of Law is a motion brought by either party (1) and (2) a reasonable jury would not have .
  • Estates in Land
  • Concurrent Estates
  • Leasehold Estates
  • Servitudes
  • Adverse Possession
  • Land Sale Contracts
  • Mortgages

Estates in Land

0 Correct out of 10
  1. Rule Against Perpetuities is an interest in land must (1) (2) within a life in being at the time of creation (3) no later than 21 years.
  2. Affirmative Waste is a type of waste that the Life Tenant cannot consume or exploit the natural resources of the land except (1) necessary for repairs (2) grant or (3) lands was exploited prior to grant.
  3. Permissive Waste is a type of waste where the Life Tenant cannot harm the property including (1) neglect (2) or (3) interest on encumbrances.
  4. Ameliorative Waste is a type of waste where the Life Tenant (1) commits waste that (2) .
  5. Fee Simple Subject to an Executory Interest is a potentially infinite fee simple estate that (1) upon a given event or condition (2) to a third party that is (3) freely transferable.
  6. Life Estate is an (1) interest in land that (2) lasts only .
  7. Vested Remainder is a remainder that automatically becomes possessory upon the natural expiration of the preceding events if (1) (2) vested remainders subject to total divestment or (3) vested remainder subject to open (a class gift).
  8. Contingent Remainder is a remainder that is not automatically possessory but contingent if (1) subject to a condition precedent or (2) created in favor of an .
  9. Fee Simple Determinable is a fee simple estate which is potentially infinite that occurs (1) automatically upon a given event or condition (2) grantor retains a and (3) freely transferable.
  10. Fee Simple Subject to Condition Subsequent is a potentially infinite fee simple estate that (1) grantor retains the right of reentry (2) and (3) freely transferable.
  11. Rule Against Perpetuities is an interest in land must (1) vest or fail (2) (3) .
  12. Affirmative Waste is a type of waste that the Life Tenant cannot consume or exploit the natural resources of the land except (1) (2) grant expressly gives right to exploit or (3) lands was .
  13. Permissive Waste is a type of waste where the Life Tenant cannot harm the property including (1) (2) or (3) interest on encumbrances.
  14. Ameliorative Waste is a type of waste where the Life Tenant (1) that (2) economically benefits the land.
  15. Fee Simple Subject to an Executory Interest is a potentially infinite fee simple estate that (1) automatically transfers upon a given event or condition (2) to a that is (3) .
  16. Life Estate is an (1) that (2) lasts only for the life of the interest holder.
  17. Vested Remainder is a remainder that automatically becomes possessory upon the natural expiration of the preceding events if (1) (2) vested remainders subject to total divestment or (3) (a class gift).
  18. Contingent Remainder is a remainder that is not automatically possessory but contingent if (1) or (2) created in favor of an unascertained person.
  19. Fee Simple Determinable is a fee simple estate which is potentially infinite that occurs (1) upon a given event or condition (2) grantor retains a and (3) freely transferable.
  20. Fee Simple Subject to Condition Subsequent is a potentially infinite fee simple estate that (1) grantor retains the right of reentry (2) and (3) .
  21. Rule Against Perpetuities is an interest in land must (1) (2) (3) .
  22. Affirmative Waste is a type of waste that the Life Tenant cannot consume or exploit the natural resources of the land except (1) (2) grant or (3) lands was .
  23. Permissive Waste is a type of waste where the Life Tenant cannot harm the property including (1) (2) or (3) .
  24. Ameliorative Waste is a type of waste where the Life Tenant (1) that (2) .
  25. Fee Simple Subject to an Executory Interest is a potentially infinite fee simple estate that (1) upon a given event or condition (2) to a that is (3) .
  26. Life Estate is an (1) that (2) lasts only .
  27. Vested Remainder is a remainder that automatically becomes possessory upon the natural expiration of the preceding events if (1) (2) or (3) (a class gift).
  28. Contingent Remainder is a remainder that is not automatically possessory but contingent if (1) or (2) created in favor of an .
  29. Fee Simple Determinable is a fee simple estate which is potentially infinite that occurs (1) upon a given event or condition (2) grantor retains a and (3) .
  30. Fee Simple Subject to Condition Subsequent is a potentially infinite fee simple estate that (1) grantor retains the (2) and (3) .

Concurrent Estates

0 Correct out of 6
  1. Tenancy in Common is an estate with multiple tenants in which each co-tenant owns a distinct undivided interest while each has a right to possess the whole estate that is (1) freely transferable and (2) .
  2. Possession is when (1) has the (2) right to possess the whole.
  3. Severance of a Joint Tenancy creates a (1) with respect to the (2) severed interest.
  4. Tenancy by the Entirety is an estate that is created when (1) time (2) title (3) (4) possession and (5) marriage concurrently exist among when the tenants take their .
  5. Joint Tenancy is an estate that is created when (1) time (2) title (3) interest and (4) among the tenants when they take their interest.
  6. Severance of a Tenancy by the Entirety creates a Tenancy in Common when (1) death of one co-tenant (2) mutual agreement by the parties in writing (3) and (4) execution by a joint creditor.
  7. Tenancy in Common is an estate with multiple tenants in which each co-tenant owns a distinct undivided interest while each has a right to possess the whole estate that is (1) and (2) no survivorship rights.
  8. Possession is when (1) has the (2) right to possess the whole.
  9. Severance of a Joint Tenancy creates a (1) with respect to the (2) severed interest.
  10. Tenancy by the Entirety is an estate that is created when (1) (2) title (3) (4) possession and (5) among when the tenants take their .
  11. Joint Tenancy is an estate that is created when (1) time (2) (3) interest and (4) among the tenants when they take their interest.
  12. Severance of a Tenancy by the Entirety creates a Tenancy in Common when (1) death of one co-tenant (2) by the parties in writing (3) issuance of a divorce decree and (4) .
  13. Tenancy in Common is an estate with multiple tenants in which each co-tenant owns a distinct undivided interest while each has a right to possess the whole estate that is (1) and (2) .
  14. Possession is when (1) has the (2) .
  15. Severance of a Joint Tenancy creates a (1) with respect to the (2) .
  16. Tenancy by the Entirety is an estate that is created when (1) (2) (3) (4) and (5) among when the tenants take their .
  17. Joint Tenancy is an estate that is created when (1) (2) (3) and (4) among the tenants when they take their .
  18. Severance of a Tenancy by the Entirety creates a Tenancy in Common when (1) (2) by the parties in writing (3) and (4) .

Leasehold Estates

0 Correct out of 18
  1. Tenancy at Will terminates upon (1) or (2) by operation of law.
  2. Breach of the Implied Warranty of Habitability grants the Tenants remedies against the landlord consisting of (1) move-out (2) repair (3) reduce or withhold rent or (4) .
  3. Landlord’s Duties and Warranties to tenant consist of (1) duty to deliver possession (2) implied covenant of quiet enjoyment (3) and (4) tort liability.
  4. Constructive Eviction is the Landlord’s action or inactions render the property uninhabitable whereupon there is (1) substantial interference (2) and (3) tenant must vacate within a reasonable period after the landlord fails to repair the substantial interference.
  5. Assignment consists of a (1) Tenant’s entire transfer of the leasehold estate to (2) an .
  6. Periodic Tenancy is a leasehold estate that is created when (1) (2) Implication or (3) operation of law that is continuous for successive intervals.
  7. Operation of law occurs when (1) (2) waste by the tenant (3) assignment by the tenant (4) transfer of title by the landlord or (5) lease by the landlord to a third party.
  8. Landlord’s Tort Liability to Tenant for injuries occurring on the leased property consist of (1) common areas (2) latent defects (3) (4) public use or (5) seasonal or short-term lease of a furnished dwelling.
  9. Implied Covenant of Quiet Enjoyment is the Tenant’s right to (1) use and (2) (3) free from interference with the Landlord.
  10. Actual Eviction is the Landlord (1) or (2) excludes the tenant from the property.
  11. Tenant’s Duty at common law for leasehold estates consist of (1) ordinary repairs (2) not commit waste (3) pay rent and (4) .
  12. Sublease consists of a (1) Tenant’s partial transfer of the leasehold estate from (2) .
  13. Fixture is a (1) once movable object that is (2) such that (3) it becomes part of the real property.
  14. Tenancy at Sufferance is created when (1) the tenant wrongfully possesses the property (2) .
  15. Periodic Tenancy terminates when a tenant gives proper notice that is (1) and (2) the effective termination date is at the end of the periodic tenancy.
  16. The four types of leasehold estates in which the tenant has a present possessory property interest, and the landlord has a future interest are (1) (2) periodic tenancy (3) tenancy at will and (4) tenancy at sufferance.
  17. Tenancy at Will is a leasehold estate with (1) no fixed duration and (2) without notice.
  18. Implied Warranty of Habitability means the (1) is (2) fit for human dwelling.
  19. Tenancy at Will terminates upon (1) will or (2) by .
  20. Breach of the Implied Warranty of Habitability grants the Tenants remedies against the landlord consisting of (1) (2) (3) reduce or withhold rent or (4) remain and seek damages.
  21. Landlord’s Duties and Warranties to tenant consist of (1) (2) (3) implied warranty of habitability and (4) tort liability.
  22. Constructive Eviction is the Landlord’s action or inactions render the property uninhabitable whereupon there is (1) (2) and (3) tenant must vacate within a reasonable period after the landlord fails to repair the .
  23. Assignment consists of a (1) Tenant’s entire transfer of the leasehold estate to (2) an .
  24. Periodic Tenancy is a leasehold estate that is created when (1) (2) Implication or (3) .
  25. Operation of law occurs when (1) (2) waste by the tenant (3) (4) transfer of title by the landlord or (5) .
  26. Landlord’s Tort Liability to Tenant for injuries occurring on the leased property consist of (1) (2) latent defects (3) (4) or (5) seasonal or short-term lease of a furnished dwelling.
  27. Implied Covenant of Quiet Enjoyment is the Tenant’s right to (1) use and (2) (3) with the Landlord.
  28. Actual Eviction is the Landlord (1) wrongfully evicts or (2) .
  29. Tenant’s Duty at common law for leasehold estates consist of (1) (2) not commit waste (3) pay rent and (4) .
  30. Sublease consists of a (1) Tenant’s partial transfer of the leasehold estate from (2) .
  31. Fixture is a (1) once movable object that is (2) such that (3) it .
  32. Tenancy at Sufferance is created when (1) the tenant wrongfully possesses the property (2) .
  33. Periodic Tenancy terminates when a tenant gives proper notice that is (1) and (2) the effective termination date is at the end of the periodic tenancy.
  34. The four types of leasehold estates in which the tenant has a present possessory property interest, and the landlord has a future interest are (1) tenancy for years (2) (3) and (4) tenancy at sufferance.
  35. Tenancy at Will is a leasehold estate with (1) and (2) terminable by either party at any time without notice.
  36. Implied Warranty of Habitability means the (1) residential property is (2) .
  37. Tenancy at Will terminates upon (1) or (2) by .
  38. Breach of the Implied Warranty of Habitability grants the Tenants remedies against the landlord consisting of (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  39. Landlord’s Duties and Warranties to tenant consist of (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  40. Constructive Eviction is the Landlord’s action or inactions render the property uninhabitable whereupon there is (1) (2) and (3) after the landlord fails to repair the .
  41. Assignment consists of a (1) Tenant’s to (2) an .
  42. Periodic Tenancy is a leasehold estate that is created when (1) (2) or (3) .
  43. Operation of law occurs when (1) (2) (3) (4) or (5) .
  44. Landlord’s Tort Liability to Tenant for injuries occurring on the leased property consist of (1) (2) (3) (4) or (5) .
  45. Implied Covenant of Quiet Enjoyment is the Tenant’s right to (1) and (2) (3) with the Landlord.
  46. Actual Eviction is the Landlord (1) or (2) .
  47. Tenant’s Duty at common law for leasehold estates consist of (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  48. Sublease consists of a (1) Tenant’s from (2) .
  49. Fixture is a (1) that is (2) such that (3) it .
  50. Tenancy at Sufferance is created when (1) the (2) .
  51. Periodic Tenancy terminates when a tenant gives proper notice that is (1) and (2) the .
  52. The four types of leasehold estates in which the tenant has a present possessory property interest, and the landlord has a future interest are (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  53. Tenancy at Will is a leasehold estate with (1) and (2) without notice.
  54. Implied Warranty of Habitability means the (1) is (2) .

Servitudes

0 Correct out of 17
  1. Negative Easement is created only by an express grant where the holder of the easement prevents the servient landowner from engaging in otherwise permissible actions such as (1) light (2) air (3) support or (4) .
  2. Easement in Gross is a type of easement which entitles an (1) or (2) entity to use the servient estate.
  3. Covenant terminates upon (1) written releases (2) merger of benefited and burden estates or (3) .
  4. Benefiting covenant that runs with the land requires (1) writing (2) intent (3) and (4) vertical privity only.
  5. Easement may be terminated by (1) estoppel (2) necessity ends (3) destruction of servient tenement (4) release (5) abandonment (6) merger (7) or (8) expiration.
  6. Burdening covenant that runs with the land must (1) be in writing (2) have intent (3) (4) horizontal and vertical privity and (5) notice.
  7. Reciprocal Negative Servitude are covenants where the land is subdivided into parcels with restrictions attached that are created by (1) common plan or scheme or (2) .
  8. Profit is a non-possessory property interest entitling the holder to (1) to (2) remove resources from the land.
  9. Easement by Prescription requires the use of another’s land to be (1) continuous (2) open and notorious (3) and (4) hostile.
  10. License is a (1) revocable right to use (2) .
  11. Equitable Servitudes are covenants that are enforced through equity against successors through injunctive relief which must (1) be in writing (2) intent (3) touches and concerns the land and (4) .
  12. Easement is a (1) non-possessory interest that (2) .
  13. Covenant is a promise (1) to do or (2) .
  14. Easement Appurtenant is a type of easement that (1) passes automatically (2) to use the servient estates land.
  15. Easement by Necessity is an easement where access to and from the property is (1) impossible without the easement and (2) .
  16. Defenses to Equitable Servitude include (1) change in neighborhood (2) (3) acquiescence (4) uncleans hands doctrine or (5) laches.
  17. Easement by Implication is an easement based upon prior use where (1) an (2) continuous and apparent use by the common Grantor (3) use is reasonably necessary for enjoyment of the dominant tenant and (4) parties intended the use after the division of land.
  18. Negative Easement is created only by an express grant where the holder of the easement prevents the servient landowner from engaging in otherwise permissible actions such as (1) (2) air (3) or (4) stream of water from an artificial flow.
  19. Easement in Gross is a type of easement which entitles an (1) individual or (2) .
  20. Covenant terminates upon (1) (2) or (3) condemnation of burdened property.
  21. Benefiting covenant that runs with the land requires (1) (2) (3) touches and concerns the land and (4) vertical privity only.
  22. Easement may be terminated by (1) estoppel (2) (3) destruction of servient tenement (4) (5) (6) merger (7) prescription or (8) .
  23. Burdening covenant that runs with the land must (1) be in writing (2) (3) touches and concerns the land (4) and (5) .
  24. Reciprocal Negative Servitude are covenants where the land is subdivided into parcels with restrictions attached that are created by (1) or (2) notice.
  25. Profit is a non-possessory property interest entitling the holder to (1) enter a servient estate to (2) .
  26. Easement by Prescription requires the use of another’s land to be (1) (2) open and notorious (3) and (4) hostile.
  27. License is a (1) revocable right to use (2) .
  28. Equitable Servitudes are covenants that are enforced through equity against successors through injunctive relief which must (1) be in writing (2) intent (3) and (4) .
  29. Easement is a (1) non-possessory interest that (2) .
  30. Covenant is a promise (1) to do or (2) .
  31. Easement Appurtenant is a type of easement that (1) (2) entitles a dominant estate owner to use the servient estates land.
  32. Easement by Necessity is an easement where access to and from the property is (1) and (2) expires when the necessity ends.
  33. Defenses to Equitable Servitude include (1) change in neighborhood (2) (3) (4) or (5) laches.
  34. Easement by Implication is an easement based upon prior use where (1) an easement exists prior to division of land (2) use by the common Grantor (3) use is and (4) parties intended the use after the division of land.
  35. Negative Easement is created only by an express grant where the holder of the easement prevents the servient landowner from engaging in otherwise permissible actions such as (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  36. Easement in Gross is a type of easement which entitles an (1) or (2) .
  37. Covenant terminates upon (1) (2) or (3) .
  38. Benefiting covenant that runs with the land requires (1) (2) (3) and (4) only.
  39. Easement may be terminated by (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (7) or (8) .
  40. Burdening covenant that runs with the land must (1) (2) (3) (4) and (5) .
  41. Reciprocal Negative Servitude are covenants where the land is subdivided into parcels with restrictions attached that are created by (1) or (2) .
  42. Profit is a non-possessory property interest entitling the holder to (1) to (2) .
  43. Easement by Prescription requires the use of another’s land to be (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  44. License is a (1) to use (2) .
  45. Equitable Servitudes are covenants that are enforced through equity against successors through injunctive relief which must (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  46. Easement is a (1) that (2) .
  47. Covenant is a promise (1) or (2) .
  48. Easement Appurtenant is a type of easement that (1) (2) to use the servient estates land.
  49. Easement by Necessity is an easement where access to and from the property is (1) and (2) .
  50. Defenses to Equitable Servitude include (1) (2) (3) (4) or (5) .
  51. Easement by Implication is an easement based upon prior use where (1) an (2) use by the common Grantor (3) use is and (4) parties intended the use .

Adverse Possession

0 Correct out of 2
  1. Tacking permits an adverse possessor to add the current period of possession to that of another’s prior adverse possession to establish continuous control if (1) and (2) privity between the possessors.
  2. Adverse Possession is when a trespasser acquires title to another’s property without compensation if the trespasser’s possession of the land is (1) continuous for the statutory period (2) open and notorious (3) actual and exclusive and (4) .
  3. Tacking permits an adverse possessor to add the current period of possession to that of another’s prior adverse possession to establish continuous control if (1) and (2) privity between the possessors.
  4. Adverse Possession is when a trespasser acquires title to another’s property without compensation if the trespasser’s possession of the land is (1) continuous for the statutory period (2) (3) actual and exclusive and (4) .
  5. Tacking permits an adverse possessor to add the current period of possession to that of another’s prior adverse possession to establish continuous control if (1) and (2) .
  6. Adverse Possession is when a trespasser acquires title to another’s property without compensation if the trespasser’s possession of the land is (1) (2) (3) and (4) .

Land Sale Contracts

0 Correct out of 11
  1. Land Sale Contract must contain (1) (2) promise to disclose and (3) make no materially false statements.
  2. Notice Statute is (1) the (2) over a prior grantee who fails to record.
  3. General Warranty Deed is a deed that must contain all covenants including (1) seisin (2) right to convey (3) against encumbrances (4) quiet enjoyment (5) warranty and (6) .
  4. Race Statute is the (1) first grantee to record prevails regardless of (2) .
  5. Equitable Conversion is the (1) (2) during the escrow process (3) prior to deed delivery from the Seller.
  6. Wild Deed is a (1) recorded deed that is (2) .
  7. Race Notice Statute is the (1) to (2) record prevails.
  8. Estoppel by Deed is (1) a Grantor who conveys title to land (2) in which the (3) cannot acquire the same land.
  9. Bona Fide Purchaser for Value is one who purchases property for value without notice of the prior conveyance including (1) actual notice (2) inquiry notice or (3) .
  10. Contract for the Sale of Land must comply with the statute of frauds and be (1) in writing (2) and (3) articulate the essential terms of the land sale.
  11. Deed is the legal title which passes from Seller to Buyer that is (1) lawfully executed and (2) .
  12. Land Sale Contract must contain (1) promise to provide marketable title (2) and (3) .
  13. Notice Statute is (1) the subsequent bona fide purchaser always prevails (2) .
  14. General Warranty Deed is a deed that must contain all covenants including (1) seisin (2) right to convey (3) (4) (5) warranty and (6) .
  15. Race Statute is the (1) of (2) whether the buyer was a bona fide purchaser.
  16. Equitable Conversion is the (1) (2) (3) prior to deed delivery from the Seller.
  17. Wild Deed is a (1) recorded deed that is (2) .
  18. Race Notice Statute is the (1) to (2) record prevails.
  19. Estoppel by Deed is (1) a Grantor who conveys title to land (2) in which the (3) .
  20. Bona Fide Purchaser for Value is one who purchases property for value without notice of the prior conveyance including (1) (2) or (3) record notice.
  21. Contract for the Sale of Land must comply with the statute of frauds and be (1) in writing (2) and (3) .
  22. Deed is the legal title which passes from Seller to Buyer that is (1) and (2) delivered.
  23. Land Sale Contract must contain (1) (2) and (3) .
  24. Notice Statute is (1) the (2) .
  25. General Warranty Deed is a deed that must contain all covenants including (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) and (6) .
  26. Race Statute is the (1) of (2) .
  27. Equitable Conversion is the (1) (2) (3) .
  28. Wild Deed is a (1) that is (2) .
  29. Race Notice Statute is the (1) to (2) .
  30. Estoppel by Deed is (1) a (2) in which the (3) .
  31. Bona Fide Purchaser for Value is one who purchases property for value without notice of the prior conveyance including (1) (2) or (3) .
  32. Contract for the Sale of Land must comply with the statute of frauds and be (1) (2) and (3) .
  33. Deed is the legal title which passes from Seller to Buyer that is (1) and (2) .

Mortgages

0 Correct out of 2
  1. Purchase Money Mortgage is a (1) (2) that is used as collateral to acquire the loan for the land.
  2. Acceleration Clause is a loan agreement that requires the (1) mortgagor to pay the full loan immediately (2) if .
  3. Purchase Money Mortgage is a (1) (2) that is used as collateral to acquire the loan for the land.
  4. Acceleration Clause is a loan agreement that requires the (1) (2) if certain conditions are not met.
  5. Purchase Money Mortgage is a (1) (2) that is .
  6. Acceleration Clause is a loan agreement that requires the (1) (2) if .
  • Agency
  • Types of Partnerships
  • Liability
  • Corporations
  • LLC

Agency

0 Correct out of 10
  1. Agency Relationship is created by a Principal and an Agent when there is the presence of (1) control (2) or (3) acting on behalf of the Principal.
  2. Liability of the Principal and Agent to the Third Party will depend if (1) the Agent had authority from the Principal in which the Principal is liable to the third party or (2) if the .
  3. Actual Authority is given by the Principal to the Agent in either (1) or (2) implied authority.
  4. Ratification occurs when (1) the Agent acts on behalf of the Principal (2) Principal has knowledge of the facts and (3) .
  5. Apparent Authority occurs when (1) the and (2) the Principal’s conduct causes a third party to reasonable rely on the Agent’s appearance of authority.
  6. Principal Rights afforded to the agent are (1) compensation (2) cooperation and (3) .
  7. Termination of an agency relationship occurs when (1) expressed by the parties (2) expiration or (3) .
  8. Agent Rights afforded to the principal are (1) loyalty (2) and (3) care.
  9. Independent Contractors are generally not liable for committing acts (1) (2) on behalf of the Principal.
  10. Respondent Superior means the Principal will be liable when there is (1) an existence of an employer-employee relationship and (2) that .
  11. Agency Relationship is created by a Principal and an Agent when there is the presence of (1) (2) consent or (3) .
  12. Liability of the Principal and Agent to the Third Party will depend if (1) the Agent had authority from the Principal in which the Principal is liable to the third party or (2) if the .
  13. Actual Authority is given by the Principal to the Agent in either (1) or (2) implied authority.
  14. Ratification occurs when (1) the Agent acts on behalf of the Principal (2) and (3) .
  15. Apparent Authority occurs when (1) the and (2) the Principal’s conduct causes a third party to reasonable rely on the Agent’s appearance of authority.
  16. Principal Rights afforded to the agent are (1) (2) cooperation and (3) .
  17. Termination of an agency relationship occurs when (1) (2) expiration or (3) .
  18. Agent Rights afforded to the principal are (1) loyalty (2) and (3) .
  19. Independent Contractors are generally not liable for committing acts (1) (2) on behalf of the Principal.
  20. Respondent Superior means the Principal will be liable when there is (1) an existence of an employer-employee relationship and (2) that .
  21. Agency Relationship is created by a Principal and an Agent when there is the presence of (1) (2) or (3) .
  22. Liability of the Principal and Agent to the Third Party will depend if (1) the in which the Principal is liable to the third party or (2) if the .
  23. Actual Authority is given by the Principal to the Agent in either (1) or (2) .
  24. Ratification occurs when (1) the (2) and (3) .
  25. Apparent Authority occurs when (1) the and (2) the .
  26. Principal Rights afforded to the agent are (1) (2) and (3) .
  27. Termination of an agency relationship occurs when (1) (2) or (3) .
  28. Agent Rights afforded to the principal are (1) (2) and (3) .
  29. Independent Contractors are generally not liable for committing acts (1) (2) on .
  30. Respondent Superior means the Principal will be liable when there is (1) an and (2) that .

Types of Partnerships

0 Correct out of 11
  1. Profits and Losses of the partnership are (1) shared equally upon each partner absent a written agreement and (2) .
  2. Partnership Property consists of (1) capital contribution by each party (2) property titled in the partnership’s name (3) partnership purchases or (4) .
  3. Limited Liability Partnership is created by (1) and (2) filing the appropriate statement with the state.
  4. Partnership Books are freely available for partners to (1) inspect and (2) .
  5. Proving a Partnership exists consists of (1) parties intent (2) profit sharing (3) parties control (4) capital contributions or (5) the .
  6. Fiduciary Duty owed by the partners to the partnership consist of (1) loyalty and (2) .
  7. Contract Liability extends to all partners for (1) and (2) any other expressly authorized contract.
  8. General Partnerships are an association of (1) two or more people as co-owners (2) in a .
  9. Limited Partnership is a partnership consisting of one or more (1) general partners and (2) a (3) file the appropriate statement with the state.
  10. Dissolution is the (1) .
  11. Dissociation is the act of any partner ceasing to be (1) and (2) carrying out the partnership business.
  12. Profits and Losses of the partnership are (1) shared equally upon each partner absent a written agreement and (2) .
  13. Partnership Property consists of (1) capital contribution by each party (2) property titled in the partnership’s name (3) or (4) .
  14. Limited Liability Partnership is created by (1) and (2) filing the appropriate statement with the state.
  15. Partnership Books are freely available for partners to (1) and (2) copy partnership information.
  16. Proving a Partnership exists consists of (1) parties intent (2) (3) parties control (4) or (5) the .
  17. Fiduciary Duty owed by the partners to the partnership consist of (1) and (2) care.
  18. Contract Liability extends to all partners for (1) and (2) any other expressly authorized contract.
  19. General Partnerships are an association of (1) (2) in a for-profit business.
  20. Limited Partnership is a partnership consisting of one or more (1) and (2) a (3) file the appropriate statement with the state.
  21. Dissolution is the (1) .
  22. Dissociation is the act of any partner ceasing to be (1) associated and (2) .
  23. Profits and Losses of the partnership are (1) absent a written agreement and (2) .
  24. Partnership Property consists of (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  25. Limited Liability Partnership is created by (1) and (2) .
  26. Partnership Books are freely available for partners to (1) and (2) .
  27. Proving a Partnership exists consists of (1) (2) (3) (4) or (5) the .
  28. Fiduciary Duty owed by the partners to the partnership consist of (1) and (2) .
  29. Contract Liability extends to all partners for (1) and (2) .
  30. General Partnerships are an association of (1) (2) in a .
  31. Limited Partnership is a partnership consisting of one or more (1) and (2) a (3) .
  32. Dissolution is the (1) .
  33. Dissociation is the act of any partner ceasing to be (1) and (2) .

Liability

0 Correct out of 2
  1. Liability of a Limited Partnership consists of the general partners (1) personal and (2) .
  2. Liability of each partner in a Limited Liability Partnership is (1) and (2) each partner is still liable for their own acts.
  3. Liability of a Limited Partnership consists of the general partners (1) and (2) jointly and several liability for all partnership obligations.
  4. Liability of each partner in a Limited Liability Partnership is (1) limited to the partnership itself and (2) .
  5. Liability of a Limited Partnership consists of the general partners (1) and (2) .
  6. Liability of each partner in a Limited Liability Partnership is (1) and (2) .

Corporations

0 Correct out of 23
  1. Ultra Vires are corporate acts outside the stated purpose where the consequences consist of (1) a shareholder suit (2) corporation suit or (3) .
  2. Promoter is an individual that acts on behalf of a yet to be formed corporation to (1) raise capital (2) or (3) assist in corporate formation.
  3. Quorum is the (1) (2) majority of shares (3) eligible to vote.
  4. Piercing the Corporate Veil are acts done by a valid court which hold liable the (1) shareholders (2) or (3) officers for their actions or debts.
  5. Derivative suits are a (1) shareholders suit (2) to enforce (3) the rights of the corporation (4) when a .
  6. Shareholder Authority is the power of the shareholders to exert control over the corporation by (1) appointing directors (2) or (3) approve fundamental changes of the corporate structure.
  7. Corporation is a (1) that is (2) separate from its owners.
  8. Meetings are conducted by the shareholders and the corporation where there are two types of meetings such as (1) and (2) special meetings where notice is required.
  9. Funding for corporations derive from (1) debt (2) stocks or (3) a .
  10. Proxies are (1) shareholders ability to (2) (3) in writing.
  11. Liability of the Promoter consists of (1) personally liability (2) for .
  12. De Facto Corporation is a failed corporation formation where the corporation continues and will be treated as a properly formed corporation if (1) a law exists in which the corporation could become legally incorporated (2) and (3) good faith effort to comply with state’s incorporation laws.
  13. Demand on the corporation for a Derivative suit must be in (1) writing (2) and (3) wait 90 days before filing suit.
  14. Article of Incorporation form a corporation when filed within the state that consist of (1) (2) incorporators (3) number of shares and (4) the registered agent.
  15. Dissolution of the corporation is the termination of the corporation when (1) winding up occurs (2) and (3) no new business is carried out.
  16. Duty of Loyalty of the corporation is owed by (1) directors and (2) .
  17. Stocks reflect the investment in the corporation by (1) (2) who become part owners of the corporation.
  18. Business Judgement Rule is the court’s ability to ignore the business decision if the decision was made in (1) (2) in the best interest of the corporation and (3) with the care a person in a similar position believed to appropriate under the circumstances.
  19. Merger is when two or more company’s combine into a single company after (1) a and (2) shareholder votes favored the merger.
  20. Conflict of Interest is a (1) (2) of a transaction (3) with the corporation.
  21. Direct suits are a shareholder’s pursuit of legal action towards a (1) (2) ’s officer or (3) a director.
  22. Debt is when a corporation (1) borrows funds from a lender and (2) .
  23. Bylaws are written rules for managing the corporation and shall be enacted by (1) the or (2) board of directors.
  24. Ultra Vires are corporate acts outside the stated purpose where the consequences consist of (1) a (2) or (3) state action.
  25. Promoter is an individual that acts on behalf of a yet to be formed corporation to (1) (2) or (3) assist in corporate formation.
  26. Quorum is the (1) present (2) (3) .
  27. Piercing the Corporate Veil are acts done by a valid court which hold liable the (1) (2) directors or (3) .
  28. Derivative suits are a (1) (2) to (3) the rights of the corporation (4) when a cause of action exists by the corporation, but the corporation fails to pursue it.
  29. Shareholder Authority is the power of the shareholders to exert control over the corporation by (1) appointing directors (2) or (3) .
  30. Corporation is a (1) legal entity that is (2) .
  31. Meetings are conducted by the shareholders and the corporation where there are two types of meetings such as (1) annual and (2) .
  32. Funding for corporations derive from (1) (2) or (3) a combination of and .
  33. Proxies are (1) shareholders ability to (2) (3) .
  34. Liability of the Promoter consists of (1) (2) for all contracts formed prior to corporation formation.
  35. De Facto Corporation is a failed corporation formation where the corporation continues and will be treated as a properly formed corporation if (1) a (2) conducted business in corporation name and (3) .
  36. Demand on the corporation for a Derivative suit must be in (1) (2) demand the corporation act and (3) .
  37. Article of Incorporation form a corporation when filed within the state that consist of (1) corporation name (2) (3) number of shares and (4) the .
  38. Dissolution of the corporation is the termination of the corporation when (1) winding up occurs (2) and (3) .
  39. Duty of Loyalty of the corporation is owed by (1) directors and (2) .
  40. Stocks reflect the investment in the corporation by (1) shareholders (2) .
  41. Business Judgement Rule is the court’s ability to ignore the business decision if the decision was made in (1) (2) in the and (3) with the care a person in a similar position believed to appropriate under the circumstances.
  42. Merger is when two or more company’s combine into a single company after (1) a board vote and (2) .
  43. Conflict of Interest is a (1) (2) of a (3) with the corporation.
  44. Direct suits are a shareholder’s pursuit of legal action towards a (1) corporation (2) or (3) a .
  45. Debt is when a corporation (1) and (2) promises to pay the loan back.
  46. Bylaws are written rules for managing the corporation and shall be enacted by (1) the or (2) board of directors.
  47. Ultra Vires are corporate acts outside the stated purpose where the consequences consist of (1) a (2) or (3) .
  48. Promoter is an individual that acts on behalf of a yet to be formed corporation to (1) (2) or (3) .
  49. Quorum is the (1) (2) (3) .
  50. Piercing the Corporate Veil are acts done by a valid court which hold liable the (1) (2) or (3) .
  51. Derivative suits are a (1) (2) to (3) the (4) when a .
  52. Shareholder Authority is the power of the shareholders to exert control over the corporation by (1) (2) or (3) .
  53. Corporation is a (1) that is (2) .
  54. Meetings are conducted by the shareholders and the corporation where there are two types of meetings such as (1) and (2) .
  55. Funding for corporations derive from (1) (2) or (3) a combination of and .
  56. Proxies are (1) to (2) (3) .
  57. Liability of the Promoter consists of (1) (2) for .
  58. De Facto Corporation is a failed corporation formation where the corporation continues and will be treated as a properly formed corporation if (1) a (2) and (3) .
  59. Demand on the corporation for a Derivative suit must be in (1) (2) and (3) .
  60. Article of Incorporation form a corporation when filed within the state that consist of (1) (2) (3) and (4) the .
  61. Dissolution of the corporation is the termination of the corporation when (1) (2) and (3) .
  62. Duty of Loyalty of the corporation is owed by (1) and (2) .
  63. Stocks reflect the investment in the corporation by (1) (2) .
  64. Business Judgement Rule is the court’s ability to ignore the business decision if the decision was made in (1) (2) in the and (3) with the .
  65. Merger is when two or more company’s combine into a single company after (1) a and (2) .
  66. Conflict of Interest is a (1) s_0_0_3_6ad9de7587c9e_7" class="game-elemental" data-pid="panel_s">s_0_0_3_6ad9de7587c9e_7" type="hidden" value="personal interest" data-pid="panel_s" class="game-elemental-hidden"> (2) of a s_0_1_3_6ad9de7587ca0_2" class="game-elemental" data-pid="panel_s">s_0_1_3_6ad9de7587ca0_2" type="hidden" value="transaction" data-pid="panel_s" class="game-elemental-hidden"> (3) with the .
  67. Direct suits are a shareholder’s pursuit of legal action towards a (1) (2) ’s officer or (3) a .
  68. Debt is when a corporation (1) and (2) .
  69. Bylaws are written rules for managing the corporation and shall be enacted by (1) the or (2) .

LLC

0 Correct out of 4
  1. Member Managed LLC is when all members owe a duty of (1) care and (2) .
  2. Limited Liability Company is created when (1) certificate is filed within the forum state (2) (3) address of the LLC and (4) name of registered agent.
  3. Manager Managed LLC is when only the managers owe a duty of (1) care and (2) .
  4. Good Faith and Fair Dealing is owed by all (1) members and (2) .
  5. Member Managed LLC is when all members owe a duty of (1) care and (2) .
  6. Limited Liability Company is created when (1) (2) name of the LLC (3) address of the LLC and (4) .
  7. Manager Managed LLC is when only the managers owe a duty of (1) care and (2) .
  8. Good Faith and Fair Dealing is owed by all (1) members and (2) .
  9. Member Managed LLC is when all members owe a duty of (1) and (2) .
  10. Limited Liability Company is created when (1) (2) (3) and (4) .
  11. Manager Managed LLC is when only the managers owe a duty of (1) and (2) .
  12. Good Faith and Fair Dealing is owed by all (1) and (2) .
  • Jurisdiction
  • Marriage
  • Divorce
  • Property
  • Custody
  • Support
  • Adoption

Jurisdiction

0 Correct out of 1
  1. Jurisdiction in the forum state is established when one spouse has (1) domiciled in the forum state (2) for at least .
  2. Jurisdiction in the forum state is established when one spouse has (1) (2) for at least 6 months.
  3. Jurisdiction in the forum state is established when one spouse has (1) (2) for at least .

Marriage

0 Correct out of 5
  1. Pre-Marital Agreements are legally enforceable contracts between the parties that provide distribution of the marital assets when (1) (2) voluntary and (3) full and fair disclosure.
  2. Post-Marital Agreements are legally enforceable contracts formed after the marriage to divide the marital property if (1) (2) each spouse has adequate representation and (3) time to review the disclosure.
  3. Marriage is the legal union of two individuals when (1) a license is obtained by the state and (2) .
  4. State of Mind required for marriage is (1) and (2) intent.
  5. Common Law Marriage occurs when a couple is considered legally married if (1) consent (2) holding themselves out to the public as married and (3) .
  6. Pre-Marital Agreements are legally enforceable contracts between the parties that provide distribution of the marital assets when (1) in writing (2) and (3) .
  7. Post-Marital Agreements are legally enforceable contracts formed after the marriage to divide the marital property if (1) voluntary (2) and (3) .
  8. Marriage is the legal union of two individuals when (1) a and (2) solemnized.
  9. State of Mind required for marriage is (1) capacity and (2) .
  10. Common Law Marriage occurs when a couple is considered legally married if (1) (2) holding themselves out to the public as married and (3) .
  11. Pre-Marital Agreements are legally enforceable contracts between the parties that provide distribution of the marital assets when (1) (2) and (3) .
  12. Post-Marital Agreements are legally enforceable contracts formed after the marriage to divide the marital property if (1) (2) and (3) .
  13. Marriage is the legal union of two individuals when (1) a and (2) .
  14. State of Mind required for marriage is (1) and (2) .
  15. Common Law Marriage occurs when a couple is considered legally married if (1) (2) and (3) .

Divorce

0 Correct out of 2
  1. Annulment is a judicial declaration that a marriage was void and never valid if due to (1) (2) incapacity (3) consanguinity or (4) age.
  2. Divorce is a decree that terminates the marriage when (1) irretrievably broken (2) living separate and apart for more than 6 months or (3) .
  3. Annulment is a judicial declaration that a marri was void and never valid if due to (1) bigamy or polygamy (2) incapacity (3) or (4) .
  4. Divorce is a decree that terminates the marriage when (1) (2) living separate and apart for more than 6 months or (3) .
  5. Annulment is a judicial declaration that a marri was void and never valid if due to (1) (2) (3) or (4) .
  6. Divorce is a decree that terminates the marriage when (1) (2) or (3) .

Property

0 Correct out of 4
  1. Property that is acquired during the marriage is presumed to be marital property unless (1) (2) gifts or inheritance in their sole name or (3) passive income from separate property.
  2. Equitable Division of Property refers to the courts process of dividing (1) and (2) the property acquired during the marriage on an equitable basis.
  3. Community Property is property (1) acquired during the marriage (2) .
  4. Comingled property is (1) separate property (2) that is and (3) becomes martial property.
  5. Property that is acquired during the marriage is presumed to be marital property unless (1) owned prior to the marriage and kept separate (2) or (3) .
  6. Equitable Division of Property refers to the courts process of dividing (1) and (2) the property acquired during the marriage on an equitable basis.
  7. Community Property is property (1) (2) will be split fairly between the spouses.
  8. Comingled property is (1) (2) that is mixed with marital property and (3) .
  9. Property that is acquired during the marriage is presumed to be marital property unless (1) (2) or (3) .
  10. Equitable Division of Property refers to the courts process of dividing (1) and (2) the .
  11. Community Property is property (1) (2) .
  12. Comingled property is (1) (2) that is and (3) .

Custody

0 Correct out of 1
  1. Custody is the primary standard of care to determine to all (1) (2) time sharing and (3) support is in the best interest of the child.
  2. Custody is the primary standard of care to determine to all (1) (2) and (3) support is in the best interest of the child.
  3. Custody is the primary standard of care to determine to all (1) (2) and (3) .

Support

0 Correct out of 3
  1. Child Support is the duty of (1) both parents (2) to (3) until at least 18 years of age (4) unless dependent is mentally or physically handicapped.
  2. Modification of support must show (1) a (2) material (3) unanticipated change of circumstances.
  3. Spousal Support is the support of one spouse by another spouse in the form of (1) (2) bridge-the-gap (3) rehabilitative (4) durational or (5) permanent alimony.
  4. Child Support is the duty of (1) (2) to support their child (3) until at least 18 years of age (4) unless .
  5. Modification of support must show (1) a (2) (3) unanticipated change of circumstances.
  6. Spousal Support is the support of one spouse by another spouse in the form of (1) (2) (3) rehabilitative (4) durational or (5) .
  7. Child Support is the duty of (1) (2) to (3) until at (4) unless .
  8. Modification of support must show (1) a (2) (3) .
  9. Spousal Support is the support of one spouse by another spouse in the form of (1) (2) (3) (4) or (5) .

Adoption

0 Correct out of 1
  1. Adoption requires the (1) consent to of both biological parents and (2) .
  2. Adoption requires the (1) consent to of both biological parents and (2) .
  3. Adoption requires the (1) and (2) .
  • Will Trusts and Estates

Will Trusts and Estates

0 Correct out of 28
  1. Testamentary Intent is the (1) of the (2) individual that this is their will.
  2. Attestation Clause is a clause (1) and (2) above the signatures (3) that certifies the will requirements have been fulfilled.
  3. Incorporation by Reference are documents that are not part of the will may be incorporated when (1) Testator’s intent to incorporate (2) and (3) document existed.
  4. Trust is a fiduciary relationship in which (1) one party (2) (3) for benefit of designated beneficiaries.
  5. Wills are the instrument that directs the distribution of property of the decedent and shall (1) be in writing (2) signed by the testator and (3) .
  6. Intervivos Gift is a gift given by a living person to another with (1) (2) delivery and (3) acceptance.
  7. Intestate Succession is the (1) distribution of property (2) of the decedent (3) .
  8. Codicils are (1) changes (2) or (3) modifications to an already existing will that meet the will requirements.
  9. Advancements are a (1) gift made during the testator’s life or (2) (3) with the intent that the gift be applied to any share the party would receive.
  10. Simultaneous Death means one spouse cannot take as heir to the beneficiary unless the spouse survives the decedent with (1) sufficient evidence one spouse died first or (2) there is .
  11. Contesting a will requires an (1) with (2) a pecuniary interest in the beneficiaries.
  12. Revival is the act of (1) that (2) revoked the will (3) thus reviving the prior will.
  13. Ademption is the gift of (1) (2) that is no longer available in the estate.
  14. Revocation is the act of the testator to revoke the will at any time by (1) revocation evidenced in writing (2) or (3) partial revocation.
  15. Holographic Wills are handwritten wills that must (1) be in the testator’s handwriting (2) and (3) signed by the Testator.
  16. Pretermitted Children are (1) children born or (2) .
  17. Resulting Trust is a (1) (2) resulting in a trust implied by law.
  18. Adopted Children are treated (1) (2) for purposes of intestate succession.
  19. Undue Influence occurs when (1) (2) the testator’s free will and mind were overpowered and (3) the testator’s will would not have been executed but for the undue influence.
  20. Fraud occurs when the testator was (1) and (2) the testator relied upon those misrepresentations.
  21. Constructive Trust is an (1) (2) to rectify unjust enrichment.
  22. Capacity is required for a will to be valid at the time of execution when (1) the individual is over the age of 18 (2) they understand the act of the will (3) the property to be disposed (4) the and (5) the nature of the disposition in a common scheme.
  23. Trustees Duties consist of a duty to (1) administer (2) loyalty (3) report (4) (5) protect the trust and (6) preserve property.
  24. Integration is when separate documents become integrated in the will when (1) the and (2) intent of the Testator to be included.
  25. Abatement is when the estates value is (1) insufficient to pay obligations and (2) .
  26. Trust requires the settlor to have (1) capacity (2) intent to create the trust (3) definite beneficiary (4) named competent trustee (5) clear disposition of settlor’s specific property and (6) .
  27. Slayer Statute is one who (1) (2) forfeits the decedents estate.
  28. Disclaimer is the act of (1) one party (2) in (3) the decedent’s estate that would have passed to the other party.
  29. Testamentary Intent is the (1) of the (2) individual that this is their will.
  30. Attestation Clause is a clause (1) and (2) above the signatures (3) that .
  31. Incorporation by Reference are documents that are not part of the will may be incorporated when (1) (2) document is authenticated and (3) .
  32. Trust is a fiduciary relationship in which (1) (2) (3) for benefit of designated beneficiaries.
  33. Wills are the instrument that directs the distribution of property of the decedent and shall (1) be in writing (2) and (3) .
  34. Intervivos Gift is a gift given by a living person to another with (1) intent (2) and (3) .
  35. Intestate Succession is the (1) distribution of property (2) of the (3) .
  36. Codicils are (1) (2) or (3) modifications to an already existing will that meet the will requirements.
  37. Advancements are a (1) gift made during the testator’s life or (2) (3) with the .
  38. Simultaneous Death means one spouse cannot take as heir to the beneficiary unless the spouse survives the decedent with (1) sufficient evidence one spouse died first or (2) there is .
  39. Contesting a will requires an (1) with (2) a pecuniary interest in the beneficiaries.
  40. Revival is the act of (1) that (2) (3) thus reviving the prior will.
  41. Ademption is the gift of (1) specific property (2) that is .
  42. Revocation is the act of the testator to revoke the will at any time by (1) revocation evidenced in writing (2) or (3) .
  43. Holographic Wills are handwritten wills that must (1) be in the (2) and (3) signed by the Testator.
  44. Pretermitted Children are (1) or (2) adopted after the will was executed.
  45. Resulting Trust is a (1) (2) resulting in a trust implied by law.
  46. Adopted Children are treated (1) the same as a natural child (2) for .
  47. Undue Influence occurs when (1) influence was placed on the testator (2) the and (3) the .
  48. Fraud occurs when the testator was (1) and (2) the testator relied upon those misrepresentations.
  49. Constructive Trust is an (1) equitable remedy (2) to .
  50. Capacity is required for a will to be valid at the time of execution when (1) the (2) they understand the act of the will (3) the (4) the and (5) the nature of the disposition in a common scheme.
  51. Trustees Duties consist of a duty to (1) (2) (3) report (4) (5) protect the trust and (6) preserve property.
  52. Integration is when separate documents become integrated in the will when (1) the and (2) intent of the Testator to be included.
  53. Abatement is when the estates value is (1) and (2) must reduce gifts to satisfy those obligations.
  54. Trust requires the settlor to have (1) (2) intent to create the trust (3) (4) named competent trustee (5) and (6) valid purpose of the trust.
  55. Slayer Statute is one who (1) kills their spouse (2) .
  56. Disclaimer is the act of (1) one party (2) in (3) the .
  57. Testamentary Intent is the (1) of the (2) .
  58. Attestation Clause is a clause (1) and (2) (3) that .
  59. Incorporation by Reference are documents that are not part of the will may be incorporated when (1) (2) and (3) .
  60. Trust is a fiduciary relationship in which (1) (2) (3) for .
  61. Wills are the instrument that directs the distribution of property of the decedent and shall (1) be in (2) and (3) .
  62. Intervivos Gift is a gift given by a living person to another with (1) (2) and (3) .
  63. Intestate Succession is the (1) (2) of the (3) .
  64. Codicils are (1) (2) or (3) .
  65. Advancements are a (1) or (2) (3) with the .
  66. Simultaneous Death means one spouse cannot take as heir to the beneficiary unless the spouse survives the decedent with (1) or (2) there is .
  67. Contesting a will requires an (1) with (2) a .
  68. Revival is the act of (1) that (2) (3) thus .
  69. Ademption is the gift of (1) (2) that is .
  70. Revocation is the act of the testator to revoke the will at any time by (1) (2) or (3) .
  71. Holographic Wills are handwritten wills that must (1) be in the (2) and (3) .
  72. Pretermitted Children are (1) or (2) .
  73. Resulting Trust is a (1) (2) .
  74. Adopted Children are treated (1) (2) for .
  75. Undue Influence occurs when (1) (2) the and (3) the .
  76. Fraud occurs when the testator was (1) and (2) the .
  77. Constructive Trust is an (1) (2) to .
  78. Capacity is required for a will to be valid at the time of execution when (1) the (2) they (3) the (4) the and (5) the .
  79. Trustees Duties consist of a duty to (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) and (6) .
  80. Integration is when separate documents become integrated in the will when (1) the and (2) .
  81. Abatement is when the estates value is (1) and (2) .
  82. Trust requires the settlor to have (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) and (6) .
  83. Slayer Statute is one who (1) (2) .
  84. Disclaimer is the act of (1) (2) in (3) the .
  • Secured Transactions

Secured Transactions

0 Correct out of 15
  1. Accessions are goods that are (1) (2) other goods.
  2. Collateral is property that is subject to (1) a or (2) agricultural lien.
  3. After Acquired Property is property to be owned by the debtor in the future which allows the secured party to have an interest in (1) and (2) future property.
  4. Certificate of Title is a notation on the title document that applies to (1) cars excluding inventory or (2) .
  5. Purchase-Money Security Interest is a (1) security interest in (2) the that (3) was purchased in part by the debtor with funds given to create the security interest.
  6. Perfection is (1) notice to third parties of (2) the .
  7. Rights on Default arises when the debtor fails to fulfill their obligations to the creditor causing (1) collections (2) repossession (3) sale of the collateral (4) of (5) strict foreclosure.
  8. Security Interests can be created by (1) possession (2) or (3) a security agreement.
  9. Attachment allows the (1) (2) against the debtor when (3) the security agreement is properly executed.
  10. Security Agreement shall contain (1) value of the collateral (2) and (3) rights in the described collateral.
  11. Secured Transaction is governed by UCC Article 9 when intended to create a security interest in (1) or (2) fixtures.
  12. UCC Financing Statement is a (1) written authenticated record of the debtor (2) with the correct spelling of the debtor’s name (3) the creditor’s name and (4) .
  13. Fixture is when personal property has become so affixed into (1) the real estate that (2) .
  14. Priority is where the (1) (2) third parties that may have a right in (3) the collateral.
  15. Fixture Filing is a financing statement filed (1) in the county where the property is located (2) which the .
  16. Accessions are goods that are (1) physically united with (2) .
  17. Collateral is property that is subject to (1) a security interest or (2) .
  18. After Acquired Property is property to be owned by the debtor in the future which allows the secured party to have an interest in (1) and (2) future property.
  19. Certificate of Title is a notation on the title document that applies to (1) or (2) goods that are subject to title.
  20. Purchase-Money Security Interest is a (1) security interest in (2) the that (3) was .
  21. Perfection is (1) notice to third parties of (2) the .
  22. Rights on Default arises when the debtor fails to fulfill their obligations to the creditor causing (1) (2) (3) (4) redemption of (5) strict foreclosure.
  23. Security Interests can be created by (1) (2) control or (3) a .
  24. Attachment allows the (1) (2) when (3) the security agreement is properly executed.
  25. Security Agreement shall contain (1) value of the collateral (2) and (3) .
  26. Secured Transaction is governed by UCC Article 9 when intended to create a security interest in (1) personal property or (2) .
  27. UCC Financing Statement is a (1) (2) with the correct spelling of the debtor’s name (3) the and (4) description of the collateral.
  28. Fixture is when personal property has become so affixed into (1) the that (2) it becomes part of the .
  29. Priority is where the (1) (2) third parties that may have a right in (3) the .
  30. Fixture Filing is a financing statement filed (1) in the county where the property is located (2) which the .
  31. Accessions are goods that are (1) (2) .
  32. Collateral is property that is subject to (1) a or (2) .
  33. After Acquired Property is property to be owned by the debtor in the future which allows the secured party to have an interest in (1) and (2) .
  34. Certificate of Title is a notation on the title document that applies to (1) or (2) .
  35. Purchase-Money Security Interest is a (1) in (2) the that (3) was purchased in part by the debtor with funds given to create the .
  36. Perfection is (1) of (2) the .
  37. Rights on Default arises when the debtor fails to fulfill their obligations to the creditor causing (1) (2) (3) (4) of (5) .
  38. Security Interests can be created by (1) (2) or (3) a .
  39. Attachment allows the (1) (2) when (3) the .
  40. Security Agreement shall contain (1) (2) and (3) .
  41. Secured Transaction is governed by UCC Article 9 when intended to create a security interest in (1) or (2) .
  42. UCC Financing Statement is a (1) (2) (3) the and (4) .
  43. Fixture is when personal property has become so affixed into (1) the that (2) it becomes part of the .
  44. Priority is where the (1) (2) in (3) the .
  45. Fixture Filing is a financing statement filed (1) in the (2) which the .

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