Beyond Reasonable Doubt

How good is your memory? Select the missing elements in order to complete the rule statement.

How good is your memory? Select the missing elements in order to complete the rule statement.

Choose a topic

  • Contracts
  • Evidence
  • Torts
  • Criminal Law
  • Constitutional Law
  • Criminal Procedure
  • Civil Procedure
  • Property Law
  • Business Associations
  • Family Law
  • Will Trusts and Estates
  • Secured Transactions

Choose a Level

  • Beginner
  • Intermediate
  • Advanced

Let's Play!

  • Contract Basics
  • Contract Formation
  • Defenses
  • Terms
  • UCC
  • Common Law Performance
  • Nonperformance Excuses
  • Changes to Contract Terms
  • Third Party
  • Damages

Contract Basics

0 Correct out of 7
clear
UCC Article 2
land
infants
present intent to contract
bargained for exchange of
performance longer than a year
clear expression of assent
mentally incompetent individuals
executorship
consideration
suretyship
to the contract terms
goods over $500
objective manifestation
legal value
offer
marriage
no defenses
Common Law
acceptance
between the parties
  1. Contract is an...
  2. Offer is a...
  3. Acceptance is a...
  4. Consideration is a...
  5. Incapacity applies to...
  6. Statute of Frauds requires certain contracts to be in writing which include...
  7. Applicable law for all contracts is governed by either...

Contract Formation

0 Correct out of 7
acceptance with additional terms
offeree becomes aware of the offeror’s unambiguous conduct
acceptance of the contract terms
rejection by offeree
lapse of time
detrimental reliance
don’t apply to options contract
an options contract
UCC firm offer
an unambiguous statement by the offeror to the offeree
conditional acceptance
promises to ship goods
counteroffer
upon dispatch
an express rejection
revocation by offeror
promptly ship goods
offeree begins performance
offeror has knowledge that offeree has begun performance
  1. Offer Terminates upon...
  2. Rejection occurs when there is...
  3. Revocation consists of...
  4. Irrevocable Offer is...
  5. Acceptance by Shipment occurs when the individual...
  6. Mailbox Rule is...
  7. Acceptance by Performance occurs when the...

Defenses

0 Correct out of 7
promise
material fact
promisor expects reliance
mistaken to
prior to contract formation or performance
injustice will occur without the enforcement of the promise
signed writing by the party to be charged
both parties are
at time of contract formation
contract entered
false assertion of
which overcomes the party’s free will
under excessive pressure
no obligation to perform
part performance
wrongful act
by an individual susceptible to pressure
factual assumption of the contract
detrimental reliance occurs
  1. Illusory Promise is a...
  2. Promissory Estoppel occurs when...
  3. Satisfying Statute of Frauds occurs when either...
  4. Fraud is a...
  5. Undue Influence is a...
  6. Duress is a...
  7. A Mistake occurs when...

Terms

0 Correct out of 3
non-carrier merchant sells to buyer and takes physical possession
contradict the written contract
shipment by common carrier upon dispatch
express warranty
supplement
non-carrier non-merchant buyer need only tender delivery
implied warranty for a particular purpose
implied warranty of merchantability
  1. The Parole Evidence Rule is extrinsic evidence to a written contract is inadmissible to...
  2. Risk of Loss occurs when...
  3. Warranties consists of...

UCC

0 Correct out of 4
with respect to their manner of delivery
in separate lots
accept in whole
reject in part
time for performance has not yet expired
in perfect tender
accept in part
seller gives buyer notice of intent to cure
buyer has notified seller of imperfect tender
delivery
reject in whole
goods must be delivered
  1. Perfect Tender are...
  2. Installment Contract is...
  3. Buyers Options regarding delivery consist of...
  4. Right to Cure delivery occurs when...

Common Law Performance

0 Correct out of 2
where the other party is obligated to perform or complete their performance
where the other party is deprived of the benefit of the contract
substantial benefit incurred to one party
one party has substantially performed
  1. Substantial Performance occurs when...
  2. Material Breach is a...

Nonperformance Excuses

0 Correct out of 6
the party will not perform the contract
that can be terminated by either party
objectively impossible
at any time
performance
clear
performance is
unambiguous act
event is not the fault of the parties
with extreme and unreasonable difficulty or expense
destroys the purpose of the contract
only possible
agreement
subsequent to the required performance of the contract
unexpected event
precedent
  1. Conditions are either...
  2. Anticipatory Repudiation is a...
  3. Impossibility is...
  4. Impracticability is...
  5. Frustration of Purpose is an...
  6. At-will-employment is an...

Changes to Contract Terms

0 Correct out of 2
existing parties to a contract
consideration is now required
mutual assent
existing parties
agree to substitute a new party
alter the original contract terms where
to perform the contract
  1. Modification occurs when...
  2. Novation is when...

Third Party

0 Correct out of 3
intended the third party
parties of the contract
parties of the contract
relies upon the contract
to benefit from the contract
files suit
assents
for the third party to benefit from the contract
did not intend
  1. Intended Beneficiaries are...
  2. Third Party Rights Vest when the third party...
  3. Incidental Beneficiaries are...

Damages

0 Correct out of 5
commercially reasonable expenses
reasonable
foreseeable losses
indirectly resulting from the breach of contract
put the non-breaching party
unforeseeable
which flow from the breach of the contract
unique goods
occur prior to contract formation
damages that are not personal services
land
economic position had the party completed the contract
  1. Expectation Damages are the standard measure of money damages that...
  2. Consequential Damages are...
  3. Incidental damages are...
  4. Specific Performance are...
  5. Liquidated Damages are an agreed upon amount of damages which...
  • Relevance
  • Character Evidence
  • Impeachment
  • Testimonial Evidence
  • Testimonial Privilege
  • Evidence
  • Hearsay
  • Confrontation Clause

Relevance

0 Correct out of 8
Federal Rules of Evidence
any other rule established by the Supreme Court of the United States
probative value
United States Constitution
fault
an inadequate warning
presenting duplicative evidence
undue delay or waste of time
settlements
misleading the jury
than it would be without the evidence
substantially outweighed by
payments or offers to pay medical expenses
party’s ability to pay damages
defect
liability insurance
conducted outside the presence of the jury
subsequent remedial measures
confusion of issues
federal statute
more or less probable
it is used to prove ownership
the danger of unfair prejudice
prove fault
makes a fact
court-ordered hearing on admissibility of evidence
  1. Relevant evidence (401) is evidence that...
  2. Excluded evidence (402) is evidence that is excluded if it is barred by...
  3. Probative value (403) is the exclusion of relevant evidence if...
  4. Unfair Prejudice consist of...
  5. Evidentiary Hearings are...
  6. Liability Insurance is generally not admissible to...
  7. Subsequent Remedial Measures taken after an injury or event are inadmissible to prove...
  8. Relevant evidence based on public policy grounds may be excluded if it involves...

Character Evidence

0 Correct out of 7
rebutted by the prosecution
probative value is substantially outweighed by the danger of unfair prejudice
prior relationship between the victim and defendant
common plan or scheme
victim’s violent character reflects
third party is the source of the DNA or injury
notify the victim 14 days prior to trial
Defendant and once introduced
if the Defendant first offers evidence of the victim’s character
sexual assault
victim puts their reputation at issue
motive
identity
intent
be disclosed with their intent to offer the evidence
mistake or lack of mistake
describe the evidence’s purpose
victim attacked first
  1. Character Evidence is generally inadmissible; however, is admissible to prove...
  2. Prosecution may not initiate character evidence of the Defendant unless...
  3. Victim’s character evidence can only be introduced by...
  4. In Homicide Cases Defendant may raise self-defense and offer evidence showing...
  5. In Civil Sexual Assault Cases Victim’s character evidence is admissible by reputation, opinion, and specific instances of conduct if...
  6. In Criminal Sexual Assault cases reputation or opinion evidence is inadmissible unless...
  7. Use of Sexual Assault Evidence must...

Impeachment

0 Correct out of 3
credibility of the witness used to
bias
reputation
fact not relevant to
prior inconsistent statements
contradiction
impeach the witness
the issues in the case
prior acts of misconduct
interest
  1. Impeachment is an adverse reflection on the veracity of the witnesses testimony shown by...
  2. Extrinsic Evidence is evidence that challenges the...
  3. Collateral Issues are a...

Testimonial Evidence

0 Correct out of 7
reliable principles relied upon
published
testing
acceptance of others in the field
perception
the adverse party has the chance to enter it into evidence
inspection of the document by the opposing party
leading
communication
qualified
not read into evidence
memory
are or beyond the scope of direct
sincerity
not an expert
rate of error
helpful
witness to not read aloud from the document
proper factual basis formed
the record was made or adopted by the witness when it was fresh in their memory
provided with reasonable certainty
augmentative
helpful to understand or determining a fact
the record accurately reflects witness’s knowledge
rationally based
witness memory is insufficient to testify to the record’s content
witness had knowledge of the subject matter at issue
calls for narrative
personal knowledge
  1. Competency of a witness requires the witness has...
  2. Present Recollection Refreshed involves using documents to refresh the witness’s memory which requires...
  3. Past Recorded Recollection are contents of a record or document that was previously adopted or read into evidence in which...
  4. Objection to questions occurs when the question...
  5. Lay Opinion testimony is admissible if it is based upon...
  6. Expert Opinion testimony may be given if...
  7. Daubert Test are scientific evidence based upon...

Testimonial Privilege

0 Correct out of 4
married at the time of the trial
terminates upon divorce
applies to both criminal and civil proceedings
made to facilitate the provision of legal services
psychotherapist
survives divorce
made during the marriage
limited to criminal cases
attorney client
they are intended to be confidential
can only be invoked by the witness spouse
spousal privilege or marital communications
doctor patient if recognized in the forum state
can be invoked by either spouse
  1. Testimonial Privilege is a privilege that is protected by the Federal Rules of Evidence which include...
  2. Attorney-Client Privilege protects communications between an attorney and a client if...
  3. Spousal Communication privilege applies to communication between spouses who were...
  4. Marital Communication privilege pertains to communication between spouses...

Evidence

0 Correct out of 3
prove the contents of a writing
without formal presentation
by formal request of a party
either on its own initiative
physical that
an original document
any fact as true
by any means that serve to establish authenticity
the proponent produces
  1. Authenticated Evidence is evidence that is...
  2. Best Evidence Rule is evidence that is offered when the original is unavailable to...
  3. Judicial Notice is a court notice that can recognize...

Hearsay

0 Correct out of 15
out of court statement
emotion
statement against interest
under a duty of law
declarant was under the belief of impending death
vicarious statement
refusal
physical condition at the time the statement was made
state of mind
only applies to homicide or all civil cases
testimony
the truth of the matter asserted
by someone with knowledge at or near the time the matters described
sensation
contrary to declarant’s pecuniary gain
lack of memory
concern the declarant’s state of mind
admission
statement is made to physical personnel
reasonable person would not have made the statement unless believed to be true
speaker’s knowledge
dying declaration
declarant is currently unavailable
judicial statements
by a public employee within their scope of duty
prior testimony was given under oath
opportunity to cross examine and a similar motive in doing so
is made during the regular course of business
pecuniary gain
authenticated or certified in writing
excitement or stress
opportunity to cross examine the declarant
occurred at or near the time of the event
the statement was made in regard to the cause of circumstances surround the impending death
is made during or immediately after
offered to prove
describe the activities of a public office or agency
by judicial notice
statements offered against the party procuring declarants unavailability
declarant is unavailable
record or transaction recorded by the business
former testimony under oath
adoptive statements
words to proport the effect of the listener
declarant is unavailable
relate to the startling event in question
legal operative fact
death
privileged
pertaining to the diagnosis of that treatment of condition
describes or explains the event or condition
  1. Hearsay is a...
  2. Admissible Hearsay is an out of court statement consisting of...
  3. Non-Hearsay Exemptions are hearsay statements made by a party opponent that is in the form of...
  4. Declarant Unavailability is admissible if...
  5. Unavailability means the declarant’s testimony is...
  6. Former Testimony Under Oath is testimony given by a person in an earlier proceeding or deposition is admissible if...
  7. Statement Against Interest are admissible if...
  8. Dying Declarations are admissible if...
  9. Present Sense Impression are admissible if...
  10. Excited Utterance are admissible if...
  11. Present State of Mind statements are admissible if...
  12. Physical Condition statements are admissible if...
  13. Business Records are admissible if...
  14. Public Records are admissible if...
  15. Learned Treatises are accepted authority pertaining to a certain field by the expert and can be accepted by...

Confrontation Clause

0 Correct out of 1
in a criminal case
an out-of-court statement
may be excluded if the declarant is unavailable
offered against the defendant
  1. The Confrontation Clause ensures that every defendant has the right to confront witnesses when...
  • Intentional Torts
  • Defenses
  • Defamation
  • Other Torts
  • Negligence
  • Strict Liability
  • Products Liability
  • Nuisance
  • Liability

Intentional Torts

0 Correct out of 9
intentional
Plaintiff suffers emotional distress
intentional
Plaintiff is closely related to the injured third person
causing such harm
intermeddling of another’s personal property
harmful or immediate contact
Plaintiff was present when the injury occurred
physical invasion of one’s real property
voluntary act by the defendant
intentional
voluntary act by the defendant
Defendant
voluntary act
intermeddling of another’s personal property
Defendant knew of the relation
Defendant’s conduct seriously injured a third person
fair market value at the time of conversion
extreme or outrageous act
intentional
intentional
intentional
Plaintiff is confined to a bounded area
intentional
voluntary act by the defendant
Plaintiff suffers severe emotional distress
reasonable apprehension of harmful or immediate contact
  1. Tort is an...
  2. Assault is an...
  3. Battery is an...
  4. False Imprisonment is an...
  5. Intentional Infliction of Emotional Distress is...
  6. Bystander Intentional Infliction of Emotional Distress is the bystander is closely related to the injured person where the...
  7. Trespass to Land is an...
  8. Trespass to chattel is an...
  9. Conversion is the...

Defenses

0 Correct out of 6
reasonable belief
Defendant may use peaceful means
non-deadly force
reasonable belief
threatened injury was more serious than the property interference
properly timed
right to self-defense
application of reasonable
express consent
scope of consent was not exceeded
reasonably necessary
to recover unlawfully taken property
applied reasonable force
  1. Consent is a defense to all intentional torts where the Plaintiff has given...
  2. Self Defense is the...
  3. Defense of Others is the Defendant’s...
  4. Defense of Property is the...
  5. Necessity is a defense to all property damage claims of the Plaintiff’s property which are outweighed in an effort to avoid greater danger when...
  6. Recapture of chattels is a defense to trespass claims when...

Defamation

0 Correct out of 4
that was published
effects business or reputation
harmful to Plaintiff’s reputation
impute women’s chastity
pecuniary damages
that was published
falsity and fault
defamatory statement
loathsome disease
regarding the Plaintiff
crimes of moral turpitude
defamatory statement
spoken conduct where
regarding the Plaintiff
harmful to the Plaintiff’s reputation
  1. Defamation of a Private Citizen is...
  2. Defamation of a public citizen is a...
  3. Slander is...
  4. Slander Per Se is spoken conduct of...

Other Torts

0 Correct out of 6
knows the misrepresentation to be false
misrepresents a material fact in a professional setting
intended to induce reliance
unauthorized use
resulted in monetary loss
Defendant’s misrepresentation of a material fact
of Plaintiff’s
this interreference causes breach
resulting in damages
offensive to a reasonable person
name, image or likeness
damages in the form of pecuniary loss
widespread publication
where the Defendant has knowledge of such relationship
for commercial purposes
justifiable reliance by the Plaintiff
intentionally interferes with that relationship
Plaintiffs’ reasonable expectation of privacy
Plaintiff has a valid contractual relationship
highly offensive to a reasonable prudent person
breach of duty was owed
actual reliance by the Plaintiff
falsehood or material misrepresentation
  1. Appropriation is the...
  2. False Light is the...
  3. Intrusion Upon Seclusion is a...
  4. Intentional Misrepresentation is the...
  5. Negligent Misrepresentation is the Defendant...
  6. Intentional Interference with Business Relations is the...

Negligence

0 Correct out of 15
attributable to the Plaintiff
the ordinance is designed to protect against that type of harm that occurred
zone of danger
close proximity to the Plaintiff
not attributable to the plaintiff
to confer a commercial benefit
owed to the individual
an act of God
business purpose
injuries incurred
damages
the Plaintiff is in the class the ordinance was designed to protect
inference of negligence
falls below the standard of care
attributable to the defendant
Licensee’s own personal
open to the public
children
Defendant establishes that Plaintiff’s conduct
Plaintiff suffers from some physical manifestation
valid ordinance is in place
condition is likely to cause injury
personal injury
intentional tort
alleged breach
dangerous condition
by custom or trade usage
foreseeable Plaintiffs
duty owed
breach
property damage
punitive damages
common carrier or innkeepers
professionals
the potential lost outweighs the risk of remedying the defect
children are in the area
contributed to Plaintiff’s injuries
causation
Owner’s permission for
suffers severe emotional distress from the incident
duty
criminal act
  1. Negligence consists of...
  2. Duty of Care to behave like a reasonable prudent person is owed to...
  3. Specialized Duty of Care is owed to...
  4. Negligence Per Se is established when a...
  5. Attractive Nuisance Doctrine holds the property owners liable for damages if...
  6. Licensee is an individual who enters the land with...
  7. Invitee is an individual who enters the land...
  8. Breach of Duty is a duty that...
  9. Res Ipsa Loquitur is an...
  10. Actual Cause is a causal connection between the...
  11. Proximate Cause is a foreseeable connection to the alleged breach which doesn’t include...
  12. Damages consist of...
  13. Comparative Negligence is a defense to negligence where the Defendant can prove...
  14. Contributory Negligence is the Plaintiff is barred from recovery of the Plaintiff’s injuries if...
  15. Negligent Infliction of Emotional Distress is...

Strict Liability

0 Correct out of 3
cannot be made safe
poses a severe risk
absolute duty to make safe
on another’s property
damages to person or property
causation
reasonably foreseeable damages
resulting from their animal’s conduct
uncommon activity
  1. Strict Liability is an...
  2. Strict Liability abnormally dangers activity is a...
  3. Strict Liability of animal conduct are animal owners are strictly liable for...

Products Liability

0 Correct out of 3
warranty of merchantability
express warranty
commercial supplier
used in a foreseeable manner
manufacturing defect
defective product
fit for particular purpose
design defect
that was the actual or proximate cause
inadequate warning
  1. Products Strict Liability is a...
  2. Types of Defects consist of a...
  3. Types of Warranties include...

Nuisance

0 Correct out of 3
substantial interference
unreasonable interference
of the right to enjoy one’s property
with ones right to enjoy one’s property
tortious invasion
health, safety, or property rights of the public
average community member would be offended
  1. Nuisance is a...
  2. Private Nuisance is a...
  3. Public Nuisance is an...

Liability

0 Correct out of 3
single indivisible injury
recover against the other party for the excess damages paid
combine
acts of two or more Defendants
to the relationship with the Defendant
more than their fair share of damages
Defendant commits a tort
against the Plaintiff
  1. Vicarious Liability is when the...
  2. Joint and Several Liability applies when the...
  3. Contribution allows a...
  • Principles
  • Incohate Crimes
  • Defenses
  • Crimes Against the Person
  • Crimes Against Property

Principles

0 Correct out of 10
proximate cause
purposefully
aids, abets or encourages
mens reus
to commit a crime or unlawful activity
voluntary
causation
actus reus
concurrence
different object
prohibiting the Defendant from being prosecuted separately for each crime
specific intent
between two or more people
cause-in-fact of the criminal act
physical act
different victim
knowingly
agreement
physical act
two or more offenses
malice
occur simultaneously
intent that the principal commits the crime
mental state
principal before, during or after
recklessly
general intent
negligently
  1. Criminal Act requires...
  2. Actus Reus is a...
  3. Mens Rea refers to the required mental state at the time the crime was committed which can be either...
  4. Model Penal Code mental states are either...
  5. Concurrence is the...
  6. Causation is either the...
  7. Transferred Intent occurs when the Defendant is held liable if the intended harm caused affects either a...
  8. Merger occurs when...
  9. Accomplice Liability arises when an individual...
  10. Conspiracy is an...

Incohate Crimes

0 Correct out of 4
another individual to commit a crime with the intent they commit the crime
inciting, urging, or asking
done with the specific intent to complete the crime
intent to commit the targeted crime
committed in furtherance of the conspiracy
an overt act in furtherance of
foreseeable
intentional agreement between two or more people
falls short of completing the crime
  1. Solicitation involves...
  2. Conspiracy is an...
  3. Co-Conspirator Liability holds each co-conspirator liable for the acts that are...
  4. Attempt is an overt act...

Defenses

0 Correct out of 4
Defendant committed a crime under the reasonable belief
Durham Rule
Irresistible Impulse Test
Defendant believed their conduct was reasonably necessary
M’Naghten Rule
necessary to prevent death or serious bodily injury
criminal plan originated with law enforcement
Defendant had no prior pre-disposition to commit the crime
Model Penal Code
  1. Insanity is a defense to all crimes regardless of the intent requirement which may be established under...
  2. Necessity applies when the...
  3. Duress is a defense when the...
  4. Entrapment occurs when the...

Crimes Against the Person

0 Correct out of 11
committed with criminal negligence
to a person or another
intent to kill
kidnapping
of a woman
no time to cool off
killing
carnal knowledge
killing
burglary
Depraved Heart
arson
provocation
of another human
unlawful confinement of a person
with either movement or concealment of the victim
resulting from adequate provocation
unlawful confinement of a person
without her consent
not resulting in Felony Murder
without their consent
by a man other than her husband
resulting in bodily injury or offensive touching
ordinary person to experience sudden and intense passion
reasonable apprehension of imminent bodily harm
rape
Felony Murder
unlawful application of force
robbery
intent to inflict serious bodily harm
intentional
unlawful killing
without their consent
with malice aforethought
  1. Assault is...
  2. Battery is the...
  3. Rape is the...
  4. False Imprisonment is the...
  5. Kidnapping is the...
  6. Murder is the...
  7. The Types of Murder include[TRUNCATE]{intent to kill} (2) {intent to inflict serious bodily harm} (3) {Felony Murder} and (4) {Depraved Heart}
  8. Felony Murder occurs when a killing takes pace during the commission of an inherently dangerous felony such as...
  9. Voluntary Manslaughter is a...
  10. Adequate Provocation occurs when the...
  11. Involuntary Manslaughter is a...

Crimes Against Property

0 Correct out of 9
of another’s personal property
another’s dwelling
entering
another’s personal property
by false statements
stolen property
burning
receiving possession and control
obtaining title to another’s property
purported legal significance
with the intent to defraud
malicious
of past or existing facts
written document
creation or alteration
with the intent to permanently deprive
force or threat
by false statements
of another’s personal property
taking and carrying away
obtaining title to another’s property
with the intent to permanently deprive them of that property
intent to commit a felony therein
breaking
intent to defraud
nighttime
by one in lawful possession
of past or existing facts
another’s dwelling
fraudulent conversion
known or should have known
intent to permanently deprive them of that property
taking and carrying away
  1. Larceny is the...
  2. Embezzlement is the...
  3. False Pretenses involve...
  4. Larceny by Trick occurs when...
  5. Receipt of Stolen Property involves...
  6. Forgery is the...
  7. Robbery is the...
  8. Burglary is the...
  9. Arson is the...
  • Judicial Power
  • Legislative Power
  • Executive Power
  • Federalism
  • Individual Liberties
  • Due Process
  • Fundamental Rights
  • Equal Protection
  • Freedom of Speech

Judicial Power

0 Correct out of 12
claim for money damages paid by the state officer personally
suits between states
mootness
judgement by the state’s highest court
harmed
another branch of government
claim for injunctive relief for violation of the Constitution or federal law
wrongs capable of repetition
voluntary cessation
inherently incapable of judicial resolution
none
injury
class action lawsuits
ripeness
adequate state law ground
states waive sovereign immunity
injury
redressability
standing
final judgement of a lower court
causation
suit involves fourteenth amendment
suffers immediate threat of harm
federal government brings the suit
injured party is unlikely or unable to assert their own rights
independent
other foreign ministers
cases involving foreign ambassadors
Plaintiff’s injury adversely affects their relationship with third parties
bankruptcy proceedings
  1. Justiciability is an ongoing controversy that includes...
  2. Standing is a party must have a concrete interest in the outcome of the claim including...
  3. Injury to all is an...
  4. Ripeness is a Plaintiff has been...
  5. Mootness is a courts ability to hear only live controversies unless...
  6. Political Question Doctrine means federal courts cannot adjudicate constitutional issues such as...
  7. Third Party Standing is a Plaintiff asserts the rights of a third party where the Plaintiff was injured when either...
  8. Original Jurisdiction occurs when the Supreme Court has original jurisdiction over...
  9. Final Judgement occurs when the Supreme Court can only hear cases if there has been...
  10. Adequate and Independent Grounds Doctrine means the Supreme Court cannot review a state court decision that rested on...
  11. Eleventh Amendment bars suits against state governments in federal court unless...
  12. Suits against state officers means a state officer can be sued in federal court when...

Legislative Power

0 Correct out of 9
the scope is clearly defined
land
District of Columbia
general welfare
anyway deemed necessary
approval by the President
not granted to the federal government
economic activities that have a substantial effect on interstate commerce
bicameralism
condition must relate to the purpose of the law at issue
instrumentalities
exclusive authority
Indian reservation
economic activity if there is a rational basis to conclude that in the aggregate, it substantially affects interstate commerce
military
not a delegation of a core power
not prohibited by the States are reserved to the States
condition cannot be unduly coercive
signed within 10 days excluding Sunday
channels
commercial activity
regulate interstate commerce
condition must be clearly stated
  1. Executing a law requires 1) {bicameralism} (2) {approval by the President} and (3) {signed within 10 days excluding Sunday}[/TRUNCATE]
  2. Taxing and Spending Clause grants Congress the authority to tax and spend in...
  3. Police Power occurs when Congress has no general police power except...
  4. Commerce Clause grants Congress the...
  5. Interstate Commerce grants Congress the authority to regulate...
  6. Intrastate Commerce grants Congress the authority to regulate...
  7. Tenth Amendment grants all powers...
  8. Conditional Grants refer to Congress’s ability to induce state regulatory or legislative action through conditional grants provided that...
  9. Delegation of Powers is the broad authority to delegate legislative powers but can only do so when...

Executive Power

0 Correct out of 8
courts
taken while in office
Congress can remove high-level executive officers through its impeachment power
other Federal Officers by a majority vote whereupon a trial in the Senate takes place with a 2/3 majority vote for removal from office
department or agency leadership
Federal Judges
disclosure of presidential papers
appoint ambassadors
accused
inferior officers in the presidency
Vice President
President can remove them freely unless limited by Congress
President
other high-level officers without the consent of the Senate
act as Commander in Chief of the military
civil suits arising from official actions
federal judges
ambassadors
power to represent the United States in foreign affairs
treaties
conversations
convicted of federal crimes
  1. Presidential Appointment Powers consist of...
  2. Congressional Appointment Powers vest in...
  3. Removal Powers are the power of the Executive Branch to remove a high-level executive officer in which...
  4. Impeachment is the House of Representatives can impeach the...
  5. Immunity occurs when the President has absolute immunity from...
  6. Executive Privilege protects against...
  7. Pardon Power is the power retained by the President to pardon those...
  8. Presidential Authority granted by Article II of the United States Constitution allows the President to enter...

Federalism

0 Correct out of 7
necessary to an important state interest
mutual exclusivity
supreme law of the land
state market participant
discriminate against out-of-state competition
tax must be fairly related to some governmental service or benefit
local laws if expressly stated
regulate wholly out-of-state activity
not necessary to achieve an important governmental interest
state law impedes a federal objective
Congressional approval
unduly burden interstate commerce
Congress has a clear intent to legislate exclusivity
traditional government function
relates to civil liberties
substantial nexus within the state
commercial activities
federal law
tax is fairly apportioned to the activity connected to the state
state
  1. Supremacy Clause means a...
  2. Express Preemption means a federal law trumps conflicting...
  3. Implied Preemption occurs when a federal law is silent on confliction and will control when...
  4. Dormant Commerce Clause occurs when state and local law regulate local aspects of interstate commerce when not under the commerce power if it does not...
  5. Dormant Commerce Clause Exceptions include...
  6. Privileges and Immunities Clause is a state may not discriminate against non-state residents when it...
  7. State Taxation means a state tax must have a substantial connection to the state in such a way that it does not interfere with interstate commerce unless...

Individual Liberties

0 Correct out of 8
slavery
liberty
compelling governmental interest
race
substantially related
property without due process of law
necessary to achieve
rationally related
federal
state
important governmental interest
private entity performs an exclusive public function
legitimate government interest
local governments
life
significant state entanglement between the government and private conduct
color
indentured servitude
  1. Government Action only applies to...
  2. Government Action Exceptions include a...
  3. Thirteenth Amendment expressly prohibits...
  4. Fourteenth Amendment are States cannot deprive any person of...
  5. Fifteenth Amendment are States or Federal government cannot deny any citizen the right to vote on the basis of...
  6. Rational Basis means a law is upheld if it is...
  7. Intermediate Scrutiny means a law will be upheld if it is (2) {substantially related} to an (2) {important governmental interest}[/TRUNCATE]
  8. Strict Scrutiny means a law will be upheld if it is...

Due Process

0 Correct out of 4
without just compensation
group members without a judicial trial
existing contractual duties including governmental obligations
public use
specific individuals
reduces the burden required to convict a person for a crime after it was committed
state cannot interfere
criminally punishes conduct that was lawful when done
increases punishment for a crime that has been committed
private property
  1. Contract Clause is a...
  2. Ex Post Fact Clause prohibit states and federal governments from passing retroactive laws if either...
  3. Bill of Attainder prohibit State and Federal governments from passing legislation that punish...
  4. Takings Clause is the government shall not take...

Fundamental Rights

0 Correct out of 1
contraception
abortion
education
raise your family
right to vote
procreation
marriage
travel
  1. Fundamental Rights under the Right of Privacy include...

Equal Protection

0 Correct out of 2
related to self-government and the democratic process
discriminatory motive is present
law is discriminatory on its face
congressional law regulating immigration
facially neutral law applied in a discriminatory manner
  1. Equal Protection Clause means the government cannot treat similarly situated people or groups of people differently when a...
  2. Alienage means a non-United States citizen will be subject to scrutiny unless...

Freedom of Speech

0 Correct out of 12
assembly
impact on speech is no greater than necessary to further the important governmental interest
non-public forum in which speech is reasonably related to some legitimate interest and viewpoint neutral
speech is aimed at causing imminent illegal activity
establish
deceptive
leave open adequate, alternative channels of communication
Constitution allows to be regulated
illegal
sponsor a religion
conduct
appeals to the prurient interest
regulation furthers an important government interest
taken as a whole lacks literary, artistic, or scientific merit
limited or designated public forum via a time, place, and manner restriction
false
religious beliefs
misleading
content neutral
religious
narrowly tailored to serve an important governmental purpose
political
give preference to one religion over another
prohibited
association
substantial likelihood that the speech will bring imminent illegal activity
speech
cultural beliefs
press
patently offensive in its sexual portrayal
concerns illegal activity
government interest is unrelated to suppression of the message
substantially more speech
  1. First Amendment expressly protects the freedom of expression including...
  2. Public Forums means government property is constitutionally required to make speech available if it is...
  3. Private Forums are private properties can restrict speech in...
  4. Vague Law is unconstitutional if a reasonable person cannot tell whether speech is...
  5. Overbreadth Law is unconstitutional if it regulates...
  6. Symbolic Speech is speech that refers to expressive or communicative conduct will be restricted if...
  7. Incitement of Unlawful Activity occurs when fighting words or true threats are restricted if...
  8. Obscenity is the Governmental regulation of lesser protected speech if...
  9. Commercial Speech is the Governmental regulation of unprotected commercial speech if...
  10. Free Exercise Clause means the government is prohibited from punishing someone solely on the basis of that person’s...
  11. Establishment Clause is the governmental prohibition to...
  12. Freedom of Association is the right to participate with others who have similar...
  • 4th Amendment
  • Warrantless Searches
  • Exclusionary Rules
  • Fifth Amendment
  • 6th Amendment
  • Trial Procedures
  • 8th Amendment

4th Amendment

0 Correct out of 8
committed the crime
automobile stop
detainment to obtain a search warrant
valid search warrant
serve a purpose related to automobiles
reasonable suspicion
planning to commit the crime
Defendant has standing
detainment of occupants of a premise
signed by a neutral detached magistrate
whether society is prepared to accept that activity as reasonable
criminal investigation purpose
stationhouse detainment
governmental conduct
presence of exigent circumstances
precise on its face
neutral or an articulable standard
stop & frisk
law was violated
interrogation
subjective expectation of privacy
probable cause
  1. Arrest occurs when an individual is taken into custody for a...
  2. Probable Cause requires trustworthy facts or knowledge sufficient to a reasonable person to believe that the individual has...
  3. Detention is a governmental seizure of the person which could be in the form of...
  4. Automobile Stop occurs when the police have...
  5. Police Checkpoints to search vehicles must be...
  6. Validity of Search & Seizure must be viewed under reasonableness under the Fourth Amendment unless...
  7. Reasonable Expectation of Privacy occurs when the individual has exhibited a...
  8. Search Warrant requires...

Warrantless Searches

0 Correct out of 9
hot pursuit
evanescent evidence
search was limited to area within suspects reach or movement
intelligibly made
reasonable suspicion
frisk is limited to plain feel of weapons or contraband
inspections of highly regulated business or industries
search was contemporaneous with the arrest
consenting person has authority to do so
reasonable suspicion of criminally activity is a foot
routine searches
procedure for searching is reasonably related to the objective
legitimately on premise
probable cause exists
criminal activity is immediately apparent
describe with particularity the subject of conversations that are surveilled
terminate when the information acquired is the information sought
names of suspects subject to surveillance
emergency aid
probable cause that a specific crime has occurred or likely to occur
access to the items were lawful
moderate chance at finding evidence
limited to short time periods
probable cause arises prior to the search beginning
arrest was lawful
length of detainment is no longer than necessary
search is not overly intrusive
consent was voluntary
  1. Search Incident to Lawful Arrest occurs when the police may search a lawfully arrested person in their immediate surrounding without a warrant if...
  2. Plain View Searches occurs when the police search any place where criminal activity is present when viewing if...
  3. Consent to Search occurs when the police search anything if...
  4. Automobile Search occurs when the police search a vehicle if...
  5. Stop & Frisk occurs when the police detain a person for investigative purposes if...
  6. Exigent Circumstances occurs when the police search and seize evidence without a warrant if...
  7. Administrative Searches are conducted by Government agencies for...
  8. Public School Searches occur when school officials have...
  9. Electronic Surveillance requires a warrant when...

Exclusionary Rules

0 Correct out of 2
evidence seized as a result of a Miranda violation
violations of knock and announce rules
grand jury proceedings
government had an independent source to obtain the evidence
attenuation
parole or civil proceedings
inevitable discovery
  1. Exclusionary Rule is illegally obtained evidence is excluded against the defendant unless...
  2. Exclusionary Rule doesn’t apply to...

Fifth Amendment

0 Correct out of 7
separate sovereigns
court accepts a plea agreement
jury is sworn in
any proceeding
invokes the right to remain silent
successful appeal
breach of a plea agreement
intelligently made
any person
manifest necessity
if they cannot afford an attorney, one will be appointed to them
whom have the right to not respond to questions that might incriminate themselves
hung jury
right to remain silent as anything said can be used against them
right to an attorney
in custody
first witness is sworn in
voluntary
knowing
right to their fifth amendment right to counsel
interrogated
  1. Fifth Amendment of the United States Constitution protects...
  2. Miranda Warnings apply to individuals when...
  3. Miranda Warnings is the...
  4. Invoking Miranda occurs when an individual...
  5. Waving Miranda occurs when...
  6. Double Jeopardy occurs when the defendant cannot be retried for the same offense if...
  7. Retrial occurs when...

6th Amendment

0 Correct out of 1
offense specific
charges have been filed
  1. Sixth Amendment Right to Counsel attaches automatically when...

Trial Procedures

0 Correct out of 5
unanimous decision
may be excluded if the declarant is unavailable
right to an impartial jury
held in secret where
offered against the Defendant
no right to Miranda warning
understands the nature of their charge including critical elements, maximum penalty, right to plead not guilty, and right to a jury trial
afforded peremptory challenges
voluntary
an out of court statement is
intelligently made
voluntarily
suspect has no right to confront witnesses
no right to counsel
in a criminal case
jury pool must be a representative cross-section of the community
based on the totality of the circumstances
at least 6 jurors
required in federal court
  1. Grand Jury Proceedings are...
  2. Plea Bargain occurs when the Defendant’s plea is...
  3. Admissions must be made...
  4. Jury Requirements consist of...
  5. Confrontation Clause grants every Defendant the right to confront the witnesses when...

8th Amendment

0 Correct out of 2
insane at the time of the criminal execution
minor when the crime was committed
any cruel
conviction was for felony murder when Defendant was not a participant or didn’t act with depraved heart
unusual punishment
grossly disproportionate to the charged offense
mentally disabled
  1. Cruel and Unusual Punishment consists of...
  2. Death Penalty is only imposed if the victim dies as a result of the Defendant’s crime unless...
  • Personal Jurisdiction
  • Subject Matter Jurisdiction
  • Venue 
  • Service of Process
  • Interlocutory Injunctions
  • Pleadings and Motions
  • Joining Claims
  • Class Actions
  • Discovery
  • Pretrial, Trial, and Appeal 

Personal Jurisdiction

0 Correct out of 6
Defendant’s actions fall within state’s long-arm statutes
present
such that it doesn’t offend the traditional notions of fair play
substantial justice
consent to jurisdiction
relatedness of contacts and claims
service of process is done in the forum state
in rem
action
party’s property
domiciled in the forum state
state interest
quasi in rem
afford an opportunity to be heard
party
convenience
in persona
  1. Personal Jurisdiction is the court’s ability to exercise authority over a...
  2. Personal Jurisdiction consists of...
  3. Personal Jurisdiction is lawful if...
  4. Minimum Contacts with the forum state must be...
  5. Fairness Factors requires Due Process to be fair when...
  6. Notice requires that Defendant must be sufficiently notified of a pending lawsuit in which notice must be reasonably calculated under the circumstances to apprise interested parties of the...

Subject Matter Jurisdiction

0 Correct out of 15
good faith allegation of the damages
share a common nucleus of operative fact with an existing claim
any partner
incorporation occurs
bankruptcy
Diversity Jurisdiction
Federal Question Jurisdiction
physical presence in the state
amount in controversy exceeds $75,000
statute of limitations
postal matters
intent to remain in that state
Supplemental Jurisdiction
controversies between citizens of different states
exceeds $75,000 excluding interest and costs
Removal Jurisdiction
federal question appears on the face of the complaint
domiciled
remove within 30 days of service of first removable opportunity
elements of a claim or defense
to meet the $75,000 requirement
federal court would have had subject matter jurisdiction
not based on allegations or potential defenses
case is already in federal court
intellectual property
if outcome determinative or law that has a stronger interest or prevent forum shopping
time of the lawsuit
single Defendant
member is a citizen
all Defendants agree
from every Defendant
rules for tolling statute of limitations
diverse citizenship
federal anti-trust claims
where the corporation maintains a principal place of business
conflict or choice of law rules
valid federal law that is on point and directly conflicts with state law
  1. Subject Matter Jurisdiction is Federal courts must have authority over the claim in question with either[TRUNCATE]{Diversity Jurisdiction} (2) {Federal Question Jurisdiction} (3) {Supplemental Jurisdiction} or (4) {Removal Jurisdiction}
  2. Diversity Jurisdiction is Federal courts have subject matter jurisdiction over...
  3. Citizenship for Complete Diversity is every Plaintiff must...
  4. Natural Citizens are citizens of the state where...
  5. Domicile factors include...
  6. Business Corporations are citizens of every state where...
  7. Unincorporated Businesses are Citizens of all states in which...
  8. Amount in Controversy is the Plaintiff’s complaint must make a...
  9. Aggregation is the Plaintiff’s compiling of multiple claims against a...
  10. Federal Question is when Federal courts have jurisdiction over proper pleaded claims arising under federal law if the...
  11. Exclusive Jurisdiction is when Federal courts have exclusive jurisdiction over certain types of claims including...
  12. Supplemental Jurisdiction allows federal courts to hear additional claims that on their own would not meet Diversity or Federal Question Jurisdiction if...
  13. Removal Jurisdiction is the Defendant can remove a case, other than diversity jurisdiction filed in Defendants home state, if...
  14. Erie Doctrine is the federal courts application of state substantive law and federal procedural law when...
  15. State Substantive Law will always govern...

Venue

0 Correct out of 2
location of property
all parties consent to the transfer
any district where any Defendant resides
location of claim
the case could have been filed there
Defendant is subject to Personal Jurisdiction
  1. Venue is proper in the judicial district where the Plaintiff brings the suit when...
  2. Venue Transfer is a case may be transferred from one federal court to another federal court, unless venue is proper, if...

Service of Process

0 Correct out of 4
formal request to waive service
any method permitted under state law
who are 18 or older
substituted service
complaint
mailing the Defendant the complaint
non-party
mail
personal service
Defendants authorized agent
summons
  1. Service of Process is the delivery to the Defendant of the...
  2. Any individual may serve...
  3. Acceptable Methods of Service of Process may be completed by...
  4. Waiver is when the Plaintiff requests that Defendant waive service of process by...

Interlocutory Injunctions

0 Correct out of 2
lasts up to 14 days from issuance
necessary to prevent
likely hood of success on the merits
irreparable injury to a party
before a hearing can be heard
moving the party will suffer irreparable harm that does not outweigh harm to the adverse party
  1. Preliminary Injunctions are a court order requiring a person to do or to cease doing something may be granted if...
  2. Temporary Restraining Order are issued by a court when...

Pleadings and Motions

0 Correct out of 16
filing is not for an improper purpose
improper venue
failure to join a necessary party
written consent from the adverse party was given
same transaction
redundant
statement of jurisdiction
vague
lack of personal jurisdiction
ambiguous
same transaction
conduct, transaction, or occurrence
leave of court
independent jurisdiction
occurrence
add a new claim
Defendant states defenses to each claim asserted
required hearing
occurrence as any of the Plaintiffs claims
demand for judgement
same transaction
non-frivolous legal contentions made are warranted by law
occurs within 90 days of filing of the original pleading
immaterial
one party is entitled to judgement as a matter of law
scandalous material in the complaint
safe harbor for 21 days
same transaction
after the statute of limitations has run
insufficiency of service of process
admit or deny each claim
requires a response within 21 days
occurrence as the original pleading
statement of the claim
failure to state a claim
within 21 days after service
judgement rendered by the court
same conduct
impertinent
prior to a verdict
insufficiency of process
no material issue of facts exists
occurrence
lack of subject matter jurisdiction
factual contentions and denials have or likely to have evidentiary support
add or substitute a new Defendant
  1. Complaint is the initial pleading filed by the Plaintiff to begin the lawsuit which requires...
  2. Answer is a response to the complaint in which...
  3. Rule 12 Motions are a Defendant’s response to the validity of Plaintiff’s complaint consisting of...
  4. Motion for a more definitive statement is the Defendant requires more information to answer the complaint if the complaint is...
  5. Motion to strike is the Defendant request to strike any...
  6. Motion for judgement of the pleadings is a...
  7. Compulsory Counterclaim is a clam by the Defendant against the Plaintiff that arises from...
  8. Permissive Counterclaim is a claim by the Defendant against the Plaintiff that does not arise from...
  9. Cross Claims are a claim asserted by a co-party that have...
  10. Relation Back Doctrine applies when a party amends a pleading to...
  11. An amendment will relate back to a new claim if...
  12. An amendment will relate back to a new or substituted Defendant if...
  13. Parties may amend their pleadings once as a matter of course if...
  14. Parties may only amend without a right when...
  15. Rule 11 certifications require the attorney or pro se party, to the best of their ability, certify that the...
  16. Rules 11 sanctions require...

Joining Claims

0 Correct out of 9
Federal Question Jurisdiction or Complete Diversity Jurisdiction
within 14 days after serving their answer
likelihood of prejudice
common questions of fact or law arise
same transaction or occurrence
deposit property with the court
personal jurisdiction of the court
court must have personal jurisdiction over impleaded party
adequate remedies available for the Plaintiff if case is dismissed
absentee has an interest that creates a risk of multiple or inconsistent rulings
without absentee court cannot grant complete relief
no deposit with the court required
joining the parties will not destroy diversity jurisdiction
absent non-party has an unconditional statutory right
less than or equal to $500
no nationwide service required
Defendant cannot claim that third party Defendant is solely liable to Plaintiff
absentee has a claim or defense that shares a common question of law with the underlying action
nationwide service
absent non-party’s interest will be harmed if not joined
absentee is a governmental officer or agency
minimal diversity is present
absentee’s legal interest may be impaired
court has jurisdiction over parties and claims
alternative forum availability
absentee has a conditional statutory right
shape potential relief to avoid prejudice
  1. Permissive Joinder is when the Plaintiff seeks to join non-parties as co-plaintiffs or co-defendants if...
  2. Necessary Parties are absent parties may be forced to join the suit when either...
  3. Necessary Parties must be under...
  4. Indispensable Party is a necessary party who cannot join in which the court could dismiss the claim after evaluating...
  5. Impleader allows Defendant to join a non-party who may be liable to Defendant for all, or part of the claim brought by Plaintiff against the original Defendant if...
  6. Intervention as a right is when a non-party must join an already pending suit if either...
  7. Permissive Intervention is allowed at the court’s discretion if either...
  8. Rule 22 Interpleader allows a property holder to initiate a suit to compel claimants to the property to litigate a dispute if...
  9. Statutory Interpleader allows a property holder to initiate a suit to compel claimants to the property to litigate a dispute if...

Class Actions

0 Correct out of 8
binds all absent class members
adequate representation
class action is superior to other procedures to resolve the dispute
defined class
adequacy
fairly and adequately represent the interest of the whole class
predominated over individual questions
notice may be at the discretion of the court
damages cannot be sought
one class representative claim that exceeds $75,000
must receive reasonable notice
class members may opt out
commonality
approved by the court
diverse class representatives from all opposing parties
opt out is applicable
no right to opt out
due process satisfied by reasonably adequate notice to class members
typicality
adequate
opportunity to opt out if applicable
numerosity
reasonable
fair
  1. Rule 23 of Class Actions means an individual or small group can represent a larger class sharing a common question in a lawsuit if...
  2. Rule 23(b)(2) of Class Actions for Injunctive Relief means an injunctive judgement can be obtained if...
  3. Rule 23(b)(3) of Class Actions for Monetary Damages means a large class action can be sought if...
  4. Personal Jurisdiction for class actions apply to named class members and require...
  5. Diversity Jurisdiction for class actions require...
  6. Class Action Certification is a court’s determination whether to allow the case to proceed as a class action if...
  7. Judgement for class action lawsuits...
  8. Settlement for class action lawsuits must be...

Discovery

0 Correct out of 15
people who have knowledge pertinent to claims and defenses
producing information from
undue hardship to obtain the materials by other means
between client and counsel
attorney-client
acquiring
parties and non-party witnesses
discuss claims, defenses, and settlement
certify they have
clergy
identity of documents
inspection within 30 days after service
not exceed 7 hours
limited to 25 questions
denial
90 days prior to trial
marital
admit
produce a report containing experts’ opinion
lacks sufficient knowledge within 30 days of service
Fifth Amendment right of self-incrimination
non-privileged
no more than 10 total depositions
physician patient
respond within 30 days of service
good cause is shown for the purpose of the examination
review
insurance
30 days prior to trial
data used
party’s health is at issue
proportional to the needs of the case
intended to be and kept confidential
copy
made for the purpose of obtaining or providing legal advice
21 days before scheduling conference
develop a plan for discovery
examines the party under oath
relevant to a claim or defense
sources of discoverable information
attempted to meet and confer to resolve the dispute
substantial need for the material
journalist source
qualifications
damages sought
detailed information about the evidence to be used at trial
work product
  1. Discovery is a court mandated process of...
  2. Meet and Confer must...
  3. Discovery is material if...
  4. Undiscoverable privileged material includes...
  5. Mandatory Disclosures are required to the opposing party regardless of request including...
  6. Expert disclosures require the identity of experts who may be used at trial and must occur...
  7. Pretrial disclosures require the parties of the suit to...
  8. Interrogatories are written questions proposed by one party to an opposing party...
  9. Requests for Production are written requests to one party to make documents or other items within the parties control available for...
  10. Request for Admission are written requests to parties to answer the truth of discoverable information with an...
  11. Physical or Mental Examination of another party is available through the court when...
  12. Depositions are oral proceedings in which an attorney...
  13. Attorney Client Privilege protects information exchanged confidentially between an attorney and client when...
  14. Work Product Privilege protects material prepared in anticipation of litigation or trial are not discoverable unless the opposing party shows...
  15. Protective Order is a court order limiting discovery of material sought by a party to prevent disclosure of privileged material where the moving party must...

Pretrial, Trial, and Appeal

0 Correct out of 11
no genuine issue of material fact
insufficient evidence
28 days after entry of judgement
judgement has been satisfied or discharged
bankruptcy
de novo standard of review
collateral order
moving party is entitled to judgement as a matter of law
asserted against actual party in previous case
same claim
Defendant is not a minor or incompetent
same parties
entered based upon a serious error
issue was essential to judgement
admiralty
appealed within 30 days of entry of final judgement
fraud or misrepresentation
new undiscoverable evidence at time of trial
appointment of receivership
any other reason that justifies relief
final judgement on the merits
same issue
no less than 30 days after the close of discovery
Defendant has not responded at all
Claim is for money damages
property
injunction
after the court enters judgement based in the jury verdict
Plaintiff files for default judgement against Defendant
void judgement
mandamus
class action certification
sufficient evidentiary basis to disagree with the result
renewed by the losing party
final judgement on the merits
without cause
mistake was made
questions of facts
Plaintiff provides an affidavit of sum owed
prior to the case going to jury
within 28 days after entry of judgement
with cause
  1. Voluntarily Dismissal occurs when the Plaintiff dismisses their case...
  2. Default Judgement entered by Clerk may occur if...
  3. Summary Judgement can be filed by either party...
  4. Judgement as a Matter of Law is a motion brought by either party...
  5. Renewed Judgement as a Matter of Law is a motion brought by either party...
  6. Motion for New Trial may be filed by either party...
  7. Motion to Set Aside Judgement or Order may be granted by a court to relieve a party from judgement or order when any of the following are present...
  8. Appellate Courts review protentional errors by lower courts when...
  9. Interlocutory Appeals can be filed prior to judgement when the appeal pertains to...
  10. Claim Preclusion occurs when one party had an opportunity to litigate the claim and cannot refile once final judgement has been ordered if...
  11. Issue Preclusion prevents re-litigation of a particular issue of fact or law that have been previously litigated when...
  • Estates in Land
  • Concurrent Estates
  • Leasehold Estates
  • Servitudes
  • Adverse Possession
  • Land Sale Contracts
  • Mortgages

Estates in Land

0 Correct out of 10
for the life of the interest holder
subject to a condition precedent
right of reentry
necessary for repairs
possibility of reverter
third party
no later than 21 years
within a life in being at the time of creation
not automatically forfeited
vested remainders subject to total divestment
unascertained person
interest on encumbrances
expressly gives right to exploit
economically benefits the land
not paying taxes
automatically
indefeasibly vested remainders
freely transferable
neglect
commits waste
vest or fail
freely transferable
interest in land
vested remainder subject to open
freely transferable
automatically transfers
exploited prior to grant
  1. Fee Simple Determinable is a fee simple estate which is potentially infinite that occurs...
  2. Fee Simple Subject to Condition Subsequent is a potentially infinite fee simple estate that...
  3. Fee Simple Subject to an Executory Interest is a potentially infinite fee simple estate that...
  4. Life Estate is an...
  5. Affirmative Waste is a type of waste that the Life Tenant cannot consume or exploit the natural resources of the land except...
  6. Permissive Waste is a type of waste where the Life Tenant cannot harm the property including...
  7. Ameliorative Waste is a type of waste where the Life Tenant...
  8. Vested Remainder is a remainder that automatically becomes possessory upon the natural expiration of the preceding events if...
  9. Contingent Remainder is a remainder that is not automatically possessory but contingent if...
  10. Rule Against Perpetuities is an interest in land must...

Concurrent Estates

0 Correct out of 6
execution by a joint creditor
title
severed interest
Tenancy in Common
marriage concurrently exist
possession
time
interest
mutual agreement
interest
death of one co-tenant
each co-tenant
time
no survivorship rights
title
issuance of a divorce decree
freely transferable
right to possess the whole
possession concurrently exist
  1. Tenancy in Common is an estate with multiple tenants in which each co-tenant owns a distinct undivided interest while each has a right to possess the whole estate that is...
  2. Joint Tenancy is an estate that is created when...
  3. Severance of a Joint Tenancy creates a...
  4. Tenancy by the Entirety is an estate that is created when...
  5. Severance of a Tenancy by the Entirety creates a Tenancy in Common when...
  6. Possession is when...

Leasehold Estates

0 Correct out of 18
tenant wrongfully possesses the property
use
substantial interference
duty to deliver possession
use property in a legal manner
transfer of title by the landlord
enjoy the land
residential property
entire transfer of the leasehold estate
fit for human dwelling
latent defects
fixed to real property
tenancy at will
seasonal or short-term lease of a furnished dwelling
effective termination date is at the end of the periodic tenancy
waste by the tenant
assignment by the tenant
terminable by either party at any time
sufficiently timed
reduce or withhold rent
death by either party
implied warranty of habitability
once movable object
public use
express agreement
repair
free from interference
pay rent
will
remain and seek damages
tenancy for years
sublessor to sublessee
lease by the landlord to a third party
assumption of repairs
beyond the lease expiration
not commit waste
common areas
Implication
tenant must vacate within a reasonable period
wrongfully evicts
partial transfer of the leasehold estate
move-out
implied covenant of quiet enjoyment
tenancy at sufferance
assignee
tort liability
becomes part of the real property
operation of law
excludes the tenant from the property
operation of law that is continuous for successive intervals
notice was given to Landlord about interference
no fixed duration
ordinary repairs
periodic tenancy
  1. The four types of leasehold estates in which the tenant has a present possessory property interest, and the landlord has a future interest are...
  2. Periodic Tenancy is a leasehold estate that is created when...
  3. Periodic Tenancy terminates when a tenant gives proper notice that is...
  4. Tenancy at Will is a leasehold estate with...
  5. Tenancy at Will terminates upon...
  6. Operation of law occurs when...
  7. Tenancy at Sufferance is created when...
  8. Tenant’s Duty at common law for leasehold estates consist of...
  9. Fixture is a...
  10. Landlord’s Duties and Warranties to tenant consist of...
  11. Implied Covenant of Quiet Enjoyment is the Tenant’s right to...
  12. Actual Eviction is the Landlord...
  13. Constructive Eviction is the Landlord’s action or inactions render the property uninhabitable whereupon there is...
  14. Implied Warranty of Habitability means the...
  15. Breach of the Implied Warranty of Habitability grants the Tenants remedies against the landlord consisting of...
  16. Landlord’s Tort Liability to Tenant for injuries occurring on the leased property consist of...
  17. Assignment consists of a...
  18. Sublease consists of a...

Servitudes

0 Correct out of 17
intent
laches
hostile
another’s land
individual
touches and concerns the land
air
uncleans hands doctrine
intent
enter a servient estate
entitles a dominant estate owner
after the division of land
open and notorious
revocable right
common plan or scheme
reasonably necessary for enjoyment of the dominant tenant
change in neighborhood
vertical privity
destruction of servient tenement
touches and concerns the land
non-possessory interest
expires when the necessity ends
writing
prescription
support
release
expiration
merger of benefited and burden estates
estoppel
notice
estoppel
notice
continuous
to do
easement exists prior to division of land
written releases
passes automatically
touches and concerns the land
abandonment
impossible without the easement
horizontal and vertical privity
be in writing
have intent
be in writing
entity to use the servient estate
acquiescence
remove resources from the land
actual
merger
condemnation of burdened property
light
refrain from doing something related to one’s land
stream of water from an artificial flow
confers a right to uses another’s land
continuous and apparent
necessity ends
notice
  1. Easement is a...
  2. Easement Appurtenant is a type of easement that...
  3. Easement in Gross is a type of easement which entitles an...
  4. Easement by Prescription requires the use of another’s land to be...
  5. Easement by Implication is an easement based upon prior use where...
  6. Easement by Necessity is an easement where access to and from the property is...
  7. Negative Easement is created only by an express grant where the holder of the easement prevents the servient landowner from engaging in otherwise permissible actions such as...
  8. Easement may be terminated by...
  9. License is a...
  10. Profit is a non-possessory property interest entitling the holder to...
  11. Covenant is a promise...
  12. Covenant terminates upon...
  13. Burdening covenant that runs with the land must...
  14. Benefiting covenant that runs with the land requires...
  15. Equitable Servitudes are covenants that are enforced through equity against successors through injunctive relief which must...
  16. Defenses to Equitable Servitude include...
  17. Reciprocal Negative Servitude are covenants where the land is subdivided into parcels with restrictions attached that are created by...

Adverse Possession

0 Correct out of 2
actual and exclusive
open and notorious
successive
privity between the possessors
hostile
continuous for the statutory period
  1. Adverse Possession is when a trespasser acquires title to another’s property without compensation if the trespasser’s possession of the land is...
  2. Tacking permits an adverse possessor to add the current period of possession to that of another’s prior adverse possession to establish continuous control if...

Land Sale Contracts

0 Correct out of 11
signed by the parties to be charged
first subsequent bona fide purchaser
unconnected to the chain of title
whether the buyer was a bona fide purchaser
cannot acquire the same land
during the escrow process
record prevails
right to convey
make no materially false statements
further assurances
articulate the essential terms of the land sale
recorded deed
first grantee to record prevails regardless
inquiry notice
actual notice
quiet enjoyment
warranty
record notice
over a prior grantee who fails to record
against encumbrances
promise to disclose
lawfully executed
Grantor does not then own
subsequent bona fide purchaser always prevails
prior to deed delivery from the Seller
transfer of real property to the Buyer
delivered
seisin
Grantor who conveys title to land
promise to provide marketable title
in writing
  1. Contract for the Sale of Land must comply with the statute of frauds and be...
  2. Equitable Conversion is the...
  3. Land Sale Contract must contain...
  4. Deed is the legal title which passes from Seller to Buyer that is...
  5. General Warranty Deed is a deed that must contain all covenants including...
  6. Bona Fide Purchaser for Value is one who purchases property for value without notice of the prior conveyance including...
  7. Notice Statute is...
  8. Race Notice Statute is the...
  9. Race Statute is the...
  10. Wild Deed is a...
  11. Estoppel by Deed is...

Mortgages

0 Correct out of 2
certain conditions are not met
used as collateral to acquire the loan for the land
mortgagor to pay the full loan immediately
security interest on the land
  1. Purchase Money Mortgage is a...
  2. Acceleration Clause is a loan agreement that requires the...
  • Agency
  • Types of Partnerships
  • Liability
  • Corporations
  • LLC

Agency

0 Correct out of 10
reimbursement
consent
cooperation
Agent disclosed to the Third Party the Principals identity
conduct was within the scope of the employee’s employment
acting on behalf of the Principal
loyalty
express authority
Principal holds the agent out as having authority to act on the Principal’s behalf
implied authority
Principal has knowledge of the facts
expiration
existence of an employer-employee relationship
Principal affirmed those actions
care
expressed by the parties
compensation
Principal’s conduct causes a third party to reasonable rely on the Agent’s appearance of authority
control
obedience
Agent had authority from the Principal
behalf of the Principal
purpose is fulfilled
Agent acts on behalf of the Principal
outside the scope of employment
  1. Agency Relationship is created by a Principal and an Agent when there is the presence of...
  2. Termination of an agency relationship occurs when...
  3. Principal Rights afforded to the agent are...
  4. Agent Rights afforded to the principal are...
  5. Actual Authority is given by the Principal to the Agent in either...
  6. Apparent Authority occurs when...
  7. Ratification occurs when...
  8. Liability of the Principal and Agent to the Third Party will depend if...
  9. Respondent Superior means the Principal will be liable when there is...
  10. Independent Contractors are generally not liable for committing acts...

Types of Partnerships

0 Correct out of 11
file the appropriate statement with the state
ownership of property
parties intent
loyalty
care
filing the appropriate statement with the state
carrying out the partnership business
transferable
shared equally upon each partner
termination of the partnership
use of property by the partnership
limited partner whom
profit sharing
partnership purchases
for-profit business
copy partnership information
capital contribution by each party
any contract made within the scope of the partnership
general partners
two or more people as co-owners
approval by vote of each partner
any other expressly authorized contract
parties control
associated
inspect
property titled in the partnership’s name
capital contributions
  1. General Partnerships are an association of...
  2. Limited Liability Partnership is created by...
  3. Limited Partnership is a partnership consisting of one or more...
  4. Proving a Partnership exists consists of...
  5. Partnership Property consists of...
  6. Profits and Losses of the partnership are...
  7. Fiduciary Duty owed by the partners to the partnership consist of...
  8. Partnership Books are freely available for partners to...
  9. Contract Liability extends to all partners for...
  10. Dissociation is the act of any partner ceasing to be...
  11. Dissolution is the...

Liability

0 Correct out of 2
each partner is still liable for their own acts
jointly and several liability for all partnership obligations
personal
limited to the partnership itself
  1. Liability of each partner in a Limited Liability Partnership is...
  2. Liability of a Limited Partnership consists of the general partners...

Corporations

0 Correct out of 23
eligible to vote
wait 90 days before filing suit
writing
corporation suit
personally liability
borrows funds from a lender
promises to pay the loan back
board of directors
majority of shares
shareholder votes favored the merger
shareholder suit
who become part owners of the corporation
appointing directors
incorporators
shareholders suit
vote
directors
incorporators
corporation’s officer
conducted business in corporation name
demand the corporation act
stocks
number of shares
officers
separate from its owners
registered agent
special meetings where notice is required
assist in corporate formation
directors
care a person in a similar position believed to appropriate under the circumstances
corporation name
no new business is carried out
debt
annual
shareholders ability
legal entity
raise capital
board vote
conduct corporate planning
drafting bylaws
approve fundamental changes of the corporate structure
personal interest
winding up occurs
liquidate assets
good faith
good faith effort to comply with state’s incorporation laws
shareholders
officers for their actions or debts
enforce
present
rights of the corporation
director
law exists in which the corporation could become legally incorporated
state action
cause of action exists by the corporation, but the corporation fails to pursue it
in writing
transaction
all contracts formed prior to corporation formation
corporation
corporation
shareholders
combination of debt and stocks
best interest of the corporation
  1. Corporation is a...
  2. Article of Incorporation form a corporation when filed within the state that consist of...
  3. Bylaws are written rules for managing the corporation and shall be enacted by...
  4. Promoter is an individual that acts on behalf of a yet to be formed corporation to...
  5. Liability of the Promoter consists of...
  6. Ultra Vires are corporate acts outside the stated purpose where the consequences consist of...
  7. De Facto Corporation is a failed corporation formation where the corporation continues and will be treated as a properly formed corporation if...
  8. Piercing the Corporate Veil are acts done by a valid court which hold liable the...
  9. Funding for corporations derive from...
  10. Debt is when a corporation...
  11. Stocks reflect the investment in the corporation by...
  12. Shareholder Authority is the power of the shareholders to exert control over the corporation by...
  13. Meetings are conducted by the shareholders and the corporation where there are two types of meetings such as...
  14. Quorum is the...
  15. Proxies are...
  16. Direct suits are a shareholder’s pursuit of legal action towards a...
  17. Derivative suits are a...
  18. Demand on the corporation for a Derivative suit must be in...
  19. Business Judgement Rule is the court’s ability to ignore the business decision if the decision was made in...
  20. Duty of Loyalty of the corporation is owed by...
  21. Conflict of Interest is a...
  22. Merger is when two or more company’s combine into a single company after...
  23. Dissolution of the corporation is the termination of the corporation when...

LLC

0 Correct out of 4
members
care
name of the LLC
managers of the LLC
name of registered agent
loyalty to each member and the LLC
address of the LLC
certificate is filed within the forum state
loyalty to each manager and the LLC
care
  1. Limited Liability Company is created when...
  2. Member Managed LLC is when all members owe a duty of...
  3. Manager Managed LLC is when only the managers owe a duty of...
  4. Good Faith and Fair Dealing is owed by all...
  • Jurisdiction
  • Marriage
  • Divorce
  • Property
  • Custody
  • Support
  • Adoption

Jurisdiction

0 Correct out of 1
domiciled in the forum state
6 months
  1. Jurisdiction in the forum state is established when one spouse has...

Marriage

0 Correct out of 5
in writing
license is obtained by the state
voluntary
consent
time to review the disclosure
cohabitation
capacity
voluntary
each spouse has adequate representation
intent
full and fair disclosure
holding themselves out to the public as married
solemnized
  1. Pre-Marital Agreements are legally enforceable contracts between the parties that provide distribution of the marital assets when...
  2. Post-Marital Agreements are legally enforceable contracts formed after the marriage to divide the marital property if...
  3. Marriage is the legal union of two individuals when...
  4. State of Mind required for marriage is...
  5. Common Law Marriage occurs when a couple is considered legally married if...

Divorce

0 Correct out of 2
consanguinity
irretrievably broken
bigamy or polygamy
incompatible
age
incapacity
living separate and apart for more than 6 months
  1. Annulment is a judicial declaration that a marriage was void and never valid if due to...
  2. Divorce is a decree that terminates the marriage when...

Property

0 Correct out of 4
separate property
will be split fairly between the spouses
passive income from separate property
acquired during the marriage
mixed with marital property
becomes martial property
owned prior to the marriage and kept separate
property acquired during the marriage on an equitable basis
separate property
gifts or inheritance in their sole name
  1. Property that is acquired during the marriage is presumed to be marital property unless...
  2. Equitable Division of Property refers to the courts process of dividing...
  3. Community Property is property...
  4. Comingled property is...

Custody

0 Correct out of 1
parenting
support is in the best interest of the child
time sharing
  1. Custody is the primary standard of care to determine to all...

Support

0 Correct out of 3
unanticipated change of circumstances
pendente lite
rehabilitative
material
dependent is mentally or physically handicapped
permanent alimony
support their child
durational
bridge-the-gap
both parents
least 18 years of age
substantial
  1. Spousal Support is the support of one spouse by another spouse in the form of...
  2. Modification of support must show...
  3. Child Support is the duty of...

Adoption

0 Correct out of 1
terminates the legal relationship between the parent and child
consent to of both biological parents
  1. Adoption requires the...
  • Will Trusts and Estates

Will Trusts and Estates

0 Correct out of 28
purposes of intestate succession
the same as a natural child
named competent trustee
definite beneficiary
loyalty
signed by the testator
document is authenticated
report
resulting in a trust implied by law
pecuniary interest in the beneficiaries
Testator’s intent to incorporate
failed express trust
kills their spouse
decedent’s estate that would have passed to the other party
valid purpose of the trust
intent
children born
people who are to benefit from the estate
must reduce gifts to satisfy those obligations
document existed
forfeits the decedents estate
decedent
influence was placed on the testator
understand the act of the will
signed by at least two witnesses
signed by the Testator
equitable remedy
revocation by physical act
above the signatures
distribution of property
nature of the disposition in a common scheme
testator’s handwriting
revoked the will
testator relied upon those misrepresentations
acceptance
protect the trust
specific property
gift made during the testator’s life
changes
reflect the intent to make a will
testator’s will would not have been executed but for the undue influence
intent that the gift be applied to any share the party would receive
preserve property
without a will
capacity
holds legal title to property
partial revocation
insufficient to pay obligations
revocation evidenced in writing
intent of the Testator to be included
no longer available in the estate
intent
delivery
adopted after the will was executed
intent to create the trust
modifications to an already existing will that meet the will requirements
reviving the prior will
revoking the instrument
administer
individual
decedents life
individual that this is their will
certifies the will requirements have been fulfilled
clear evidence the spouse survived more than 120 hours than the other spouse
amendments
testator’s free will and mind were overpowered
clear disposition of settlor’s specific property
property to be disposed
immediately preceding the will
one party
sufficient evidence one spouse died first
one party
writing
contain property
benefit of designated beneficiaries
rectify unjust enrichment
individual is over the age of 18
documents were present at the time of the will’s execution
intentionally deceived
disclaiming the party’s interest
  1. Intestate Succession is the...
  2. Adopted Children are treated...
  3. Simultaneous Death means one spouse cannot take as heir to the beneficiary unless the spouse survives the decedent with...
  4. Slayer Statute is one who...
  5. Disclaimer is the act of...
  6. Advancements are a...
  7. Capacity is required for a will to be valid at the time of execution when...
  8. Testamentary Intent is the...
  9. Wills are the instrument that directs the distribution of property of the decedent and shall...
  10. Attestation Clause is a clause...
  11. Codicils are...
  12. Holographic Wills are handwritten wills that must...
  13. Integration is when separate documents become integrated in the will when...
  14. Incorporation by Reference are documents that are not part of the will may be incorporated when...
  15. Revocation is the act of the testator to revoke the will at any time by...
  16. Pretermitted Children are...
  17. Revival is the act of...
  18. Ademption is the gift of...
  19. Abatement is when the estates value is...
  20. Contesting a will requires an...
  21. Undue Influence occurs when...
  22. Fraud occurs when the testator was...
  23. Intervivos Gift is a gift given by a living person to another with...
  24. Trust is a fiduciary relationship in which...
  25. Resulting Trust is a...
  26. Constructive Trust is an...
  27. Trust requires the settlor to have...
  28. Trustees Duties consist of a duty to...
  • Secured Transactions

Secured Transactions

0 Correct out of 15
notice to third parties
with the correct spelling of the debtor’s name
strict foreclosure
redemption
written authenticated record of the debtor
control
signed by the debtor
possession
creditor stands against other
third parties that may have a right
other goods
agricultural lien
description of the collateral
purchase-money collateral
sale of the collateral
secured party’s interest in the collateral
security interest
real estate
existing property
physically united with
collections
goods that are subject to title
security agreement is properly executed
repossession
rights in the described collateral
value of the collateral
against the debtor
county where the property is located
creditor to enforce the security interest
cars excluding inventory
security agreement
fixtures
security interest
purchased in part by the debtor with funds given to create the security interest
creditor’s name
it becomes part of the real estate
future property
personal property
collateral
fixture was attached to the real property
  1. Secured Transaction is governed by UCC Article 9 when intended to create a security interest in...
  2. Fixture is when personal property has become so affixed into...
  3. Collateral is property that is subject to...
  4. Accessions are goods that are...
  5. Security Interests can be created by...
  6. Security Agreement shall contain...
  7. After Acquired Property is property to be owned by the debtor in the future which allows the secured party to have an interest in...
  8. Attachment allows the...
  9. Perfection is...
  10. UCC Financing Statement is a...
  11. Purchase-Money Security Interest is a...
  12. Certificate of Title is a notation on the title document that applies to...
  13. Fixture Filing is a financing statement filed...
  14. Priority is where the...
  15. Rights on Default arises when the debtor fails to fulfill their obligations to the creditor causing...

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